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CFE Review

Total questions: 159

Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The independent variable

a)

Changes due to other factors

b)

The change that you are making on purpose

c)

Is an individual step of the experiment

d)

Can be different when repeating the same experiment

2.

The dependant variable

a)

Is the thing you measure

b)

Depends on the people/place doing the experiment

c)

Must not change during the experiment

d)

Is the thing you change on purpose

3.

An experiment is reliable if

a)

The experiment is done 3 times with big differences in results

b)

You made a mistake in one trail but did not change it in the next

c)

The same/similar results are obtained from 3 or more trials

d)

It takes the same amount of time to complete each trail

4.

In science class, Michalea was studying the vascular system of plants. She cut the bottom off a stalk of celery and then placed the celery in colored water. She left the celery in the cup for 24 hours. When she observed the celery, she noticed that there were colored tubes in the celery stalk, which she knew was the xylem tissue. She cut off a piece of the celery and observed it under a dissecting microscope and drew her observations.

a)

Experimental

b)

Descriptive

c)

Comparative

5.

In science class, Jackson learned that the underside of many leaves contained structures called stomata. Water vapor and other gases exit the plant through the stomata. Jackson wondered if the leaves of a hibiscus plant or the leaves from an ivy plant had more stomata. He used clear fingernail polish to paint a 2 cm square area on the underside of each leaf. He then placed clear packing tape on each painted area and lifted the tape and removed an impression of the leaf. He placed the clear packing tape on microscope slides and then observed the impressions and counted the number of stomata on each leaf.

a)

Comparative

b)

Descriptive

c)

Experimental

6.

Robert was asked to determine how temperature affects enzyme activity. Potatoes placed in hydrogen peroxide were used as a source of the enzyme catalase. Robert tested the potatoes under three different conditions: potatoes at room temperature, potatoes that had been placed in an ice bath, and potatoes that had been placed in boiling water. The potatoes at room temperature served as his control group. He counted the bubbles that formed to determine enzyme activity.

a)

Descriptive

b)

Experimental

c)

Comparative

7.

The purpose of this type of investigation is to determine relationships, it requires a hypothesis and variables but no controls.

a)

Experimental

b)

Comparative

c)

Descriptive

8.

The purpose of this investigation is to draw conclusions. The scientists' main tools are video and photography documentation and a scientific journal. It does NOT utilize a hypothesis, variables or controls.

a)

Descriptive

b)

Comparative

c)

Experimental

9.

The purpose of this type of investigation is determine causal relationships and utilizes a hypothesis, variables and a control.

a)

Descriptive

b)

Comparative

c)

Experimental

10.
When experimenting with the growth of a plant, a scientist uses three (of the same type of) plants, two different fertilizers, equal light, and equal water. What type of variable is the fertilizer?
a)
Dependent
b)
Independent
c)
Control
d)
Compound
11.
Ms. S set up an experiment to see how the mass of a ball affects the distance it rolls off a ramp. Identify the independent variable.
a)
Distance traveled by the ball
b)
Height of the ramp
c)
Mass of the ball
d)
Who set up the experiment (Ms. S, etc)
12.
An experiment is performed on plants to see how different liquids affect plant growth. Each plant in the experiment is given a different liquid; water, apple juice, or milk. Each plant has the same amount of soil, sunlight, and listens to the same music. In this investigation, the independent variable is ...
a)
The type of plant
b)
The amount of sunlight
c)
The type of music
d)
The type of liquid
13.
Ms. S set up an experiment to see how the mass of a ball affects the distance it rolls off a ramp. Identify the independent variable.
a)
Distance traveled by the ball
b)
Height of the ramp
c)
Mass of the ball
d)
Who set up the experiment (Ms. S, etc)
14.
Ms. S set up an experiment to see how the mass of a ball affects the distance it rolls off a ramp. What is the dependent variable?
a)
Distance traveled by the ball
b)
Height of the ramp
c)
Mass of the ball
d)
Where the experiment took place.
15.
Maria wants to know if birds prefer to eat in one place over another. She makes three feeders out of 2-liter bottles and paints all of them red. She fills each of the feeders with the same amount of mixed birdseed, and plans to keep the feeders out for 10 days before measuring how much seed is eaten from each feeder. She puts each of the feeders in her back yard: one feeder in a large dead tree, another feeder she sits on the dog house, and the last she sits in a small bushy tree.
What is the dependent variable?
a)
Length of the birdfeeders
b)
Amount of time feeders are outside
c)
Amount of seed eaten
d)
Location the feeders are put in.
16.

