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Parasitology Final Exam

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What mite causes a crusty infection called "canker ear" in rabbits?

a)

Psoroptes cuniculi

b)

Sarcoptes scabiei

c)

Ctenocephalides felis

d)

Gliricola porcelli

2.

Which fly transmits M. bovis, the bacterium responsible for infectious bovine keratitis

a)

Tabanus spp.

b)

Musca autumnalis

c)

Musca domestica

d)

Haematobia irritans

3.

_____ is the most common tapeworm in dogs & cats and is caused by inadvertently swallowing a flea that is the intermediate host.

a)

Anoplocephala perfoliata

b)

Taenia pisiformis

c)

Dipylidium caninum

d)

Echinococcus granulosas

4.

A dog that chases and eats wild rabbits is most likely to become infected with which cestode?

a)

Dipylidium caninum

b)

Taenia pisiformis

c)

Anoplocephala magna

d)

Echinococcus granulosus

e)

Taenia ovis

5.

A dairy farmer just acquired livestock from Louisiana & is concerned they may have Fasciola hepatica. What fecal exam method will give you the best chance of finding the eggs of this parasite?

a)

Gross examination

b)

Sedimentation

c)

Direct smear

d)

Passive flotation

e)

Centrifugal flotation

6.

A mature, egg bearing tapeworm segment is called a:

(a)  

7.

An ectoparasite known both for its host specificity & site specificity is the:

a)

Flea

b)

Mosquito

c)

Louse

d)

Mite

e)

Tick

8.

Bots are:

a)

Flea feces

b)

Seed ticks

c)

Fly larvae

d)

Lice eggs

9.

Fasciola hepatica can be found in all of the following hosts except:

a)

Sheep

b)

Snails

c)

Fish

d)

Cattle

e)

Humans

10.

Fascioloides magna infection in sheep can be diagnosed by:

a)

Immature flukes found in diarrheic feces

b)

Fecal sedimentation

c)

Transtrachel wash

d)

Fecal flotation

e)

Necropsy

11.

Flies do not cause damage in which of the following ways:

a)

Damage to hide

b)

Transmission of Babesia

c)

Annoyance, irritation

d)

Loss of production (milk, weight, etc.)

e)

Myiasis

12.

From youngest to oldest, which is the correct order of the tick's life cycle?

a)

Egg, nymph, larva, adult

b)

Larva, egg, nymph, adult

c)

Egg, larva, nymph, adult

d)

Nymph, larva, egg, adult

13.

Intermediate hosts of nontaeniid tapeworms include all but which of the following:

a)

Mites

b)

Lice

c)

Fleas

d)

Ticks

14.

List the major life stages associated with complete (complex) metamorphosis.

(a)  

15.

Rodent or rabbit bot fly

a)

Cuterebra spp.

b)

Tabanus spp.

c)

Culicoides spp.

d)

Melophagus ovinus

16.

Oestrus ovis

a)

Sheep ked

b)

Sheep nasal bot

c)

Goat tapeworm

d)

Scab mite

17.

Melophagus ovinus

a)

Sheep ked

b)

Sheep nasal bot

c)

Cat chewing louse

d)

Foot mange mite, itchy leg mite

18.

Tabanus spp.

a)

Black flies, buffalo gnats

b)

No-see-ums, biting midges

c)

Dog sucking louse

d)

Horse fly

19.

Taenia pisiformis

a)

Double-pored tapeworm

b)

Liver fluke

c)

Dog-rabbit tapeworm

d)

Dog sucking louse

20.

Culicoides spp.

a)

No-see-ums, biting midges

b)

Walking dandruff

c)

Horse fly

d)

Black flies, buffalo gnats

21.

Cheyletiella spp.

a)

Foot mange, itchy leg mite

b)

Walking dandruff

c)

Cat chewing louse

d)

Scab mite

22.

Chorioptes spp.

a)

Foot mange mite, itchy leg mite

b)

Ear mite

c)

Hydatid tapeworm

d)

Horse fly

23.

