wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Physics 2 Comprehensive Review

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary controller of the x-ray beam quality?

a)

mAs

b)

kVp

c)

filtration

d)

SID

2.

If the distance is doubled but all other factors remain the same, what change in technique is required to maintain IR exposure?

a)

increase kVp by 15%

b)

decrease filtration by 1/2

c)

increase mAs by a factor of four

d)

decrease focal spot size

3.

While evaluating an AP lumbar spine image acquired on a hypersthenic patient, the technologist notices the image appears fogged. What is the most likely cause?

a)

coherent scatter

b)

photoelectric absorption

c)

pair production

d)

Compton effect

4.

Proper use of beam collimation decreases:

a)

contrast

b)

magnification

c)

signal to noise ratio

d)

patient dose

5.

On average, what is the most likely result of a small change in beam filtration?

a)

increased penetrability, decreased quantity

b)

decreased penetrability, decreased quantity

c)

increased penetrability, increased quantity

d)

decreased penetrability, increased quantity

6.

What image receptor configuration is most likely to provide the lowest patient dose during ankle examination?

a)

direct digital radiography

b)

photostimulable phosphor plate

c)

film screen radiography

d)

image intensification

7.

While performing a portable hip examination, the technologist uses a grid and makes all needed changes to the technique. What is the most likely result?

a)

decreased magnification

b)

increased blur

c)

decreased dose

d)

increased contrast

8.

What represents the best way to decrease patient dose while improving image quality during a fluoroscopic examination?

a)

use of magnification mode

b)

decrease kVp, increase mAs

c)

grid use with pulsed imaging

d)

decrease exposure filed size

9.

The primary source of occupational radiation exposure for technologists is the:

a)

x-ray tube

b)

primary beam

c)

patient

d)

image receptor

10.

While performing a portable x-ray examination, what is the best method of technologist radiation protection?

a)

decrease focal spot size

b)

increase primary shielding

c)

decrease secondary shielding

d)

increase distance from the patient

11.

What is the minimum lead equivalent required for a lead apron designed to be worn while operating machines with a peak energy of 100 kVp?

a)

0.15 mm

b)

0.25 mm

c)

0.5 mm

d)

1.0 mm

12.

What is the minimum source-to-skin distance (SSD) for mobile fluoroscopes?

a)

30 cm (12 inches)

b)

38 cm (15 inches)

c)

100 cm (40 inches)

d)

180 cm (72 inches)

13.

When using a variable-aperture rectangular collimator, coincidence between the light field and the x-ray beam must not exceed what percentage of SID?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

8

14.

What is the total filtration in aluminum equivalent require by the NCRP for x-ray tubes capable of operating above 70 kVp?

a)

0.5 mm

b)

1.0 mm

c)

2.0 mm

d)

2.5 mm

15.

When working in fluoroscopy, which of the following represents the best way to decrease patient dose?

a)

magnification

b)

last image hold

c)

grid usage

d)

cumulative timing device

16.

What type of exposure switch is required for all fluoroscopic units?

a)

foot pedal

b)

variable

c)

dead man

d)

remotely controlled

17.

Which of the following techniques is the best for a neonate chest x-ray?

a)

100 mA at 0.025 sec

b)

200 mA at 0.0125 sec

c)

250 mA at 0.01 sec

d)

300 mA at 0.0083 sec

18.

A portable chest performed at 100 kVp, 7.0 mAs, and 45-inch SID demonstrated appropriate exposure, but the image must be repeated due to patient motion. What is the technique required if the SID is decreased to 40 inches?

a)

115 kVp and 7.0 mAs

b)

100 kVp and 5.5 mAs

c)

85 kVp and 7.0 mAs

d)

100 kVp and 9.1 mAs

19.

It is difficult to view the bones on an AP hip examination due to the image being too white. No amount of post-processing improves the visibility of bony anatomy. The technologist determines to repeat the image after changing the technique. How best should they proceed?

a)

increase kVp

b)

decrease OID

c)

increase focal spot size

d)

decrease mAs

20.