In 1897, Joseph Thomson discovered that atoms contained electrons. He proposed a change in the atomic theory of that time, and the theory was modified because of his discovery. Since Thomson’s discovery, atomic theory has been further modified. What is the best explanation for why scientific theories are modified?

a)

Theories more than ten years old are usually out of date.

b)

Scientists want to prove that the work of other scientists is wrong.

c)

New evidence that supports a change prompts scientists to modify earlier theories.

d)

So much information is available today that it is harder to focus research and disprove theories.

17.

Joe tells Gabby his theory about why sea turtles nest on the beach instead of in the ocean. He says, “The turtle eggs would sink to the bottom of the ocean, and the baby turtle would drown. I know this because my uncle is a fisherman, and he told me this information. Gabby tells Joe that his theory is not scientific. Why does Joe’s idea not meet the requirements to be a scientific theory?

a)

Joe’s idea is already a scientific law.

b)

Joe’s idea is not supported by scientific evidence.

c)

Joe’s idea is a good guess that can be tested by experiments.

d)

Joe and his uncle are not scientists.

18.

The law of universal gravitation states that both mass and distance of objects affect the gravitational force between them. Gravitational force increases as the mass of the objects increase. Gravitational force decreases as distance between the objects increases. Why are these statements considered scientific law, and not scientific theory?

a)

The statements tells what happens, and not why it happens.

b)

The statements involve mass and distance measurements.

c)

The statements explain the attractive force between two objects.

d)

The statements predict what will happen under certain conditions.

19.

Lilly was trying to explain to her friend the difference between a theory and a law in science. She used the theory of plate tectonics and the law of superposition as examples. Lilli explained the difference by using non-scientific language. Which statement could Lilly use to correctly describe the difference between a theory and a law in science?

a)

A theory describes a natural event, while a law explains it.

b)

A theory explains a natural event, while a law predicts it.

c)

A theory explains a natural event, while a law describes it.

d)

A theory predicts a natural event, while a law explains it.

20.
What is a theory?
a)
Describes what happens
b)
Explains a process
21.
What is a law?
a)
Describes what happens
b)
Explains a process
22.

SC.6.N.1.2

Experiments are often repeated many times by the same or different scientists. What is the most important reason more than one scientist should conduct an investigation using the same methods?


a. If the results are the same, replication of the investigation helps to confirm the results.

b. The competition makes the scientists work more carefully.

c. More than one scientist is interested in the problem.

d. Different scientists might perform the experiment differently.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

23.

SC.6.N.1.4

Ty and Crystal are working together to learn about surface tension. They each add pennies to their own cup of water to see how many they can add before the cup overflows. Ty is able to add 15 pennies. Crystal is able to add 38. What should their next step be?


a. They should discuss differences in their methods.

b. They should each claim that their answer is right.

c. They should record their results and move on to a different investigation.

d. They should repeat the experiment using different pennies.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

24.

What is the BEST reason you always repeat an experiment?

a)

Make sure your data is consistent and accurate

b)

Make sure your data supports your prediction

c)

Make sure your experiment is easy to do

d)

Make sure your experiment has lots of data

25.

1. How does wind cause weathering?

a)

Wind cannot cause the weathering of rocks.

b)

Wind can blow sand and create new landforms.

c)

Wind picks up sand or dry soil and carries it from one place to another.

d)

Blowing sand can wear away a rock's surface and break it into smaller pieces.

26.

2. Weathering is a process that helps make soil. All but one statement describes how rocks may be weathered. That is:

a)

Water fills tiny spaces inside a rock.

b)

Rock pieces are moved from place to place.

c)

Plant roots can grow between cracks in rocks.

d)

Living things, like moss and lichens, chemically break down rocks.

27.

3. Erosion in this area is most likely caused by

a)

wind.

b)

water.

c)

gravity.

d)

action of animals.

28.

4. How do wind and water change rocks over time?

a)

They add minerals to the rocks.

b)

They change the shape of the rocks.

c)

They increase the mass of the rocks.

d)

They build up the rocks with small sand particles.

29.

Jane was looking at a cliff made up of several layers of different kinds of rock. Near the top of the cliff, she found a fossilized bone. Near the middle, she found the fossil of a fern. At the bottom, she found a fossilized shell.


What process was critical in the formation and preservation of the fossils?

a)

plate tectonics

b)

deposition

c)

chemical weathering

d)

abrasion

30.

Many processes help to shape Earth’s surface. Starting with a rock, in what order would you expect the following Earth processes to occur?

a)

deposition, eruption, weathering

b)

erosion, weathering, deposition

c)

eruption, erosion, weathering

d)

weathering, erosion, deposition

31.

