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8th Grade 2nd Semester Final (2021)

Total questions: 162

Worksheet time: 2hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Weathering is the process of -

a)

Moving sediment from one place to another

b)

Dropping or leaving sediment in a location

c)

Breaking down rocks into sediment

2.

An example of chemical weathering is -

a)

Ice wedging

b)

Oxidation

c)

Animals burrowing

d)

Crashing waves

3.

An example of physical weathering is -

a)

Plant roots and leaves releasing acids

b)

Carbonic acid dissolving limestone

c)

Large temperature changes

d)

Lichens growing on rocks

4.

Ice wedging is an example of -

a)

Physical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering

c)

Both physical AND chemical weathering

5.

Over millions of years, weak carbonic acid can dissolve limestone to form -

a)

Cracks in rocks

b)

Caves and caverns

c)

Mountains and cliffs

6.

Carbonic acid is formed in nature when -

a)

Water dissolves particles of soil to form mud

b)

The oxygen molecules in water bond with minerals in rocks

c)

Water bonds with carbon dioxide in the air and/or soil

7.

Plant roots conduct -

a)

Physical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering

c)

Both physical AND chemical weathering

8.

Fallen plant leaves help break down rocks as they -

a)

Release or leach acids as they decompose

b)

Get into cracks, expand, and make the cracks wider

c)

Scratch and wear away the surface of rocks

9.

Ice wedging is most likely to occur during which months of the year ?

a)

December - February

b)

March - May

c)

June - August

d)

September - November

10.

Which of the following is an example of erosion

a)

the sun shining on a rock

b)

Wind abrasion rounding the corners of a rock

c)

A river carrying soil to the ocean

d)

A lichen growing on a rock

11.

Which of the following is an example of deposition?

a)

A tree root lifting up a section of sidewalk

b)

Potholes caused by melting and freezing of water

c)

The formation of caves

d)

A pile of rocks at the bottom of a hill after a landslide

12.

Which of the following is an example of mechanical weathering?

a)

Rust forming on a rock cliff

b)

Acid rain causing blurred inscriptions on a ancient tomb

c)

Rounded pebbles in a stream bed

d)

A sudden rainstorm on a hot day

13.

Which of the following is an example of chemical weathering?

a)

Rust forming on a rock cliff

b)

Frost action breaking a rocky ledge apart

c)

A flat, rounded piece of rock breaking off a rock's surface

d)

Rocks falling from high places

14.

How do chemical and mechanical weathering processes differ?

a)

Chemical weathering breaks rocks into smaller pieces but mechanical weathering doesn't

b)

Chemical weathering affects only igneous rocks but mechanical weathering affects all types of rocks

c)

Chemical weathering involves water but mechanical weathering does not

d)

Chemical weathering changes the composition of the rock but mechanical weathering does not

15.

Mechanical weathering can occur from ALL the following EXCEPT

a)

Burrowing by animals

b)

Ice expands when frozen and cracks rocks

c)

Trees roots expand as they grow and crack rocks

d)

Carbonic acid eats away layers of limestone rock

16.

Chemical weathering can occur from ALL of the following EXCEPT

a)

Acids given off by lichens and mosses eat away at rocks

b)

Sulfuric acid causes blurred words on gravestones and monuments

c)

Wind blows sand which wears away cliffs

d)

Rust caused by oxygen combining with iron-bearing minerals in rocks causes red bands on limestone cliffs

17.

Susan rubs two rocks together. One of the rocks wears away to form small particles. What would most likely happen if this rock continues to break into small pieces after Susan puts the rocks back on the ground?

a)

The pieces may become part of the soil

b)

The pieces may become part of the bedrock

c)

The pieces may become part of the ice wedging process

d)

The pieces may become part of the organic matter in the soil

18.

A river starts as a steep channel in the mountains. It then leaves the mountains and enters a flatter area of land. It meanders across a plain and then enters the ocean. Which of the following actions causes the deposition of sand at a delta?

a)

River water slowing as it enters the ocean

b)

Saltwater and freshwater mixing together

c)

Ocean waves transporting sand toward the land

d)

Ocean water slowing as it reaches the coast

19.

Wind erosion of soil can be reduced by

a)

Planting trees along the edges of fields

b)

Planting crop rows parallel to the land contours

c)

Flattening hill slopes into terraces

d)

Building dams in streams

20.
The process of breaking up Earth's surface into sediment is called...
a)
sediment
b)
erosion
c)
weathering
d)
deposition 
21.
What is sediment?
a)
the process of rocks being broken down and carried away
b)
bits of rock, sand, and silt caused by the weathering of rocks
c)
the top layer of the soil
d)
decaying plant or animal material 
22.
Which of these is an example of erosion
a)
Light Shinning onto a mountain
b)
Rain breaking down rock 
c)
Wind blowing away sediment
d)
All of the above
23.
What happens when weathering and erosion work together?
a)
New Mountains are created
b)
The climate changes overnight
c)
Metal objects become rusty
d)
They change the Earth's surface
24.
How does freezing water cause the weathering of rocks?  The freezing water—
a)
keeps the rocks in place
b)
makes the rocks last longer
c)
expands cracks and breaks rocks
d)
causes rocks to fall in landslides
25.
What is the major cause of weathering and erosion to form canyons?
a)
wind
b)
ice
c)
glaciers
d)
moving water
26.
How do plants weather rocks?
a)
during photosynthesis
b)
when roots grow into cracks of rocks and expand the rock
c)
when the plant moves water from the roots to the leaves
d)
Plants don't weather rocks
27.
Which agents  break down earth materials?
a)
wind only
b)
earthquakes and gravity
c)
ice and 007
d)
wind, water, and ice
28.

