wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

CYTOGEN EXAM AND PLATINGS (FINALS REVIEWER)

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the most common eye manifestation of individuals with Marfan syndrome?

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Cataract formation

c)

Retinoblastoma

d)

Displacement of lenses

2.

Which of the following is true of FISH?

a)

All of the given choices

b)

Detects both normal and abnormal cells

c)

Not suitable to monitor response to treatment

d)

Provide less accurate estimate of disease involvement

3.

What is the most serious complication of cystic fibrosis?

a)

Salty sweat

b)

Azoospermia

c)

Pulmonary disease due to repeated pulmonary infection

d)

Steatorrhea

4.

Cockayne syndrome is associated with which of the following cancer formation?

a)

Hematopoietic

b)

None of these

c)

Skin

d)

Solid

5.

Which of the following is not true about mendelian disorders?

a)

The disorder is caused by methylation of the involved gene and the adjacent genes

b)

The disorders are caused by mutation in a single gene

c)

Genes involved may be on autosomes or sex chromosomes

d)

Majority of the disorders are familial

6.

What do you call the white pupillary reflex in individuals with retinoblastoma?

a)

Cyclopia

b)

Strabismus

c)

Leukocoria

d)

Ectopia lentis

7.

Which of the following specimens is used for prenatal cytogenetic testing is the least invasive for the baby?

a)

Chorionic villi

b)

Umbilical cord blood

c)

Fetal bladder aspirate

d)

Amniotic fluid

8.

Which of the following is not true about the most common chromosomal abnormality?

a)

There are three copies of all autosomes

b)

It causes mental retardation

c)

Most of the cases are due to nondisjunction in parental meiosis

d)

The condition is compatible with life and individuals can survive until adulthood

9.

The intellectual disability of individuals with Miller-Diecker syndrome can be attributed to:

a)

lissencephaly

b)

small nose

c)

micrognathia

d)

craniofacial defects

10.

When Francis Dalton observed the blending of characters, he was referring to which of the following?

a)

The two other statements are the answers

b)

Continuous variation or quantitative traits

c)

Gradation in phenotypic expressions which do fall into distinct category

11.

In Fragile X syndrome, the break or gap is the X chromosome is due to:

a)

Deletion of the region of the chromosome

b)

Epigenetic alteration in the region of the chromosome

c)

Methylation in the region of the chromosome

d)

Amplification of CGG sequence

12.

Which of the following is true about the expressivity of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

a)

The disorder has variable expressivity

b)

None of the given choices

c)

The disorder has uniform expressivity

d)

The disorder has 50 percent penetrance

13.

The incidence of fetal loss among patients with genetic abnormalities is greatest during which of the following phases of pregnancy?

a)

2nd trimester

b)

3rd trimester

c)

1st trimester

d)

Newborns

14.

Which of the following relationships has been established between cancer and genetics?

a)

Specific chromosomal rearrangements are directly associated with tumor formation

b)

Indirect correlation exists between presence of various chromosomal abnormalities and therapeutic response

c)

Genetic findings are not required in the diagnosis of most hematopoietic cancers

d)

None of these

15.

Which of the following disorders generally manifest early in life?

a)

Sex linked disorders

b)

X-linked disorders

c)

Autosomal dominant disorders

d)

Autosomal recessive disorders

16.

Genetic abnormalities is present in which of the following individuals?

a)

With confirmed genetic disorder

b)

Seemingly normal

c)

All of these

d)

With gross deformities

17.

How many percent of recognized pregnancies end in spontaneous abortion during the first trimester?

a)

90

b)

60

c)

80

d)

70

18.

Which of the following testing method is used specifically for diagnosis of cystic fibrosis and

severe combined immunodeficiency?

a)

Molecular techniques

b)

Isoelectric focusing

c)

Immunoassays

d)

Tandem spectrometry

19.

Study of single gene drug interactions refer to which of the following?

a)

Pharmacogenomics

b)

Pharmacodynamics

c)

Pharmacogenetics

d)

All of the given choices

20.

In individuals with Williams syndrome, the deleted gene encodes for:

a)

fibrillin2

b)

Rb protein

c)

elastin

d)

fibrillin1

21.