Weathering and erosion are two processes that shape Earth’s surface. Which of the following sets of factors causes both weathering and erosion?

a)

moving water, plants, wind

b)

glaciers, waves, wind

c)

acids, tree roots, waves

d)

acids, plants, ice

32.

Marsha places a sealed plastic bottle of water in a freezer. The next day she discovers that the water has frozen and split the sides of the bottle. What process does this phenomenon best represent?

a)

chemical weathering

b)

deposition

c)

mountain building

d)

physical weathering

33.

Sand dunes form along some coastlines. Which factor is most responsible for forming sand dunes?

a)

rain

b)

wind

c)

water

d)

ice

34.

Many thousands of years ago, glaciers covered large areas of Earth’s surface. Glaciers are large blocks of ice that flow slowly over the land. Portions of the ice melted and refroze many times over the years. Which explanation best describes how glaciers contributed to the formation of coastal plains?

a)

Water from the melting ice elevated the shoreline, forming plateaus.

b)

Water from the melting ice flooded the plains, causing plants to die

c)

Water from the melting ice smoothed sediments along the shore.

d)

Water from the melting ice deposited sand on the ocean floor.

35.
The outline or shape of a coast or the boundary between land and a lake or ocean is called a
a)
dune
b)
mountain
c)
coastline
d)
delta
36.
What type of landform has a large, natural rise in elevation that has steep sides and is taller than a hill?
a)
glacier
b)
dune
c)
hill
d)
mountain
37.
What is a glacier?
a)
hills formed by the wind blowing sand
b)
a huge mass of ice that formed from accumulated and compacted snow that slowly moves down a slope
c)
A large body of water with land all around it
d)
The outline or shape of a coast or the boundary between land and a lake or ocean
38.
Hills formed by the wind blowing or depositing sand are called
a)
dunes
b)
rivers
c)
lakes
d)
mountains
39.
What is a river?
a)
a natural physical feature on Earth's surface   
b)
The outline or shape of a coast or the boundary between land and a lake or ocean
c)
a wide body of slowly moving water; a natural flow of water that follows a path into another body of water
d)
a huge mass of ice that formed from accumulated and compacted snow that slowly moves down a slope
40.
A large body of water with land all around it is called a 
a)
ocean
b)
river
c)
stream
d)
lake
41.
What is a delta?
a)
a huge mass of ice that formed from accumulated and compacted snow that slowly moves down a slope
b)
a wide body of slowly moving water; a natural flow of water that follows a path into another body of water
c)
a triangle-shaped (deposit) landform at the mouth of a river as it empties into another body of water
d)
The outline or shape of a coast or the boundary between land and a lake or ocean
42.
Sand dunes are mostly found in what landforms?
a)
rivers and oceans
b)
streams and lakes
c)
mountains and glaciers
d)
coastlines and deserts
43.
These landforms are NOT found in Florida
a)
mountains and glaciers
b)
coastlines and sand dunes
c)
rivers and lakes
d)
deltas
44.
a)
Delta
b)
River
c)
Coastline
d)
Mountain
45.

The state of Florida is a peninsula. What type of landform borders the Florida peninsula on three sides?

a)

river

b)

delta

c)

coastline

d)

mountain

46.

Sand dunes can have many shapes and sizes. How is a natural sand dune formed?

a)

Windblown sand piles up on an open beach.

b)

Windblown sand is trapped by beach grass

or other objects

c)

Sand is washed up on shore from the

ocean and forms hills.

d)

Animals push sand into small hills as

they burrow along a beach.

47.

How does a delta form?

a)

It forms when sediments are deposited at the mouth of a river

b)

It forms when sediments are carried away

from an ocean or lake.

c)

It forms when sediments are deposited at the base of a mountain

d)

It forms when sediments are deposited along the banks of a river

48.

The interaction between the cryosphere and hydrosphere can have an impact on Earth’s oceans. Which of the following is an example of an interaction between the cryosphere and hydrosphere?

a)

evaporation of water from oceans at the equator

b)

release of fresh water into ocean water as icebergs melt

c)

decomposition of organic matter at the bottom of oceans

d)

release of large amounts of salt from icebergs into the ocean

49.

Ice from glaciers carves parts of Earth’s crust, changing V-shaped river valleys into broad, U-shaped valleys. Which of the following spheres are interacting?

a)

geosphere and biosphere

b)

cryosphere and geosphere

c)

biosphere and hydrosphere

d)

hydrosphere and cryosphere

50.