Moniezia spp.

a)

Dog-rabbit tapeworm

b)

Black flies, buffalo gnats

c)

Sheep/goat tapeworm

d)

Liver fluke

24.

Black flies, buffalo gnats:

a)

Simulium spp.

b)

Culicoides spp.

c)

Tabanus spp.

d)

Moniezia spp.

25.

Cat chewing louse:

a)

Linognathus setosus

b)

Chorioptes spp.

c)

Felicola subrostratus

d)

Psoroptes spp.

26.

Linognathus setosus

a)

Hydatid tapeworm

b)

Dog sucking louse

c)

American dog tick

d)

Goat/sheep tapeworm

27.

Double-pored tapeworm

a)

Dipylidium caninum

b)

Echinococcus granulosus

c)

Fasciola hepatica

d)

Linognathus setosus

28.

Psoroptes spp.

a)

Scab mite

b)

Foot mange mite, itchy leg mite

c)

Ear mite

d)

Dog flea

29.

Fasciola hepatica

a)

Liver fluke

b)

Cat chewing louse

c)

Hydatid tapeworm

d)

Double-pored tapeworm

30.

Dog chewing louse

a)

Linognathus setosus

b)

Trichodectes canis

c)

Ctenocephalides canis

d)

Dermacentor variabilis

31.

American dog tick

a)

Dermacentor variabilis

b)

Echinococcus granulosus

c)

Taenia pisiformis

d)

Trichodectes canis

32.

Hydatid tapeworm

a)

Echinococcus granulosus

b)

Moniezia spp.

c)

Taenia pisiformis

d)

Dipylidium caninum

33.

Nanophyetus salmincola transmits what highly fatal disease?

a)

Clostridium novyi (black disease)

b)

Yersinia pestis (bubonic plague)

c)

Dietpepsius borborgymus (cola eructation disease)

d)

Trichinella spiralis (trichinosis)

e)

Neorickettsia helmintheca (salmon-poisoning)

34.

Nitenpyram, fipronil, & imidacloprid are all used in the treatment of which of the following?

a)

Cestodes

b)

Fleas

c)

Nematodes

d)

Ticks

35.

Specific name of invasion of living tissue by fly larvae:

(a)  

36.

Taeniid tapeworm species are found in which type of definitive host:

a)

Arthropods

b)

Herbivores

c)

Equines

d)

Rodents

e)

Carnivores

37.

Taeniid tapeworms are pathogenic to the (a)   host.

38.

Tapeworm infections are most often diagnosed in small animals by which of the following methods?

a)

Direct smear

b)

Sedimentation

c)

Centrifugal fecal flotation

d)

Passive fecal flotation

e)

Gross examination

39.

The fly whose larvae form warbles in subcutaneous tissue along the back of cattle is:

a)

Gasterophilus spp.

b)

Hypoderma spp.

c)

Oestrus ovi

d)

Cuterebra spp.

e)

none of the above

40.

The invasion of living or dead tissue by fly larvae is called:

(a)  

41.

What is the usual vector of Eastern equine encephalitis?

(a)  

42.

What nontaeniid horse tapeworm uses the grass mite as its intermediate host?

a)

Taenia multiceps

b)

Dipylidium caninum

c)

Anoplocephala spp.

d)

Echinococcus multiocularis

e)

Echinococcus granulosus

43.

What parasite causes a very pruritic disease in dogs?

a)

Demodex

b)

Dermacentor

c)

Cheyletiella

d)

Sarcoptes

44.

What life stage is the parasitic stage of the Chigger?

a)

Nymph

b)

All life stages

c)

Adult

d)

Larval

45.

Which of the following arthropods have not been eliminated from the U.S.?

a)

Otobius magnini

b)

Rhipicephalus (Boophilus) microplus

c)

Rhipicephalus (Boophilus) annulatus

d)

Cochliomyia hominivorax

e)

All of the above have been eliminated

46.

