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Worksheets

Patho

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these describes how the body compensates for anemia?

a)

Increasing rate and depth of breathing

b)

Kidneys releasing more red blood cells

c)

Decreasing capillary vasoconstriction

d)

Hemoglobin holding more firmly onto oxygen

2.

What is the trigger for angina?

a)

Hyperlipidemia

b)

Atherosclerotic lesions

c)

Myocardial ischemia

d)

Myocardial necrosis

3.

Now does the body attempt to compensate for heart failure? Select all that apply.

a)

Initiation of an arrhythmia

b)

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Decreasing cardiac output

d)

Initiation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

e)

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

4.

The nurse is reviewing lab and test results for a client diagnosed with acute left ventricular heart failure. Which result would the nurse expect to find with this disorder?

a)

Decreased ejection fraction reported on echocardiogram

b)

Decreased serum brain natriuretic peptide

c)

Decreased serum white blood cell count

d)

Decreased serum red blood cell count

5.

The nurse is caring for a client with orthostatic hypotension. When the client asks why dizziness occurs when changing position from sitting to standing, how should the nurse

respond?

a)

“The valves in your veins are not working correctly, so blood pools in the lower extremities and cannot reach the brain.”

b)

“There is too much fluid in your body and the heart cannot pump fast enough to get it your brain.”

c)

"There is a shift of blood to the lower extremities which causes less blood flow to your brain."

d)

"The vessels of your brain vasoconstrict and decrease local blood flow."

6.

Which is a cause of right ventricular failure?

a)

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

b)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Aortic valve stenosis

7.

The nurse is caring for a client with a benign brain tumor. Which statement is true regarding benign tumors?

a)

Benign tumors are poorly differentiated.

b)

Benign tumors are encapsulated.

c)

Benign tumors cause systemic symptoms

d)

Benign tumors may spread to a distant location.

8.

The nurse is caring for a client with bladder cancer. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect with this diagnosis?

a)

Foul-smelling urine

b)

Cola-colored urine

c)

Diluted urine

d)

Hematuria

9.

What is the physiologic manifestation present in all anemias?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hyperesthesia

c)

Ischemia

d)

Hypoxia

10.

Which clinical manifestation would be expected in a client with vitamin B 12 deficiency anemia that is not present in iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Pallor

b)

Fatigue

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Paresthesia

11.

The nurse is caring for a client with neutropenia. What is a potential complication of this diagnosis?

a)

Infection

b)

Bleeding

c)

Anemia

12.

The nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia and the client appears jaundiced. What process in the body leads to this clinical manifestation?

a)

The sickled erythrocytes have caused the liver to fail.

b)

The erythrocytes are coated with an immunoglobulin.

c)

Heme destruction exceeds the liver's ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin.

d)

The erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen.

13.

What routes do cancer cells utilize to invade surrounding tissues and organs or metastasize to distant organs? Select all that apply.

a)

Through seeding body cavities

b)

Through lymphatic vessels

c)

Through the fecal-oral route

d)

Through bone barrow

e)

By direct invasion

14.

The emergency room nurse is caring for a client with polycythemia vera who is displaying neurological changes. The nurse knows that which pathophysiological change may be

contributing to these manifestations?

a)

Tissue destruction by macrophages

b)

Destruction of erythrocytes

c)

Decreased erythrocyte count

d)

Increased blood viscosity

15.

What are risk factors for iron-deficiency anemia? Select all that apply.

a)

Old age

b)

Sickle cell disease

c)

Heavy menstrual periods

d)

Bleeding gastrointestinal ulcer

e)

Malnutrition

16.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis of the lower extremity. Which assessment should the nurse perform to evaluate for a potential complication?

a)

Foot strength

b)

ROM

c)

Pedal pulse

d)

RR

17.

The nurse is caring for a client with aortic stenosis. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse monitor for in this client? Select all that apply.

a)

Dry cough

b)

Syncope

c)

Bounding pulses

d)

Heart Failure

e)

Hypotension

18.

What is the trigger for angina?

a)

Hyperlipidemia

b)

Atherosclerotic lesions

c)

Myocardial ischemia

d)

Myocardial necrosis

19.

How does the body attempt to compensate for heart failure? Select all that apply.

a)

Initiation of an arrhythmia

b)

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Decreasing cardiac output

d)

Initiation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

e)

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

20.