Each of Earth's spheres is distinguished by the materials from which it is made. Plants and animals make up part of which sphere?

a)

biosphere

b)

cryosphere

c)

atmosphere

d)

hydrospheres

51.

Each of Earth’s spheres is characterized by specific processes. What is one example of how the cryosphere interacts with the hydrosphere?

a)

Sea ice melts, adding water to the oceans.

b)

Ice reflects 50% more sunlight than does water.

c)

Strong winds cause sea ice to change directly to water vapor.

d)

The ice covering Antarctica provides breeding sites for penguins.

52.

Look at the illustration. The volcanic eruption is sending out clouds of dust and ash. An interaction between which two spheres is being demonstrated?

a)

biosphere and geosphere

b)

cryosphere and biosphere

c)

geosphere and atmosphere

d)

atmosphere and hydrosphere

53.

Electromagnetic waves produced by the sun travel through space to Earth. What is this method of energy transfer called?

a)

CONVECTION

b)

CONDUCTION

c)

INSULATION

d)

RADIATION

54.

Conduction results in the transfer of energy as heat. Which of the following is the best example of energy transfer by conduction?

a)

Sunlight shines on the ocean warms the surface water.

b)

Cold surface water is warmed by warm air directly above it.

c)

Cold ocean water sinks deep into the ocean while warm ocean water rises upward

d)

Water in the shallow parts of the ocean is warmer than waters in the deeper parts of the ocean.

55.

Earth’s atmosphere is not uniform in temperature. What is the primary method by which energy as heat can be rapidly transferred and cycled through different elevations in Earth’s atmosphere?

a)

convection

b)

conduction

c)

insulation

d)

radiation

56.

Solar energy does not warm Earth’s surface evenly. For example, during the day, land areas warm up faster than nearby bodies of water. How does this uneven warming affect the movement of air over land and water?

a)

The cooler, denser air above the water flows toward the warmer, less dense air above the land, causing a sea breeze.

b)

The warmer, less dense air above the land flows toward the cooler, denser air above the water, causing a land breeze.

c)

The cooler air over the water would absorb water vapor and rise, resulting in rainy conditions over the shoreline.

d)

The warmer air over the land would transfer energy to the cooler air by conduction, leading to a uniform air temperature.

57.

Sunlight does not reach all parts of Earth's surface equally. This results in uneven heating of Earth’s surface and the formation of wind. Why does the uneven heating of Earth's surface produce wind?

a)

It causes condensation in the atmosphere.

b)

It causes pressure differences in the atmosphere.

c)

It causes differences in the level of water vapor in the atmosphere.

d)

It causes cooler air to rise, creating a partial vacuum near the surface.

58.

During a summer day on the beach, the sand on the beach and the air temperature feel hot, but the ocean water feels cold. This is because the land and air change temperature much faster than the ocean water, making the land and the air warmer than the ocean water. At night, why would the ocean water be warmer than the air?

a)

As a cool breeze blows off the water onto the land, the water warms up.

b)

The heat from the air transfers to the water during the night, making the water warmer than it was during the day.

c)

Air changes temperature faster than water, so the water is warmer and the air is much cooler than it was during the day.

d)

Air stays warmer longer than water so your body is warm when you jump into the water.

59.

Which detail about Earth’s atmosphere is true?

a)

It has no effect on surface temperatures.

b)

It shields life forms on the surface from radiation.

c)

It allows meteors to strike the surface.

d)

It is thicker over places where there are high elevations.

60.

The sun emits harmful ultraviolet radiation, some of which reaches Earth's surface. Scientists recommend that people who plan on being outdoors for at least 20 minutes apply sunscreen to protect their skin from ultraviolet radiation. What blocks most of the sun’s ultraviolet radiation from reaching Earth's surface?

a)

wind

b)

precipitation

c)

clouds

d)

atmosphere

61.

What is found at letter E?

a)

Polar Easterlies

b)

Prevailing Westerlies

c)

Doldrums

d)

Tradewinds

62.

How does wind move?

a)

From areas of low pressure to areas of high pressure.

b)

From areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure.

c)

From areas of high temperature to areas of low tempreture

d)

From areas of low temperature to areas of high temperature

63.

Identify the correct hierarchical organization of an organism


a)

Atoms, molecules, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms

b)

Organisms, atoms, molecules, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems

c)

Organ systems, organisms, atoms, molecules, cells, tissues, organs

d)

Organs, organ systems, organisms, atoms, molecules, cells, tissues

64.

Structures in the human body work together to perform specific functions. The diagram below shows the organization of structures found in the human body.