Which of the following is true of complex multigenic disorders?

a)

Occurs more frequently in one gender

b)

One is not destined to manifest the disorder

c)

 All of the given choices

d)

Occurs among certain group of people

22.

A young female adult was observed always to do selfhugging, licking of fingers and flipping pages of reading materials. She has broad, square-shaped face, full cheeks, deep-set eyes and a prominent lower jaw. The deleted gene in her case is:

a)

STS

b)

RA11

c)

KAL1

d)

CREBBP

23.

What is the gold standard in the diagnosis of mucoviscidosis?

a)

FISH

b)

Karyotyping

c)

DNA sequencing

d)

RT-PCR

24.

Assess if the statement is True or False: The clinical manifestation of Fragile X syndrome become worse with each successive generation.

a)

False

b)

True

25.

Natalia is a patient with which of the following trisomies who survived into adulthood?

a)

None of the given choices

b)

18

c)

13

d)

21

26.

In individuals with deficiency of dystrophin, which of the muscles weaken first?

a)

Pelvic girdle muscle

b)

Back muscles

c)

Foot muscles

d)

Shoulder muscles

27.

What is the reason why sex chromosomal aneuploidies are commonly diagnosed at the age of puberty?

a)

Because secondary sexual characteristics develop during puberty

b)

Because test samples only become available in human bodies at puberty

c)

Because sex chromosomes are not detectable before puberty

d)

None of the given choices

28.

Which of the following differentiate karyotyping and FISH in their utility in cancer genetics?

a)

Karyotype identifies chromosomal abnormalities

b)

The other two statements differentiate karyotyping and FISH in their utility in cancer genetics

c)

FISH establish baseline population of leukemic clones

29.

A 15 year old has eunuchoid body habitus, small testis, small penis, gynecomastia and low IQ.

Majority of individuals with such condition has this karyotype:

a)

47,XXY/48,XXXY

b)

46,XY/47,XXY

c)

45,X

d)

47,XXY

30.

Which of the following disorders is not due to complex multigenic causes?

a)

Glycogenoses

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Coronary heart disease

31.

Philadelphia chromosome or ABL-BCR fusion gene is a diagnostic of which of the following hematopoietic malignancy?

a)

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

b)

Acute myelogenous leukemia

c)

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

d)

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

32.

The genetic disorder in complex multigenic disorders exerts a dosage effect which refers to which of the following?

a)

The greater the number of inherited deleterious genes, the more severe the disease

b)

The bigger the segment of deleterious gene involved, the more severe the disease

c)

The bigger the segment of the involved gene in the disease, the poorer the prognosis of the

disease

d)

The greater the number of inherited deleterious genes, the poorer the prognosis of the disease

33.

Although chromosomal abnormalities are present in 1:3 conceptuses, only 6:1000 livebirths manifest the disorder. Which of the following explains this low incidence at birth?

a)

Repair mechanism of recognized errors

b)

Biologic elimination of recognized errors

c)

Poor identification of genetic abnormalities

34.

In Angelman syndrome, the deleted gene is located on what chromosome?

a)

Paternally-derived chromosome 15

b)

Maternally and paternally derived chromosome 15

c)

Sex chromosomes

d)

Maternally-derived chromosome 15

35.

Childhood and adult cytogenetics is one of the most difficult to clinically diagnose cytogenetic

disorders and may require which of the following tests?

a)

Neither molecular nor biochemical

b)

Molecular

c)

Biochemical

d)

Both molecular and biochemical

36.

Which of the following is a benefit of newborn screening?

a)

Both early diagnosis and intervention, and reduced financial burden to the family

b)

Reduced financial burden to the family

c)

None of the given choices

d)

Early diagnosis and intervention

37.

A 10 year old male has dry, thickened, scaly or flaky skin since birth. His skin sometimes appear as like having scales of a fish. What gene on chromosome X is deleted in this case?

a)

TRPS

b)

KAL1

c)

TBX1

d)

STS

38.

Which among the following laboratory methods for NBS is used for diagnosis of hemoglobinopathies?

a)

Isoelectric focusing

b)

Immunoassays

c)

Tandem mass spectrometry

39.