Which of the following ectoparasites would not be found in a dog:

a)

Otodectes cynotis

b)

Psoroptes spp.

c)

Ixodes scapularis

d)

Ctenocephalides felis

e)

Ctenocephalides canis

47.

Which of the following flies does not cause myiasis?

a)

Cuterebra spp.

b)

Oestrus ovis

c)

Melophagus ovinus

d)

Hypoderma spp.

e)

Gasterophilus nasalis

48.

Which of the following flies lays live larvae instead of eggs:

a)

Hypoderma bovis

b)

Oestrus ovis

c)

Otobius megnini

d)

Gasterophilus intestinalis

e)

Cuterebra spp.

49.

Which arthropods undergo incomplete metamorphosis?

a)

Lice

b)

Ticks

c)

Flies

d)

Mites

e)

Mosquitoes

50.

Which of the following ticks transmits Borrelia burgdorferi (the causative organism of Lyme Disease) on the east coast of the U.S.?

a)

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

b)

Dermacentor variabilis

c)

Otobius megnini

d)

Ixodes scapularis

e)

Amblyomma americanum

51.

Procedure used to diagnose most types of mites on the skin:

(a)  

52.

(a)   mites are usually a nonparasitic species of mite found on most normal mammals, but can cause problems in excessive numbers.

53.

Which of the following mites usually does not cause pruritus:

a)

Demodex canis

b)

Trichodectes canis

c)

Cheyletiella spp.

d)

Sarcoptes scabiei

e)

Otodectes cynotis

54.

Which of the following products is a safe, acceptable, and effective means of flea control?

a)

Ivermectin

b)

OTC flea collars

c)

Nexgard

d)

Brewer's yeast

e)

Hartz UltraGuard Pro Flea & Tick Drops

55.

Children get pinworms from:

a)

Dogs

b)

Cats

c)

Horses

d)

Guinea pigs

e)

Children

56.

Trichinella spiralis is transmitted to humans by:

a)

Ingestion of infective larvae in soil

b)

Skin penetration

c)

Ingestion of undercooked beef

d)

Ingestion of undercooked pork

e)

Ingestion of undercooked frog legs

57.

Occult heartworm infections occur in approximately 90% of:

a)

Dogs

b)

Horses

c)

Cats

d)

Humans

58.

Which organ is most commonly affected in cats that develop disease due to infection with Dirofilaria immitis?

a)

Liver

b)

Lung

c)

Heart

d)

Central nervous system

e)

Skeletal muscle

59.

Which of the following parasite eggs does not look like the others?

a)

Ostertagia ostertagi

b)

Haemonchus contortus

c)

Strongyloides papillosus

d)

Cooperia spp.

e)

Trichostrongylus spp.

60.

Name a nematode that has an operculated egg (scientific name only)

(a)  

61.

This intestinal threadworm commonly infects young nursing foals as larvae are reactivated in the mare & passed through milk.

a)

Strongyloides westeri

b)

Strongyloides ransomi

c)

Strongyloides papillosus

d)

Strongyloides stercoralis

62.

What major disadvantage is common to both the direct smear & fecal sedimentation methods of fecal examination?

a)

Neither is a concentrating method

b)

They both test a very small sample only

c)

Fecal debris will make microscopic examination difficult

d)

Both are more time consuming to perform than standard flotation methods

63.

What group of parasites (genus or common name) is normally responsible for cutaneous larval migrans?

(a)  

64.

The migration of larvae the skin of the accidental host without maturing to adults, producing pruritic, serpentine lesions.

(a)  

65.

Which of the following roundworms are not potentially infectious to humans:

a)

Parascaris equorum

b)

Toxocara canis

c)

Toxocara cati

d)

Baylisascaris procyonis

e)

All of the above are potentially infectious to humans

66.

Which of the following worms is found by utilizing the Baermann technique rather than a fecal flotation:

a)

Trichostrongylus axei

b)

Ostertagia ostertagi

c)

Eucoleus (Capillaria) aerophilus

d)

Dictyocaulus viviparus

67.