A picture of which of the following structures belongs in the box above?

a)

Cell

b)

Organ

c)

Organelle

d)

Tissue

65.

Eugene drew the following diagram to describe the levels of structural organization of an animal’s body. At the top of the pyramid he put the animal’s body. The level of organization that is least specialized will be at the bottom.


Which of the following should Eugene list at the bottom of his diagram?

a)

Organ

b)

Tissue

c)

Cell

d)

Organ system

66.

Which term best fits the level of organization pictured in the diagram?

a)

Organ

b)

Tissue

c)

Single cell

d)

Organ system

67.

The diagram shows parts of the human body. These parts work together to help you digest the food you eat.

Which term best describes the entire group of parts that are labeled?

a)

Organ

b)

Tissue

c)

Cell

d)

Organ system

68.

In a human body, which of the following represents the highest level of structural organization?

a)

Lung tissue

b)

The lungs

c)

The respiratory system

d)

An atom in the lung

69.

Which of these statements describes an organ system?

a)

Many cells working together to perform a function

b)

Many organs working together to perform a function

c)

Many cells working separately to perform different functions

d)

Many organs working separately to perform different functions

70.

Cells exchange materials with their environment. What is the main reason for this?


a)

To replace damaged and dying cells

b)

To keep the cell membrane functioning

c)

To release energy into their environment

d)

To get rid of wastes and take in nutrients

71.

Which of the following is something that all living organisms have in common?

a)

They all contain at least one cell.

b)

They all need a source of oxygen.

c)

They all use other organisms for food.

d)

They all find mates to reproduce.

72.

Which of the following is not part of the cell theory?


a)

Cells come from other cells.

b)

All living things are made of cells.

c)

Cells can be seen through a microscope.

d)

Cells are the units of structure and function in living things.

73.

Homeostasis is necessary for a cell to survive.

What is the definition of homeostasis?

a)

The elimination of wastes

b)

The process by which energy from the sun is used to make food

c)

The maintenance of a stable internal environment

d)

The division of cells to form new cells

74.

The cell theory applies to all organisms, including the five shown above.

Which of the following statements describes how these organisms are an example of the cell theory?

a)

The cells of the organisms undergo photosynthesis.

b)

The organisms are made of one or more cells.

c)

The cells of the organisms are identical to each other.

d)

The organisms have cells that lack a nucleus.

75.

What is homeostasis?

a)

The body's tendency to keep an internal balance

b)

Cell wall

c)

Peninsula

d)

Staying hydrated

76.

Plant cells are different from animal cells. The diagram below identifies four different structures in a plant cell.

Compared to the structures in an animal cell, which of the following structures is found only in a plant cell? .

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Nucleus

77.

The diagram shown is a useful scientific model because it shows:

a)

An animal cell as it really looks.

b)

A plant cell as it really looks.

c)

The structures of a typical plant cell.

d)

How the structures of a cell function.

78.

A cell can be seen by looking through a microscope.

Seeing which of these organelles would let you know that you are looking at a plant cell?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Nucleus

79.

In biology class, Zach observes cells. Each cell has a structure that separates the inside of the cell from the environment.

Which structure is Zach observing?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoskeleton

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Genetic material

80.

My cell is prokaryotic, what kingdom do I belong to?

a)

Fungi

b)

Bacteria

c)

Plant

d)

Protist

81.

A cell with a nucleus is

a)

Autotrophic

b)

Prokaryotic

c)

Eukaryotic

d)

Heterotrophic

82.

Kingdom with the following characteristics: eukaryotic cells, unicellular or multicellular, autotrophic or heterotrophic

a)

Fungi

b)

Archaebacteria

c)

Protist

d)

Plant

83.

Nutrition that consists of obtaining nutrients from other living being

a)

Autotrophic

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Interaction

d)

Heterotrophic

84.

Kingdom with the following characteristics: eukaryotic cells, with tissues and autotrophic

a)

Archaebacteria

b)

Fungi

c)

Bacteria

d)

Plant

85.

Most organisms are known by their common names, which vary by region and language. They also have scientific names based on their classification. How are scientific names determined?

a)

by using trinomial nomenclature, where the first part of an organism's name is its order, the second part is its kingdom, and the third part is its phylum

b)

by using polynomial nomenclature, where the first part of organism's name its it order, followed by its domain, species, and kingdom

c)

by using binomial nomenclature, where the first part of an organism's name is its genus, and the second part is its species

d)

by using uninomial nomenclature, where the single name is a combination of the kingdom and

86.

(Taxonomy) An organism's scientific name includes its...

a)

Family & Genus

b)

Kingdom & Family

c)

Genus & Species

d)

Class & Genus

87.