The nurse is reviewing lab and test results for a client diagnosed with acute left ventricular heart failure. Which result would the nurse expect to find with this disorder?

a)

Decreased ejection fraction reported on echocardiogram

b)

Decreased serum brain natriuretic peptide

c)

Decreased serum white blood cell count

d)

Decreased serum red blood cell count

21.

The nurse is caring for a client with orthostatic hypotension. When the client asks why dizziness occurs when changing position from sitting to standing, how should the nurse

respond?

a)

“The valves in your veins are not working correctly, so blood pools in the lower extremities and cannot reach the brain.”

b)

'There is too much fluid in your body and the heart cannot pump fast enough to get it your brain."

c)

"There is a shift of blood to the lower extremities which causes less blood flow to your brain."

d)

"The vessels of your brain vasoconstrict and decrease local blood flow."

22.

Which is a cause of right ventricular failure?

a)

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

b)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Aortic valve stenosis

23.

How does angiotensin Il increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?

a)

By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia

b)

By reducing the contractility of the myocardium

c)

By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction

d)

By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system

24.

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. What is the pathophysiology of this disorder?

a)

Lack of oxygen to cardiac tissues

b)

Genetic mutation of the cardiac sarcomere

c)

Age-related calcification of the endocardium

d)

Immune response initiated from streptococcus bacteria

25.

Norepinephrine produces what primary response?

a)

Vasoconstriction of vessels

b)

Increased myocardial contractility

c)

Decreased respiratory drive

d)

Release of renin

26.

The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for what actions? Select all that apply.

a)

Increasing mucous production

b)

Increasing body temperature

c)

Increasing blood pressure

d)

Stimulating bowel and bladder

e)

Increasing blood glucose levels

27.

What clinical manifestation is the result of an anticholinergic effect?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Salivation

c)

Constipation

d)

Bradycardia

28.

What is the primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Norepinehprine

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Dopamine

29.

Which statement is true regarding the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Activation of the autonomic nervous system is a conscious action stimulated by the adrenal medulla.

b)

The autonomic nervous system only engages during periods of stress.

c)

The branches of the autonomic nervous system always produces opposite effects.

d)

Sympathetic activation results in a widespread response whereas parasympathetic activation regulates particular functions.

30.

What disorder results in cholinergic excess?

a)

Overactive bladder

b)

Respiratory disease

c)

Parkinson's disease

d)

Cardiac disease

31.

The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for what actions? Select all that apply.

a)

Pupillary constriction

b)

Slowing of heart rate

c)

Increasing blood pressure

d)

Stimulating the Gl tract

e)

Increasing urination

32.

What is the result of activation of beta 2 receptors?

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Bronchodilation

e)

Hypoglycemia

33.

A client is bit by a dog. Upon assessment of the wound the nurse finds muscles and bone tissue are visible. How should the nurse describe the wound?

a)

Full thickness

b)

Dehiscence

c)

Superficial

d)

Partial thickness

34.

A client has been brought to the emergency department with severe burns to 30% of his body surface area. What is the most immediate Threat to this client

a)

Electrolyte imbalance

b)

Infection

c)

Excessive Fluid loss

d)

Acute pain

35.

To promote efficient wound healing. what type of dressing should be applied to a

stage 2 pressure ulcer?

a)

No dressing leave it open to the air

b)

Moisture-retaining

c)

Dry

d)

Saturated

36.

A client has been diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The nurse expects what abnormal lab result with thIs diagnosis

a)

Decreased eosinophils

b)

Deficient complement

c)

Decreased CD4+ cell count

d)

Decreased viral count

37.

What factors contributes to the development of pressure ulcer? Select all that apply

a)

Pressure intensity

b)

Frequent repositioning

c)

Incoutinence of bladder

d)

Shear of force

e)

Pressure duration

38.

What is true about fungal infections?

a)

Treated with antibiotics

b)

Considered opportunistic organisms

c)

Frequently infect wounds

d)

Treated with antivirals

39.

The nurse is caring for a client with atopic dermatitis. What is a common trigger for an exacerbation of this disorder?

a)

Bee stings

b)

Laundry detersents

c)

Antihistamine medication

d)

Shellfish

40.

The nurse is cleaning and changing the dressing on a client's sacral ulcer and has viporously cleansed the wound bed remove all traces of the beefy, red tissue

the wound bed.

What has the nurse erroneously removed from the wound bed

a)

Yellow education

b)

Granulation tissue

c)

Slough

d)

Eschar tissue

41.