How are roundworms transmitted to foals:

a)

Transplacentally

b)

Transcolostrally (transmammary)

c)

Ingestion of fresh feces

d)

Skin penetration

e)

Ingestion of soil contaminated with infective eggs

68.

Which larval stages of Dirofilaria immitis exist in the intermediate host?

a)

L1

b)

L2

c)

L3

d)

L4

e)

L5

69.

Which of the following worms does not require an arthropod intermediate host?

a)

Acanthocheilonema (Dipetalonema) reconditum

b)

Thelazia spp.

c)

Habronema spp.

d)

Dirofilaria immitis

e)

Oxyuris equi

70.

What is the infective stage of most nematodes?

a)

Egg

b)

L1

c)

L2

d)

L3

e)

L4

71.

Which parasites diameter is smaller than the width of a RBC when seen on a blood smear?

a)

Acanthocheilonema (Dipetalonema) reconditum

b)

Dirofilaria immitis

72.

Which parasite has a buttonhook on the posterior end, and a cephalic hook on the anterior end

a)

Acanthocheilonema (Dipetalonema) reconditum

b)

Dirofilaria immitis

73.

What is the minimum number of minutes a fecal flotation should stand before examination?

a)

5 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

20 minutes

d)

30 mintues

74.

Serology tests can detect heartworms in a dogs blood:

a)

Immediately after becoming infected

b)

Several days after becoming infected

c)

Several weeks after becoming infected

d)

Several months after becoming infected

75.

Which of the following statements is true concerning ascarids:

a)

Eggs hatch in the environment

b)

All ascarids undergo hepatotracheal migration

c)

Ascarid eggs look like lemons or footballs

d)

Adult ascarids are very large & robust compared to other worms

76.

Cattle necropsy after a heavy infection of this parasite might have abomasal mucosa with the appearance of "Moroccan leather"

a)

Dictyocaulus viviparus

b)

Dicrocoelium dendriticum

c)

Ostertagia ostertagi

d)

Haemonchus contortus

77.

Why might a false-negative occur on a heartworm antigen test?

a)

Prepatent period

b)

Only male worms present

c)

Light infection

d)

False-negative results do not occur

e)

Antigen-antibody complexes

78.

False-negative results can occur in heartworm antigen tests due to antigen-antibody complexes.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Which of the following worms are not found in urine:

a)

Stephanurus dentatus

b)

Pearsonema (Capillaria)pica

c)

Eucoleus (Capillaria) aerophilus

d)

Dioctophyma renale

e)

Pearsonema (Capillaria) feliscati

80.

Which one of the following drugs is not effective against ascarids:

a)

Heartgard (ivermectin)

b)

Interceptor(milbemycin)

c)

Panacur (fenbendazole)

d)

Droncit (praziquantal)

e)

Strongid (pyrantel pamoate)

81.

Trichuris vulpis is transmitted in which of the following ways:

a)

Trasplacentally

b)

Transmammary

c)

Skin penetration

d)

Ingestion of infective eggs

e)

All of the above

82.

The intermediate host for Dirofilaria immitis is the:

a)

Flea

b)

Rodent

c)

Mosquito

d)

Snail

e)

Horn fly

83.

Which small animal parasite ova resemble strongyle ova in horses

a)

Toxocara canis

b)

Trichuris vulpis

c)

Ancylostoma caninum

d)

Strongyloides stercoralis

e)

Dipylidium caninum

84.

What is the intermediate host for Thelazia?

(a)  

85.

_____ is an intracellular, gram negative, symbiotic bacteria that is required for all life stages of D. immitis development, reproduction, and survival

a)

Mycobacteria

b)

Brucella

c)

Wolbachia

d)

Babesia

86.

In the dog, adult heartworms are normally found in the:

a)

Left ventricle

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Pulmonary veins

d)

Vena cava

87.

In puppies, transplacental transmission is the primary route of infection for:

a)

Dipylidium

b)

Toxocara

c)

Ancylostoma

d)

Trichuris

e)

Baylisascaris

88.