Which domain(s) include only prokaryotic cells? (without nucleus)

a)

Eukarya & Bacteria

b)

Archaeabacteria

c)

Bacteria & Archeabacteria

d)

Bacteria

88.

Which domain(s) include organisms that have eukaryotic cells? (has nucleus)

a)

Eukarya

b)

Eukarya & Bacteria

c)

Bacteria

d)

Archaeabacteria

89.

Members of this kingdom are multicellular and heterotrophic, and most can move:

a)

Protista

b)

Animalia

c)

Plantae

d)

Fungi

90.

Which kingdom contains organisms that are mostly multicellular, have cell walls of chitin, reproduce by spores, and obtain nutrients by absorbing?

a)

Fungi

b)

Plantae

c)

Animalia

d)

Protista

91.

Mushrooms, bread molds, and yeasts are classified together in the fungi kingdom. Specific characteristics are used to classify these organisms. Which of the following is a characteristic used to classify these organisms as fungi?

a)

They are parasites.

b)

They are unicellular

c)

They are prokaryotes.

d)

They are heterotrophs.

92.

A biologist discovers a new organism. What helps the biologist classify the new organism into a specific group?

a)

how long the organism lives

b)

where the organism lives

c)

common traits with other organisms

d)

how recently the organism was discovered

93.

Plant cells are different from animal cells.

Compared to the structures in an animal cell, which of the following structures is found only in a plant cell?

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

94.

Which cell organelle controls all the activities of the cell?

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Nucleus

95.

A cell can be seen by looking through a microscope. Seeing which of these organelles would let you know that you are looking at a plant cell?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Nucleus

96.

The presence of which organelles causes many plants to appear green?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Vacuoles

d)

Chloroplasts

97.
All living things are made of...
a)
atoms 
b)
cells 
c)
bacteria 
d)
plants 
98.

Controls what enters/leaves a cell

a)

cell membrane

b)

vacuole

c)

cell wall

d)

cytoplasm

99.
Cell membranes are found in
a)
Only animal cells
b)
Only plant cells
c)
Some plant and animal cells
d)
All plant and animal cells
100.
a)
produces ribosomes
b)
contains genetic information
c)
stores food, water, wastes and other materials
101.
Which of the following are NOT found in animal cells
a)
chloroplasts and cytoplasm
b)
chloroplasts and cell wall
c)
cell wall and cell membrane
d)
mitochondria and nucleus
102.

Which of the following converts food into energy for the cell?

a)

vacuole

b)

mitochondria

c)

cytoplasm

d)

cell membrane

103.
What do vacuoles do? 
a)
They actually do not have an important role
b)
They protect the cell
c)
They are the brain of the cell
d)
storage area for cells; water storage in plants 
104.
What is the function of a cell wall?
a)
to protect and support the cell
b)
to perform different functions in each cell
c)
to prevent water from passing through it
d)
to prevent oxygen from entering the cell
105.
Consists of a jellylike substance that contains many organelles.
a)
ribosomes
b)
cytoplasm
c)
chloroplasts
d)
cell wall
106.
Chloroplasts in plant cells allow the plant to perform a function that animal cells cannot do.  What is the main function of the chloroplasts found in plant cells?
a)
to absorb light energy and manufacture food
b)
to remove waste materials by active transport
c)
to manufacture chemical energy from food
d)
to control the shape of the cell
107.
All cells need energy to function.  Which cell organelle is responsible for producing energy in the cell?
a)
chloroplasts
b)
mitochondria
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuoles
108.

Some skateboarders use a structure called a half-pipe, like the one shown, to perform impressive tricks. Which of the positions will provide a skateboarder with the GREATEST potential energy?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

109.

Some skateboarders use a structure called a half-pipe, like the one shown, to perform impressive tricks. Which of the positions will provide a skateboarder with the GREATEST kinetic energy?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

110.

Mechanical energy is the sum of two types of energy—kinetic energy and potential energy of position. Which of the following is an example of an object that has kinetic energy?

a)

a snail crawling across a leaf

b)

a computer monitor sitting on a desk

c)

a tightly wound spring in a windup toy

d)

a roller coaster car just before it goes downhill

111.

Mechanical energy is the sum of two types of energy—kinetic energy and potential energy of position. Which of the following is an example of an object that has potential energy?

a)

a snail crawling across a leaf

b)

a computer monitor sitting on a desk

c)

a jumping windup toy

d)

a roller coaster car going downhill

112.