A client has been diagnosed with herpes zoster. What clinical mar

nifestations should the nurse expect to find upon assessment

a)

Multiple diameter wheals along the forearm

b)

Widespread macular-papular rash

c)

Cyst like growth on the face

d)

Grouped ves

ices located along the

What causes the tissue hypoxia and infarction in sickle cell right rib cage

42.

What causes the tissue hypoxia and infarction in sickle cell disease?

a)

Clumping of red blood cells in small vessels

b)

Deficiency of white blood formation

c)

Abundance of platelets sticking together.

d)

Excess clotting factors depositing within vessel

43.

A client's long-term exposure to pesticides has made the cells in his b

occurs?

a)

Initiation

b)

Metastacie

c)

Progressive

d)

Differentiation

44.

Why is normal flora important to our body's defense?

a)

Normal flora prevent the colonization of invading pathogens

b)

Normal flora secretes bacteriostatic substances

c)

Normal flora activate white blood cells

d)

Normal fora

regulates acid content

45.

The nurse should monitor for what complication when caring for a client with polycythemia vera

a)

Neutropenia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Thrombus

d)

Hypotension

46.

A baby has been admitted repeatedly to the hospital with life threatening infection. This is a clinical manifestations with of what disorder

a)

leE mediated hypersensitivity

b)

Immune complex hypersensitivity

c)

Secondary immune deficiency

d)

Primary immune deficiency

47.

What disorder is caused by a type 3 hypersensitivity (immune complex mediated) reaction?

a)

Graves’ disease

b)

Systematic lupus erthematosus

c)

Poison ivy

d)

Eczema

48.

What blood test is related to a client's hydration status?

a)

Ferritin

b)

Hematocrit

c)

Prothrombin time

d)

Platelets

49.

What action occurs in the body due to the release of histamine?

a)

Vasoconstriction

b)

High

blood pressure

c)

Bronchial dilation

d)

Edema

50.

What test is the best to determine a client's immunity to : Specific disease

a)

Serum titer

b)

White blood cell (WBC) count

c)

Western Blot test

d)

Culture and sensitivity

51.

What conditions could precipitate a sickle cell crisis? Select all that apply.

a)

High altitudes

b)

Oxygen administration

c)

IV fluid hydration

d)

Infection

e)

Dehydration

52.

Which site is tho most common origin for Non-Hodgkin in lymphoma

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Thymus

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Spleen

53.

What is a characteristic of a malignant tumor cells?

a)

They are normal cells growing in the wrong place.

b)

Malignant cells are confine in a By capsules

c)

Malignant cells invade other tissue

d)

Malignant cellslook normal

54.

What statement is correct in regards to viruses

a)

Viruses

are capable of independent reproduction

b)

Viruses replicate their genetic material inside the host cells

c)

Viruses are easily killed by antimicrobials

d)

Viruses contain no DNA or RNA

55.

A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) has recently developed neutrope

nia and is admitted to the hospital. What is the best practice to

this client?

a)

Administration of antiretroviral medications

b)

Vigilant handwashing to protect against severe bacterial infections

c)

Supplementary oxyg

and administration of bronchodilator

d)

Administration of prophylactic antibiotics

56.

A client is stung by a bee, begins itching and develops pain, swelling, redness and respiratory difficulties what hypersensitivity Is the client experiencing

a)

Immediate IgE medicated

b)

Immune complex

c)

Tell mediated

d)

Cell-specife

mediated

57.

What are the CM consistent with acute inflammation? Select all that apply

a)

Exudates

b)

Heat

c)

Pain

d)

Edema

e)

Loss of function

Redness Erythema

58.

What causes the edema that occurs during the inflammatory process?

a)

Increased capillary permeability

b)

Emigration of neutrophils

c)

Vasoconstriction

d)

Chemotaxis

59.

What bacterium may potentially grow in the intestines after prolonged Antibiotic therapy

a)

Helicobacter pylori

b)

Lactobacillie

c)

Candida albicans

d)

Clostridium difficile

60.

What skin condition will heal by secondary intention?

a)

Stage IV pressure ulcer

b)

First degree sunburn

c)

Sutured surgical wound

d)

Paper cut

61.

Which tinea condition is found on the scalp:

a)

Tinea cruris

b)

Tineapedis

c)

Tinea chomycosis

d)

Tinea capitis

62.

What action involves the greatest risk of skin shearing:

a)

Rolling the client from a supine to side-lying position

b)

Pulling the client up in bed

c)

Helping the client ambulate after surgery

d)

Sitting on a bedpan

63.