Complex multigenic disorders are those diseases that are due to which of the following?

a)

Multiple gene defects of large effects and environmental factors

b)

Mutation in sex chromosomes due to environmental factors

c)

All of these

d)

Single gene defect of large effect and environmental factors

40.

In many patients with Turner syndrome, the missing chromosome is chromosome:

a)

 X

b)

13

c)

21

d)

Y

41.

A 3 year old male has small head and Greek warrior’s facial helmet appearance due to frontal bossing, prominent glabella, arched eyebrows, hypertelorism (wide-spaced eyes), and long beaked nose. The terminal deletion in this case can be detected on which chromosome?

a)

7

b)

4

c)

5

d)

8

42.

Which of the following is true of newborn screening?

a)

Normal babies do not need further work up

b)

Normal babies do not need further work up while those who are positive for screening should undergo confirmatory testing

c)

.Babies positive for screening should undergo confirmatorytesting

d)

None of the given choices

43.

Which of the following is true of a syndrome?

a)

Consist of the same set of chromosomal abnormalities

b)

Observed in the same group of people

c)

Abnormalities present of the same degree

d)

Arise from different forms of chromosomal abnormalities

44.

In xeroderma pigmentosa, which is a breakage syndrome, which of the following types of cancers are the patients predisposed to?

a)

Colon

b)

Leukemias

c)

Lung

d)

Skin

45.

Which of the following age groups of mothers have the highest tendency to have cytogenetically abnormal progeny?

a)

31-35 y/o

b)

Less than 25 years old

c)

More than 35 y/o

d)

26-30 y/o

46.

How many percent of spontaneous abortions occur during early pregnancy?

a)

50-60

b)

30-40

c)

40-50

d)

20-30

47.

Which of the following is the environmental factor in emphysema?

a)

Sunlight

b)

Infection

c)

Diet

d)

Smoking

48.

Which of the following is/are the transmission pattern of EhlersDanlos syndrome?

a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

Any of the given choices

d)

Sex-liked

49.

Which of the following is not an autosomal aneuploidy?

a)

Turner syndrome

b)

Patau syndrome

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Edward syndrome

50.

The aniridia in individuals with Wilms tumor is due to deletion in:

a)

WT1

b)

Rb

c)

WT2

d)

PAX6

51.

Which among the following metabolic disorders screened in the Philippines is characterized by mousy urine odor?

a)

Galactosemia

b)

Congenital hypothyroidism

c)

Maple syrup urine disease

d)

Phenylketonuria

52.

An autopsy was done to a body of a 15 year old and it was found out that the gonads are ovotestes. The most common karyotype of individuals with such condition is:

a)

45,X

b)

46,XX

c)

46,XY

d)

46,XX/46XY

53.

Which of the following can be transmitted in an autosomal recessive fashion?

a)

Familial hypercholesterolemia

b)

All of the given choices

c)

Marfan syndrome

d)

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

54.

Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of complex, multigenic disorders?

a)

If you carry the deleterious genes,you are destined to have the disease

b)

No clear pattern of inheritance

c)

The disorder occurs more frequently in a specific group

d)

Environmental influence can increase or decrease the risk of the disease

55.

An individual with Patau syndrome has an extra copy of which chromosome?

a)

18

b)

13

c)

7

d)

21

56.

Which of the clinical features below is compatible with autosomal dominant disorders?

a)

Has uniform expression

b)

Expressed only in males

c)

The disorders have complete penetrance

d)

Affect s males and females equally

57.

Which of the following is an indication for post-natal cytogenetics?

a)

Suspected sex chromosomal abnormality

b)

Presence of malformation

c)

Presence of age-related risk

d)

Unexplained mental retardation

58.

The following disorders are expected to manifest early in life, except:

a)

Familial hypercholesterolemia

b)

Glycogenosis

c)

Lysosomal storage disease

d)

Mucopolysaccharidoses

59.

The mutated gene in Marfan syndrome encodes for:

a)

collagen

b)

trophoelastin

c)

fibrin

d)

fibrillin-1

60.

In individuals with myopathic glycogenosis, the common manifestation of the disease after an exercise is:

a)

None of the given choices

b)

muscle cramps

c)

muscle pain

d)

muscle cell death

61.