The table shows the speed and height over time of a ball that starts at rest, then is dropped from the top of a building, which is 60 meters (m) tall. Use the table to answer any questions that follow.


At which time is the ball's potential energy at its maximum?

a)

0.0 s

b)

0.5 s

c)

2.0 s

d)

2.5 s

113.

The table shows the speed and height over time of a ball that starts at rest, then is dropped from the top of a building, which is 60 meters (m) tall. Use the table to answer any questions that follow.


At which time is the ball's kinetic energy at its maximum?

a)

0.0 s

b)

0.5 s

c)

2.0 s

d)

2.5 s

114.

The diagram illustrates four phases of a model rocket's flight. Use the diagram to answer any questions that follow.


When is the rocket's potential energy decreasing and its kinetic energy increasing?

a)

when the rocket's motor is burning and when the rocket is free falling

b)

when the rocket's motor is burning and when the rocket is ascending

c)

when the rocket is at the peak of flight, only

d)

when the rocket is free falling, only

115.

The diagram illustrates four phases of a model rocket's flight. Use the diagram to answer any questions that follow.


When is the rocket's potential energy increasing and its kinetic energy decreasing?

a)

when the rocket's motor is burning and when the rocket is free falling

b)

when the rocket's motor is burning and when the rocket is ascending

c)

when the rocket is at the peak of flight, only

d)

when the rocket is free falling, only

116.

Which of the following examples of a cheetah has the most kinetic energy?

a)

The cheetah that is sitting

b)

The cheetah that is running

c)

The cheetah that is eating

d)

The cheetah that is walking

117.

Which of the following examples of a cheetah has the most potential energy?

a)

The cheetah that is sitting

b)

The cheetah that is running

c)

The cheetah that is eating

d)

The cheetah that is walking

118.

The picture shows a train as it approaches a hill. This train can only make it over the hill if it approaches at its top speed because it will lose speed as it climbs.


What changes are taking place in the train’s potential and kinetic energy as it climbs the hill?

a)

The train’s potential energy is increasing, and its kinetic energy is increasing

b)

The train’s potential energy is increasing, and its kinetic energy is decreasing

c)

The train’s potential energy is decreasing, and its kinetic energy is increasing

d)

The train’s potential energy is decreasing, and its kinetic energy is decreasing

119.

The picture shows a train as it approaches a hill. This train can only make it over the hill if it approaches at its top speed because it will lose speed as it climbs.


What changes are taking place in the train’s potential and kinetic energy as it goes down the hill?

a)

The train’s potential energy is increasing, and its kinetic energy is increasing

b)

The train’s potential energy is increasing, and its kinetic energy is decreasing

c)

The train’s potential energy is decreasing, and its kinetic energy is increasing

d)

The train’s potential energy is decreasing, and its kinetic energy is decreasing

120.

The table shows the speed and height over time of a ball that starts at rest, then is dropped from the top of a building, which is 60 meters (m) tall. Use the table to answer any questions that follow.


What is happening to the ball's energy at a time of 1.5 seconds?

a)

The ball's kinetic energy is decreasing and its potential energy is decreasing

b)

The ball's kinetic energy is increasing and its potential energy is decreasing

c)

The ball's kinetic energy is decreasing and its potential energy is increasing

d)

The ball's kinetic energy is increasing and its potential energy is increasing

121.

The picture shows the path of a ball on a track. Use the picture to answer any questions that follow. Which series shows decreasing potential energy and increasing kinetic energy?

a)

T, Y, Z

b)

W, X, Y

c)

S, T, U

d)

V, X, Z

122.

The picture shows the path of a ball on a track. Use the picture to answer any questions that follow. Which series shows decreasing kinetic energy and increasing potential energy?

a)

T, Y, Z

b)

W, X, Y

c)

S, T, U

d)

V, X, Z

123.

1. Damon made the graph below to compare the speed limits on four different roads in his county. He converted the speed limits from miles per hour to miles per minute to get a closer comparison. Which road has the slowest speed limit?

a)

Road A

b)

Road B

c)

Road C

d)

Road D

124.
Speed is equal to 
a)
Distance/Time
b)
Time/Distance
c)
Time x Distance
d)
Acceleration
125.
A person walked 10 miles.  It took them 2 hours.  How fast were they walking?
a)
8 mph
b)
5 mph
c)
2 mph
d)
10 mph
126.
Which runner won the race?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
It was a tie
127.
What is this graph showing?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration (speeding up)
c)
Deceleration (slowing down)
d)
No motion
128.
How will this object move? 
a)
It won't move. 
b)
It will move to the right. 
c)
It will move to the left. 
d)
It will move up. 
129.
What is the net force?
a)
30 N left
b)
25 N right
c)
5 N left
d)
55 N right
130.
What is the net force?
a)
40 N left
b)
0 N Balalnced
c)
400 N right
d)
40 N right
131.
A runner races in the 100 meter dash.  It takes her 10 seconds to finish.  What is her average speed?
a)
10 m/s
b)
1000 m/s
c)
100 seconds
d)
10 seconds
132.