A technologist is asked to develop a new protocol for knee x-rays that will decrease magnification. Which of the following technical factors should be increased?

a)

focal spot size

b)

SID

c)

grid ratio

d)

OID

21.

Increasing the effective focal spot size will most likely increase:

a)

patient dose

b)

beam penetrability

c)

unsharpness

d)

contrast

22.

If a technique 5 mAs without a grid, how much mAs is required to maintain exposure using a 5:1 grid?

a)

2.5 mAs

b)

10 mAs

c)

15 mAs

d)

20 mAs

23.

Patient with emphysema requires a portable chest x-ray. How should the technologist proceed?

a)

increase kVp

b)

decrease SID

c)

increase focal spot size

d)

decrease mAs

24.

While working with a patient who has a broken humerus, the technologist was unable to bring the patient's arm into alignment with the plane of the image receptor. What is the most likely result?

a)

magnification

b)

foreshortening

c)

underexposure

d)

poor contrast resolution

25.

When using a fixed kVp technique chart, what factor is primarily used to control for changes in anatomic thickness?

a)

mAs

b)

kVp

c)

focal spot size

d)

grid ratio

26.

What is the most likely result of failing to position the anatomy of interest over the active ionization chambers when using automatic exposure control?

a)

foreshortening

b)

image blur

c)

quantum mottle

d)

elongation

27.

When using a digital imaging system with a fixed matrix size, which of the following increases with increased field of view?

a)

pixel size

b)

spatial resolution

c)

image quantization

d)

sampling frequency

28.

What is being imaged?

a)

luminance

b)

illuminance

c)

luminance intensity

d)

illuminance intensity

29.

Which of the following has the largest impact on image spatial resolution?

a)

centering

b)

exposure field sixe

c)

pixel pitch

d)

collimation

30.

What term refers to the total number of distinct levels of gray any given pixel can represent in a digital imaging system?

a)

pixel pitch

b)

bit depth

c)

matriz size

d)

digitization

31.

If a technologist was asked to review different imaging systems and provide recommendations on which system provides the best spatial resolution, what technical factor should be most closely considered?

a)

automatic exposure control

b)

dynamic range

c)

analog to digital conversion

d)

modulation transfer function

32.

When a technique lacks sufficient mAs, it can directly impact:

a)

signal-to-noise ratio

b)

dynamic range

c)

spatial resolution

d)

magnification

33.

What imaging error is most likely to result in a lawsuit?

a)

no shielding used

b)

improperly marked image

c)

incorrect SID

d)

lack of breathing instructions

34.

When using manual exposure controls to complete a pediatric chest x-ray, what mA setting is the best possible option, assuming the mAs remain the same?

a)

200

b)

250

c)

300

d)

350

35.

What is being imaged?

a)

Hard Copy

b)

X-ray

c)

Soft Copy

d)

Digital Images

36.

What part of a fluoroscopic image intensifier converts light to electrons?

a)

output phoshor

b)

focusing lenses

c)

input phosphor

d)

photocathode

37.

What is a major drawback of using fluoroscopic magnification?

a)

decreased spatial resolution

b)

increased object image receptor distance

c)

decreased image contrast

d)

increase patient dose

38.

What color of light is emitted by a computed radiography photostimulable phosphor plate after stimulation by the helium neon laser?

a)

blue

b)

green

c)

yellow

d)

red

39.

Which of the following measures best determines the performance of a flat-panel detector?

a)

SID

b)

DAP

c)

ADC

d)

DQE

40.

When using a photostimulable phosphor plate to capture the remnant beam, what processes the electrical signal from the photomultiplier and produces a digital image?

a)

analog to digital converter

b)

thin film transistor

c)

detector quantum efficiency

d)

flat-panel detector

41.

What term refers to the process of averaging pixel values to reduce high-frequency noise?

a)

leveling

b)

windowing

c)

sampling

d)

smoothing

42.