The following features are seen in Klinefelter syndrome, except:

a)

shield chest

b)

low IQ

c)

atrophic testes

d)

gynecomastia

62.

Which statement is not true about 47,XYY males?

a)

Often undiagnosed throughout one’s lifetime

b)

They are tall

c)

They are infertile

d)

They have normal children

63.

A newborn with Patau syndrome has three copies of which chromosome?

a)

18

b)

21

c)

X

d)

13

64.

The development of male characteristics is primarily controlled by genes located on:

a)

Y chromosome

b)

X chromosome

c)

chromosome 18

d)

chromosome 21

65.

XY females have this gonad:

a)

ovary

b)

testis

66.

A newborn has one eye with cleft lip, simiam crease, rocker-bottom feet and extra hand digits. This newborn has:

a)

three copies of chromosome 21

b)

one copy of chromosome X

c)

three copies of chromosome 13

d)

three copies of chromosome 18

67.

Which of the autosomal aneuploidies can have a lifespan that can reach adulthood?

a)

Edward dynrome

b)

Down syndrome

c)

Patau syndrome

d)

Turner syndrome

68.

Which of the following is the most common cause of Down syndrome?

a)

Nondysjunction in parental meiosis

b)

Mosaicism

c)

Isochromosome formation

d)

Robertsonian translocation

69.

Which of the sex chromosomal aneuploidies is associated with autoantibody formation, glucose intolerance and obesity?

a)

Turner syndrome

b)

Polysomic X

c)

47,XXX females

d)

Klinefelter syndrome

70.

Assess if the statement is True or False: In sex chromosomal aneuploidies, the more X chromosome one has, the higher is the possibility of mental retardation.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Why is it easier for physicians to diagnose sex chromosomal aneuploidies during puberty?

a)

Because that is the age when secondary sexual characteristics develop

b)

Because most individuals do not have clinical manifestation

c)

Because of the mild clinical manifestations and require years of observation

d)

Because karyotyping can only be done at that age

72.

A true hermaphrodite has which of the following gonads?

a)

ovary

b)

ovary and testis

c)

testis

d)

None of the given choices

73.

The most common error that leads to Turner syndrome is:

a)

paternal meiotic nondisjunction

b)

maternal meiotic nondisjunction

c)

mosaicism

d)

translocation

74.

The most common chromosomal abnormality has which of the following karyotyping finding?

a)

Three copies of all chromosomes

b)

Female with one copy of chromosome X

c)

Three copies of chromosome 18

d)

Three copies of chromosome 21

75.

This is the most common karyotype of individuals with Klinefelter syndrome:

a)

47,XXY/48,XXXY

b)

45,X

c)

47,XXY

d)

46,XY/47,XXY

76.

Assess if the statement is TRUE or FALSE: The presence of aniridia and genitourinary defects in individuals with Wilms tumor due to WT1 deletion and the adjacent genes is known as contiguous gene syndrome.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Assess if the statement is TRUE or FALSE: An individual with Smith-Magenis syndrome typically presents with self hug and lick and flip behavior.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

A 21 year old who is hypertensive has blue eyes, prominent lips, hoarseness of voice and cardiac problem such as aortic stenosis. The gene that is deleted in this case encodes for:

a)

myosin

b)

elastin

c)

fibrillin

d)

collagen

79.

A 20 year old individual with cridu-chat can only interact like:

a)

a 10 year old

b)

an adult

c)

a 5 or 6 year old

d)

a 15 year old

80.

A 3 year old with retinoblastoma presents with white reflection from retina of the eye. This patient is in what stage of the disease?

a)

Recurrence

b)

Extra-occular

c)

Leukocoria

d)

Glaucomatous

81.

Assess if the statement is TRUE or FALSE: Smith-Magenis syndrome is an inherited disorder.

a)

False

b)

True

82.

This individual has terminal deletion of the short arm of chromosome 4. He or she has:

a)

Greek warriors facial helmet appearance

b)

cat-like cry during infancy

c)

happy puppet behavior

83.

Individuals who are described as happy puppet due to inappropriate laughter, with mental retardation and microcephaly, have:

a)

Maternal imprinting and paternal deletion on chromosome 15

b)

none of the provided answer

c)

Paternal imprinting and maternal deletion on chromosome 15

d)

Change in the sequence of genes on both alleles on chromosome 15

84.