A contact force is from

a)

objects physically touching

b)

far apart objects

c)

not touching object

d)

always a pull

133.

A non-contact force is between

a)

two objects that aren't touching

b)

two objects that are touching

c)

the ground and wheels

d)

you and me

134.

Gravity is a

a)

Contact Force

b)

Myth

c)

Non-contact Force

135.

as the mass of an object increases, the pull of gravity...

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the same

136.
What does the strength of gravity between two objects depend upon?
a)
Mass & distance
b)
Mass & weight
c)
Gravity & inertia
d)
Inertia & mass
137.
What is gravitational force?
a)
It makes objects at rest start moving.
b)
It makes objects that are moving stop.
c)
The force of attraction between two objects.
d)
It pulls you into space.
138.
Which type of energy increases when you compress a spring?
a)
elastic potential energy
b)
kinetic energy
c)
radiant energy
d)
sound energy
139.

Energy stored because of gravity is called:

a)

Gravitational Potential Energy

b)

Kinetic Energy

c)

Mechanical Advantage

d)

Chemical Energy

140.
What does the Law of Conservation of Energy state?
a)
Energy cannot be created or destroyed
b)
Nothing can exchange energy
c)
Energy will increase over time.
d)
Energy will decrease over time.
141.
What will happen when these magnets are brought close together?
a)
They will attract each other.
b)
They will repel each other.
c)
Both magnets will turn to the left
d)
Both magnets will turn to the right
142.
If two magnets come together what is it called?
a)
Repel
b)
Force
c)
Attract
d)
None of the Above
143.

Are forces applied when the objects involved are in direct contact.

a)

Contact forces

b)

Normal forces

c)

action-at-a-distance forces

144.

When a body moves another.

a)

Normal force

b)

Friction

c)

Elastic

d)

Pushing or pulling

145.

Generated between two bodies in contact with each other by resistance to rubbing between them.

a)

Push or pull

b)

Tension

c)

Elasticity

d)

Friction

146.

Is the force of attraction that the body with mass exerts on another.

a)

Tension

b)

Push or pull

c)

Gravity

d)

Normal force

147.
What states that "every object in the universe attracts every other object"?
a)
Law of Universal Gravitation
b)
Newton's First Law of Motion
c)
My mother
d)
Inertia & gravity
148.
If Earth's mass was cut in half, what would happen to your mass?
a)
increase because gravitational force increases
b)
decrease because gravitational force decreases
c)
decrease because gravitational force increases
d)
nothing, mass is not affected by gravitational force
149.
Two factors effecting the magnitude of the force of gravity between 2 objects are...
a)
mass and distance 
b)
mass and matter
c)
distance and weight 
d)
weight and mass
150.
As mass increases, what happens to gravitational force?
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
d)
i don't know
151.
As the distance between 2 objects increases, what happens to gravitational force?
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
d)
i don't know
152.
Which of the following will not change in different gravitational fields?
a)
wieght
b)
force
c)
mass
d)
pounds
153.
Which of the following will change with different gravitational forces?
a)
mass
b)
amount of matter in an object
c)
weight
d)
kilograms
154.
What force causes objects falling near Earth's surface to slow down?
a)
Gravity
b)
Air Resistance
c)
Centripetal Force
d)
Newtons
155.

Why is the gravity on Earth greater than the gravity on Mars?

a)

Mars has less mass than Earth.

b)

Mars has a smaller radius than Earth.

c)

Earth has less surface area than Mars.

d)

Earth has a thicker atmosphere than Mars.

156.

A student drops a bowling ball and an apple from a third-story window. Both objects hit the ground at the same time. From the experiment, the student should conclude that

a)

the apple weighs more than the bowling ball

b)

more air friction is acting on the apple than on the bowling ball

c)

gravity pulls on both objects, causing them to fall at the same time.

157.

Which is needed to determine the amount of gravitational force between two objects?

a)

distance and mass

b)

weight and time

c)

area and weight

158.
As the product of two objects' masses increases, the pull of gravity
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
159.
This FORCE pulls things.  It PULLS things into orbit around the sun. 
a)
Newton
b)
gravity
c)
weight
d)
path