Which of the following is used by the computer to optimize image contrast and brightness based on predetermined reference values?

a)

aliasing

b)

blackmasking

c)

look-up table

d)

maximum pixel value

43.

A display monitor with decreased pixel size demonstrates increased:

a)

spatial resolution

b)

brightness and contrast

c)

distortion

d)

pixel pitch

44.

An image demonstrates areas of total blackness within the anatomy of interest. No changes to window width or level alter the blackened areas. This is best described as:

a)

resolution

b)

wide latitude

c)

saturation

d)

dynamic range

45.

All other factors remaining constant, the imaging system with which of the following will demonstrate the best spatial resolution?

a)

largest field of view

b)

highest contrast resolution

c)

lowest detective quantum efficiency

d)

smallest pixel size

46.

What term applies to using software programs to fill-in dead pixels using information from surrounding pixels?

a)

tomography

b)

interpolation

c)

edge enhancement

d)

gain calibration

47.

Which of the following is the most likely result of an exposure field that is larger than is necessary for imaging?

a)

decreased magnification

b)

improved detective quantum efficiency

c)

increased scatter production

d)

reduced patient dose

48.

An older flat-panel imaging system demonstrates image lag. How should the technologist proceed?

a)

decrease kVp on all exams

b)

refresh the HL-7 connection

c)

measure beam and light field coincidence

d)

increase the time between exposures

49.

How should the technologist proceed if they suspect a flat-panel detector has a flaw, such as a series of dead pixels, that is producing a visible artifact?

a)

gain calibration

b)

SID measurement

c)

edge enhancement

d)

densitometer testing

50.

When working with a photostimulable phosphor plate image receptor, what special consideration is recommended if the plate has not been used for examination over a prolonged period of time?

a)

increase mAs

b)

verify barcode

c)

download updates

d)

erase cassette

51.

What device is most often used for display monitor quality control?

a)

densitometer

b)

DAP meter

c)

photometer

d)

sensitometer

52.

Time required for the x-ray tube to be switched on and reach the selected level kVp and mA in fluoroscopy

4 lines
53.

What is being imaged?

a)

annotation

b)

smoothing

c)

stitching

d)

connection

54.

What 2 terms represent this picture?

a)

flat fielding and interpolation

b)

sampling and quantization

c)

interpolation and sampling

d)

flat fielding and quantization

55.

What is the AAPM-TG 18 used for?

a)

Grayscale Display Function testing

b)

collimator test

c)

Comprehensive Digital Display Device testing

d)

monitor testing

56.

Image Acquisition, Image Display, Network, Storage System

a)

Components of the x-ray tube

b)

components of PACS

c)

components of DICOM

d)

components of AAPM TG 18

57.

Low contrast procedures are

a)

wider latitude, longer gray scale

b)

narrow latitude, short gray scale

c)

wider latitude, short gray scale

d)

narrow latitude, longer gray scale

58.

line and space after it...

a)

lp/mm

b)

lp

c)

lp/mm squared

d)

mm

59.

Which one of these is not a digital artifact?

a)

I.R.

b)

Software

c)

Object

d)

Processing

60.

What language is used for PACS?

a)

AAPM TG 18

b)

DICOM

c)

GSDF

d)

RIS

61.

Minification Gain X Flux Gain

a)

Conversion Efficiency

b)

Brightness Gain

c)

Magnification Factor

d)

DAP

62.

What is being imaged?

a)

body mechanics

b)

ergonomics

c)

radiation protection

d)

radiologist

63.

What are the 2 types of data compression techniques?

a)

lossy and lossless

b)

ADC and DAC

c)

gain and offset

d)

lossless and gain

64.

What is being imaged?

a)

Image Flip

b)

Annotation

c)

Image Inversion

d)

Image Conversion

65.

How often must lead aprons be fluoroscopically inspected for damage?

a)

daily

b)

weekly

c)

monthly

d)

annually