A deficiency in what substance could directly affect wound healing?

a)

Fiber

b)

Protein

c)

Fat

d)

Carbohydrate

64.

What nutritional component is need for normal erythropoiesis

a)

Zinc

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin B12

d)

Vitamin B1

65.

A client with pernicious anemia is defcient of what substance?

a)

Gastric enzyme

b)

Ferritin

c)

Erythropoletin

d)

Intrinsic factor

66.

Which type of burn is most painful?

a)

First degree

b)

Second degree

c)

Third degree

d)

Fourth degree

67.

What clinical manifestations are commonly associated

withanemiakselectallthatapply

a)

Fatigue

b)

Weakness

c)

Facial Mushing

d)

Dyspena

68.

What must occur in the immune system for an individual to develop natural adaptive immunity?

a)

Exposure to an antigen.

b)

Receiving an immunization.

c)

Antibodies received from a donor

d)

Immunity from the mother in utero

69.

What

is a clinical manifestation of an acute leukemia?

a)

Bone pain and tenderness

b)

Single node lymphadenopathy

c)

Reed-Sternberg Cells

d)

Itching and night fevers

70.

Genetic screening may be indicated for individuals who

have a family history of what neoplasm?

a)

Breast cancel

b)

Sliver cancer

c)

Multiple myelom.

d)

Leukemia

71.

What finding is the first indication of a pressure ulcer

a)

Indurations

b)

Ulceration

c)

whiteness

d)

Non reactive hyperemia

72.

What activity stimulates the production of erythroprotein in the body?

a)

Realease of stress hormones

b)

Low tissue oxygen (hypoxia)

c)

Inflammation

d)

Low carbon

dioxide (hypocapnia)

73.

What does the rule of nines estimate in burn injury patients?

a)

Depth of burn injury

b)

Degree of systemic involvement

c)

Degree of burn

d)

Total body surface area burn

74.

Aciient with hemophilia is deficient of what surface

a)

Clotting factor

b)

Iron

c)

Collagen

d)

Platelets

75.

What is the underlying pathophysiology of opportunistic Infractions?

a)

The host has a chronic infection

b)

The pathogen is especially persistent

c)

The host

has a weakened immune system

d)

A large number of pathogens attacks the host has a weakened immune system

76.

During the pathogenesis of cancer, the cancerous cells manufacture their own blood vessels. What the name of this process?

a)

Metastasis

b)

Angiogenesis

c)

Angiogenesis

d)

Anaplasia

e)

Autonomy

77.

The nurse is caring for a client on the medical-surgical unit. Which clinical manifestation reported to the nurse is a potential warning sign of cancer?

a)

Bloody stools for the past 3 weeks

b)

A yellow and thickened toenall over the last 3 months.

c)

Sudden weight gain over the last 5 days.

d)

Asmall lump on the head for the last 10 years.

78.

What is the action of an antagonist when referring to the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Mimics a naturally occurring substance

b)

Blocks the action of an agonist

c)

Degrades the synaptic cleft

d)

Conserves energy

79.

What is the result of activation of beta 1 receptors?

a)

Acceleration of the Gl tract and bladder

b)

Increased rate and depth of breathing

c)

Increased heart rate and contraction

d)

Rising of blood glucose and thirst

80.

What is the most likely cause of immune thrombocyt

ic purpura (iTP)

a)

T-cell injury to megakaryocytes

b)

an immune response to

hypersplenism

c)

allergy induced platelet lysis

d)

antibody destruction of platelets

81.

What is the rationale for staging cancers?

a)

Staging assists treatment planning

b)

Staging assists in primary prevention

c)

Staging determines tumor grade

d)

Staging determines cancel

origination

82.

The nurse is caring for a client

with sepsis. How should the nurse describe this condition to the client

a)

itisan irreversible chronic disease which is lifelong

b)

it is an infection in the blood stream which can affect many different organs

c)

"it is a contagious disease and you should not have visitors.”

d)

"It is a localized infection and not very serious.”

83.

What is the most common risk for skin cancer?

a)

High level of melanin

b)

Ultraviolet (UM) radiation

c)

Aging

d)

Cigarette smoke

84.

Epithelialization

is delayed in open wounds until what type of tissue has formed?

a)

Collagenous layers

b)

Capillary circulation

c)

Granulation tissue

d)

Fibrinous meshwork