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AMT 221 Final Quiz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

MIL-H-5606 is processed from petroleum and is described with an odor similar to penetrating oil and is dyed red. Is the statement True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Skydrol is an example and is rooted from a Polyalfaolefin based fluids. Is the statement True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

3.

__________ pumps are installed for use in emergencies or during ground operations when engines are not running.

a)

Electrical Driven

b)

Engine Driven

c)

Pneumatic Driven

4.

Which statement best describes gear type pump?

a)

Consist of a housing containing 4 vanes, a hollow steel rotor with slots for the vanes, and a coupling to turn the rotor.

b)

Consists of a housing containing an eccentric-shaped stationary liner, an integral gear rotor having 4 narrow teeth.

c)

Consist of two meshed gears that revolve in a housing. Composed of a driven gear and a driving gear.

5.

How does Power Transfer Unit work?

a)

Transfers pressure from one system to the other.

b)

Transfers fluid from one system to the other.

c)

Transfers temperature from one system to the other.

6.

Pressure relief valve is used to limit the amount of pressure exerted on a confined liquid. How is this necessary?

a)

This is necessary to allow components or rupture of hydraulic lines under excessive pressures.

b)

This is necessary to prevent failure of components or rupture of hydraulic lines under excessive pressures.

c)

This is not necessary

7.

Which statement best describes Rime Ice?

a)

Forms a smooth, thick coating over leading edges.

b)

Tenacious

c)

Is brittle and more easily removed

8.

Which statement best describes Glaze Ice?

a)

Forms a rough surface on the aircraft leading edges.

b)

Tenacious

c)

Is brittle and more easily removed

9.

The following are some of the Icing effects on aircrafts: (1) Causes destructive vibration, (2) Hampers true instrument readings, (3) Maneuverability improved, (4) Flight controls jammed, (5) Saves more fuel, and (6) Improves pilot visibility . Which among the Icing effects are not true?

a)

1,2 & 4

b)

3, 5 & 6

c)

2, 4 & 6

10.

_________________ is most common to small components due to high amperage draw.

a)

Chemical Anti-Icing

b)

Thermal Pneumatic Anti-Icing

c)

Thermal Electric Anti- Icing

11.

Hold Over Time (HOT) of Chemical Anti-Icing begins when the final application of anti-icing and de icing fluid commences and expires when anti-icing and de-icing loses its effectiveness. Is the statement True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Which of the following choices are true about the advantages of a tricycle type landing gear?

a)

Provides better visibility from the flight deck.

b)

Heavier than the 2 other configuration

c)

Causes ground looping of the aircraft

13.

Which of the following choices below is true about "Swinging the gear"?

a)

Check the landing gear for proper extension and retraction.

b)

Check landing gear linkage for proper operation, adjustment, and general condition.

c)

Check all the landing gear doors for clearance and freedom from binding.

d)

All choices are TRUE

14.

Which among these Landing Gear Safety Devices are tagged with a red streamer indicating "Remove Before Flight"?

a)

Safety switches

b)

Nose wheel centering

c)

Ground locks

d)

Proximity sensor

15.

From our previous lesson, How many common types of Brake assembly were discussed?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

16.

Shock Absorber performs absorbing by Shock energy is altered and transferred throughout the powerplant at a different rate and time than the single strong pulse impact. Is the statement True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Torque link is used to keep the piston and wheel aligned. Is the statement True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Carbon disc brakes are approximately 100% lighter than the conventional brake material which is steel. Is the statement True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Landing Gear System Maintenance includes checking for landing gear position indicators, lights, and warning horns for proper operation Is the statement True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Wheel bearing inspection includes: After removal of the bearings, it must be cleaned with the recommended solvent, such as ________,_________, and __________?

a)

Varsol, Naptha, AVGAS

b)

Stoddard, Varsol, Jet A1

c)

Varsol, Naptha, Stoddard

d)

AVGAS, Jet A1, Naptha

21.

Green position/navigation light is always mounted at the extreme tip of the right wing. Is the statement True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Anti-Collision Beacon Light is for drawing the attention to anyone/ground personnel within the area of the plane that the plane is about to move, either being pushed back or operating under its own power. Is the statement True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Take-off lights are brighter than taxi lights? Is the statement True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Landing lights of an Airbus A320 are typically extended and retracted by an electric motor and give a powerful 600 watt beam onto the runway. Is the statement True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Which of the following choices below is true about A320 Lighting System Safety Precaution?

a)

Isolate electrical circuits from the related equipment and the environment to prevent injury to personnel and aircraft damage.

b)

Do not disconnect the electrical connections for at least 2 minutes after de-energizing the electrical circuits

c)

When changing a lamp, do not touch the glass with bare fingers.

d)

All choices are TRUE

26.