Which of the following statements are true about Trichuris vulpis:

a)

Whipworms are transmitted via the placenta

b)

Whipworms inhabit the lungs

c)

Whipworms can be eliminated through 2-3 dewormings

d)

Whipworm eggs are eaily killed in the environment

e)

Whipworm eggs are shed intermittently

89.

The time from entrance of the parasite into the definitive host until egg/larvae are produced:

(a)  

90.

In August, three sheep have died suddenly. The other sheep have pale gyms & one also has edema under her chin. You perform a fecal exam & find typical trichostrongyle type eggs. Which of the following is most likely:

a)

Haemonchus contortus

b)

Hyostrongylus rubidus

c)

Ostertagia ostertagi

d)

Bunostomum spp.

e)

Dictyocaulus filaria

91.

Name the one trichostrongyle whose egg can be easily distinguished from the other trichostrongyle-type eggs.

a)

Nematodirus spp.

b)

Dictyocaulus viviparus

c)

Strongyloides papillosus

d)

Eimeria spp.

92.

A route of infection by hookworms that is not shared by roundworms is:

a)

Ingestion of infective stage

b)

Transplacental

c)

Transmammary

d)

Skin penetration

e)

Ingestion of paratenic host

93.

Name the major lungworm of importance in the cattle industry (scientific name).

(a)  

94.

The clinical signs of_____ infection are usually seen only in foals 2-6 months old because immunity develops by 6 months of age.

a)

Draschia megastoma

b)

Parascaris equorum

c)

Oxyuris equi

d)

Thelazia spp.

95.

The AHS recommends annual microfilaria tests because dogs can have a negative heartworm antigen test but still be positive for microfilaria.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Lungworm diagnosed via eggs in fecal flotation or sputum

a)

Dictyocaulus viviparus

b)

Eucoleus (Capillaria) aerophilus

c)

Oxyuris equi

d)

Draschia megastoma

97.

Equine roundworm

a)

Parascaris equorum

b)

Oxyuris equi

c)

Baylisascaris procyonis

d)

Ostertagia ostertagi

98.

Cattle lungworm diagnosed via Baermann technique

a)

Dioctophyma renale

b)

Draschia megastoma

c)

Dictyocaulus viviparus

d)

Eucoleus (Capillaria)aerophilus

99.

Horse pinworm

a)

Baylisascaris procyonis

b)

Parascaris equorum

c)

Oxyuris equi

d)

Ancylostomat tubaeforme

100.

Causes "summer sores"

a)

Draschia megastoma

b)

Oxyuris equi

c)

Parascaris equorum

d)

Dictyocaulus viviparus

101.

You have performed a fecal exam on a kitten from the local human society. You find very small, unsporulated oocysts on a direct fecal exam. The kitten has a mild fever, but is otherwise find. Which is most likely?

a)

Toxoplasma

b)

Eimeria

c)

Cryptosporidium

d)

Toxocara

102.

Which of the following is a method of detecting Toxoplasma gondii in a cat?

a)

Direct fecal saline smear for presence of trophozoites

b)

Serologic testing

c)

Fecal flotation for presence of oocysts

d)

Direct blood smear for presence of tachyzoites

e)

Feeding reduviid bugs on the dog to increase parasites in blood

103.

Infective stage of a hemosporidian usually found as an inclusion inside the hosts red blood cells:

(a)  

104.

Which of the following transmits Leishmania?

a)

Reduviid bugs

b)

Horse flies

c)

Kissing bugs

d)

Sheep keds

e)

Sandflies

105.

What is the least sensitive type of fecal examination for most intestinal parasites?

a)

Direct smear

b)

Passive fecal flotation

c)

Fecal antigen test

d)

Fecal flotation by centrifugation

106.

Which of the following protozoans causes diarrhea as the primary clinical sign in the definitive host?

a)

Theileria equi

b)

Sarcocystis cruzi

c)

Eimeria bovis

d)

Sarcocystis neurona

e)

Babesia caballi

107.