Assess if the statement is TRUE or FALSE: Majority of individuals with eye tumor due to deletion of Rb gene are diagnosed before the age of 5.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

An infant has high-pitched cry with microcephaly, hypertelorism and cardiac anomalies. The chromosome that will appear shorter in karyotyping this case is:

a)

chromosome 6

b)

chromosome 7

c)

chromosome 5

d)

chromosome 4

86.

Which of the following will present with scaly skin?

a)

Velocardiofacial syndrome

b)

Kallman syndrome

c)

Ichthyosis

d)

Digeorge syndrome

87.

Which of the following is considered a microdeletion syndrome?

a)

Wolf-Hirschhorn syndrome

b)

WAGR syndrome

c)

5p syndrome

d)

Velocardiofacial syndrome

88.

Assess if the statement is TRUE or FALSE: The clinical manifestations of individuals with WAGR syndrome depends on the size or extent of the deletion.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Assess if the statement is TRUE or FALSE: In individuals with Miller-Dieker syndrome, the metal

retardation is associated with:

a)

small nose

b)

micrognathia

c)

cranio-facial anomalies

d)

lissencephaly

90.

The deleted gene in individuals with retinoblastoma is located on chromosome:

a)

5

b)

4

c)

14

d)

13

91.

Assess if the statement is True or False: Complete penetrance is common in autosomal recessive mendelian disorders.

a)

False

b)

True

92.

Ehlers-Danlos can be inherited through which of the following

a)

autosomal dominant

b)

Any of the given choices

c)

autosomal recessive

d)

sex-linked

93.

In Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, the tissues that are typically affected include:

a)

ligaments

b)

joints

c)

skin

d)

All of the given choices

94.

The following are autosomal recessive disorders, except:

a)

Mucopolysaccharidoses

b)

Cystic fibrosis

c)

Glycogenosis

d)

Marfan syndrome

95.

Assess if the statement is True or False: In glycogenosis, the deficient enzyme dictates the organ of involvement and manifestation of the patient.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Which of the following clinical manifestations can be seen in individuals with Marfan syndrome?

a)

Muscle cramps

b)

Mental retardation

c)

Salty sweat

d)

Ectopia lentes

97.

In fragile X syndrome, the phenomenon of having mental retardation for being a brother of a transmitting male is known as:

a)

None of the given choices

b)

Anticipation

c)

Sherman paradox

d)

Transmitting male

98.

Assess if the statement is True or False: Only individuals with clinical manifestations of mendelian disorders are with genetic mutation involving a single gene.

a)

False

b)

True

99.

What is the gold standard in the diagnosis of mucoviscidosis?

a)

G-banding

b)

DNA sequencing

c)

Karyotyping

d)

FISH

100.

Which of the following is not true about Becker muscular dystrophy?

a)

The onset of the manifestations is during late childhood or adolescence

b)

The synthesized dystrophin proteins are abnormal and smaller

c)

There is decreased production of dystrophin

d)

Heart problem causes death in majority of the patients in the second decade of life

101.

Which of the following is not true about mendelian disorders?

a)

These are single gene disorders but with large effects

b)

The disoders involve only a single gene

c)

Majority of the cases are familial

d)

There is only one pattern of inheritance in mendelian disoders

102.

In myopathic form of glycogenosis, the muscle weakness is due to:

a)

excessive ATP production

b)

All of the given choices

c)

excessive lactate production and accumulation in the blood

d)

failure in ATP production

103.

The gap in karyotyping involving the X chromosome in Fragile X syndrome is due to:

a)

epigenetic alteration specifically methylation of the region

b)

amplification of a trinucleotide sequence

c)

translocation of the region to Y chromosome

d)

deletion of contiguous regions on the chromosome

104.

These disorders manifest even in heterozygous state and affects males and females equally:

a)

autosomal dominant disorders

b)

sex-linked disorders

c)

X-linked disorders

d)

autosomal recessive disorders

105.

The mutated gene in Duchene muscular dystrophy is located on:

a)

X chromosome

b)

chromosome 2

c)

Y chromosome

d)

chromosome 21