In Human respiration and circulation when aircraft reaches 25,000 ft MSL, oxygen transfer to the bloodstream is reduced to 50% which then results to?

a)

Increased pulse and respiration

b)

Unconsciousness

c)

Headache

d)

Vision and judgement impaired

27.

To ensure oxygen storage continued serviceability, cylinders must be _____________ periodically.

a)

Inspected

b)

Hydrostatically tested

c)

Pressure test

28.

A typical Chemical oxygen generator can produce a steady flow of breathable oxygen until it burns out, typically generating from _____________ of oxygen.

a)

5-10 minutes

b)

10-20 hours

c)

15 mins

29.

All cylinders on the Oxygen filler carts must contain at least _______ of oxygen pressure.

a)

30 psi

b)

50 psi

c)

100 psi

30.

The amount of oxygen flow by the regulator is determined by 3 factors. Which among the choices is not a part of it?

a)

Type of continuous flow system in use

b)

Size of container orifice

c)

Size of plug in orifice

d)

Type of mask

31.

The use of Vacuum system for general aviation aircrafts with reciprocating engine includes the choices below EXCEPT:

a)

Turn and Bank Indicator

b)

Attitude indicator

c)

Heading indicator

d)

GTE engine starting

32.

A320 Pneumatic System has 5 detection loops. Is the statement True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

33.

(Gen Av) gyroscopic instrument relies on vacuum pressure through a ___________ to create a suction to spin the gyroscope.

a)

Vacuum check valve

b)

Vacuum pump

c)

Vacuum filter

34.

On the Airbus A320 Pneumatic system, air is bled from either the IP stage or the HP stage using the _______________ that regulates pneumatically.

a)

Pressure regulating valve

b)

Fan air valve

c)

High pressure valve

35.

On the A320 Pneumatic System Safety Precaution, on of which is "Be careful when you work on the engine components immediately after the engine is shutdown. The engine components can stay hot up to one hour".

a)

True

b)

False

36.

____________ system provides sanitary toilets in the lavatory compartments and a means to dispose of toilet waste.

a)

Waste water

b)

Potable

c)

Toilet

37.

Which among the choices is not to be found on the water servicing panel?

a)

Fill port

b)

Drain overflow port

c)

Full tank indicator

d)

T Handle

38.

In this lavatory drain valve position, all lines are completely open.

a)

OFF

b)

DRAIN

c)

ON

39.

What specific equipment is used to be used when differential pressure is not available for lavatory toilet flushing.

a)

Vacuum Generator

b)

Vacuum Cleaner

c)

Vacuum filter

40.

A _____________ in the lavatory service panel opens the waste tank drain ball valve which permits the waste tank to drain.

a)

Drain Control Valve Control Handle

b)

Cap

c)

Flush/Fill hose

41.

Central Maintenance System is to monitor the health of the aircraft, it diagnoses the issues quickly and accurately by the use of __________________ to receive diagnostic data from all the avionic units and some aircraft and powerplant units.

a)

FADEC

b)

BITE

c)

MDC

d)

ACARS

42.

On Board Maintenance System allow such technical data to be uploaded, downloaded, viewed, and printed by the flight attendant.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Menus from the ____ allow the user to view both current faults and fault history.

a)

PFD

b)

BITE

c)

MFD

d)

MCDU

44.

MEL determines which faults must be corrected before further flight, and which faults may be deferred for later correction.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

______ can be used by the flight crew to send messages manually or automatically, which then sends reports about occurrences not associated with the on board maintenance system.

a)

ARINC

b)

ACARS

c)

ELS

d)

DLS

46.

The term Avionics itself derives from aviation electronics, and it refers to electronic systems used in aircraft.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Aircraft wit IMA can realize reductions in the bulk, space, and weight of their avionics systems.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Traditionally, on non-IMA aircraft, each avionics system had its own separate indicator and its own separate controls.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The IMA system consists of a common core system with network components.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

During the Week 16 live lecture, who conducted the lesson for Integrated Modular Avionics?

a)

Kim Deano, AMS

b)

Niel Anthony Buhay, MEAM, AMT

c)

Rhoen Roy Estribor, AMS

d)

Engr. Kristian Magsalin