Which of the following causes Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis?

a)

Theileria equi

b)

Sarcocystis cruzi

c)

Babesia caballi

d)

Sarcocystis neurona

108.

What is the most significant complication of Tritrichomonas foetus?

a)

Abortion (fetal absorption) and/or sterility

b)

Diarrhea & dehydration

c)

Fever

d)

Neurologic signs

109.

Which of the following precautions should pregnant women take to avoid contracting cystoisospora canis?

a)

None, it is not harmful to humans

b)

Wear gloves when gardening

c)

Cook all meat thoroughly

d)

Avoid cleaning litter boxes

e)

Wear tick repellent

110.

Which of the following protozoans is found in blood?

a)

Tritrichomonas foetus

b)

Eimeria bovis

c)

Isospora canis

d)

Cryptosporidium parvum

e)

Trypanosoma cruzi

111.

Giardia duodenalis is usually transmitted through:

a)

Ticks

b)

Contaminated water

c)

Venereal transmission

d)

Saliva of infected animals

e)

None of the above

112.

Which of the following is not a method of detection of Giardia infection?

a)

Fecal flotation

b)

Serologic ELISA

c)

Fecal ELISA

d)

Direct fecal saline smear

e)

All of the above are methods of detection of Giardia

113.

What is the definitive host for Sarcocystis neurona?

(a)  

114.

Which of the following statements is not true concerning Babesia bovis?

a)

Affects mostly young animals

b)

Transmitted by ticks

c)

Eliminated from the U.S.

d)

Causes "red water fever"

e)

Causes anemia

115.

Which of the following is a treatment of coccidiosis?

a)

Imidocarb

b)

Panacur

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Albon

e)

Albendazole

116.

Transmission of coccidia occurs by:

a)

Ingesting oocysts

b)

Direct bodily contact

c)

Transmammary transmission

d)

Transplacental transmission

e)

Inhalation

117.

What type of parasite is the intermediate host for all hemosporidians?

(a)  

118.

Isospora spp. affect all but which of the following hosts?

a)

Calves

b)

Piglets

c)

Kittens

d)

Puppies

e)

All of the above

119.

Which of these is not a stage of a protozoan life cycle?

a)

Trophozoite

b)

Sporozoite

c)

Oocyst

d)

Cyst

e)

Trophite

120.

Which stage of the protozoal life cycle is resistant to disinfection?

a)

Tachyzoite

b)

Trophozoite

c)

Sporozoite

d)

Oocyst

121.

Which of the following does not transmit trypanosomes?

a)

Sandflies

b)

Reduviid bugs

c)

Sheep keds

d)

Horse flies

e)

Kissing bugs

122.

What type of fecal solution should be used to find Giardia in a fecal flotation?

(a)  

123.

Name an amoeboid parasite (scientific name)

(a)  

124.

CAPC recommends including fecal antigen testing as part of fecal analysis to allow detection of:

a)

Infections during the prepatent period

b)

Single-sex infections

c)

Infections where eggs are shed intermittently

d)

All of the above

125.

What is the natural reservoir for Cytauxzoon felis?

(a)  

126.

Which form of Giardia is most likely found on a fecal flotation?

(a)  

127.

What is the vector (intermediate host) responsible for transmission of trypanosomes in cattle?

(a)  

128.

Which of the following protozoan parasites of cattle causes abortion or fetal absorption?

a)

Sarcocystis cruzi

b)

Giardia

c)

Tritrichomonas

d)

Eimeria

e)

Cryptosporidium

129.

Giardia spp. prepatent period:

a)

3-10 days

b)

74-90 days

c)

14-21 days

d)

21-35 days

130.

Trichuris vulpis (whips) prepatent period:

a)

14-21 days

b)

74-90 days

c)

21-35 days

d)

3-10 days

131.

Ancylostoma caninum (hooks) prepatent period

a)

21-35 days

b)

74-90 days

c)

14-21 days

d)

3-10 days

132.

Toxocara canis (rounds) prepatent period:

a)

74-90 days

b)

3-10 days

c)

21-35 days

d)

14-21 days

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