Which particles will be transported by a stream moving at a velocity of 5 cm/s?

a)

pebbles, sand, silt, and clay, only

b)

sand, silt, and clay, only

c)

silt and clay, only

d)

clay, only

29.

The Genesee River flows across both the Allegheny Plateau and the Erie-Ontario Lowlands in New York State. This river flows

a)

northward, in the same general direction as the Hudson River

b)

northward, in the same general direction as the Niagara River

c)

southward, in the same general direction as the Hudson River

d)

southward, in the same general direction as the Niagara River

30.

Compared to the stream velocity between point X and point Y, the stream velocity between point Y and point Z is most likely

a)

greater, since the slope of the land decreases

b)

greater, since the slope of the land increases

c)

less, since the slope of the land decreases

d)

less, since the slope of the land decreases

31.

Erosion is most likely greatest at locations

a)

A and B

b)

B and C

c)

C and D

d)

D and A

32.

A river's current carries sediments into the ocean. Which sediment size will most likely be deposited in deeper water farthest from the shore?

a)

pebble

b)

sand

c)

slit

d)

clay

33.

Sediment is deposited in a river delta because the

a)

velocity of the river decreases

b)

force of gravity decreases

c)

volume of the river increases

d)

gradient of the river increases

34.

Over which two landscape regions do the streams in watershed D flow?

a)

Tug Hill Plateau and the Catskills

b)

Tug Hill Plateau and Erie-Ontario Lowlands

c)

Adirondack Mountains and Champlain Lowlands

d)

Adirondack Mountains and St. Lawrence Lowlands

35.

The Genesee River in watershed A generally flows in which direction?

a)

north

b)

south

c)

east

d)

west

36.

In which major watershed is the Susquehanna River located?

a)

F

b)

H

c)

I

d)

J

37.

Which two locations have the greatest stream velocities?

a)

A and B

b)

B and C

c)

C and D

d)

D and A

38.

The three areas separated by highland divides are called

a)

Tributaries

b)

meanders

c)

watersheds

d)

floodplains

39.

Which landform is produced at location E where the Mississippi River enters the Gulf of Mexico?

a)

delta

b)

drumlin

c)

tributary

d)

floodplain

40.

At which location would the Mississippi River's discharge most likely be the greatest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

41.

What is the name of the largest sediment that can be transported by a stream moving at a velocity of 100 centimeters per second (cm/s)?

a)

silt

b)

sand

c)

pebbles

d)

cobbles

42.

Which two cities are located in the Interior Lowlands?

a)

Elmira and Binghamton

b)

Riverhead and New York City

c)

Massena and Old Forge

d)

Buffalo and Watertown

43.

At which two locations would the stream most likely be the deepest?

a)

A and B

b)

B and C

c)

C and D

d)

D and A

44.

A river's current carries sediments into the ocean. Which sediment size will most likely be deposited in deeper water farthest from the shore?

a)

pebbles

b)

clay

c)

silt

d)

sand

45.

The greatest stream velocities are found closest to points

a)

A and B

b)

B and C

c)

C and D

d)

D and A

46.

The streambank on the outside of this meander is steeper than the streambank on the inside of this meander because the water on the outside of this meander is moving

a)

faster, causing erosion

b)

slower, causing erosion

c)

faster, causing deposition

d)

slower, causing deposition

47.

At which point does the greatest stream erosion occur?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

48.

Which of the following statements about how minerals are used is FALSE?

a)

Aluminum is frequently used in batteries, ammunition, glass, and ceramics.

b)

Desirable properties of metals are combined in ores.

c)

Nonmetals are used for many purposes around the world.

d)

Rubies are nonmetallic minerals prized for their beauty.

49.

Ore minerals can form in all of the following places EXCEPT

a)

at the surface of an area that was once covered by water

b)

at the bottom of a water body

c)

in fractures within rocks

d)

in a bed of hot, flowing lava

50.

Sand, gravel, and granite are examples of

a)

metallic minerals

b)

metallic elements

c)

nonmetallic minerals

d)

aluminum

51.

Which of the following describes a metallic mineral?

a)

silver

b)

a mineral that conducts electricity, has a shiny surface, and is opaque

c)

copper

d)

all of the above

52.

A company is likely to mine a site if the site

a)

is rich in minerals

b)

contains gold

c)

contains minerals that can be extracted economically

d)

does not contain gangue minerals

53.

Which of the following minerals is NOT available commercially

a)

ore minerals

b)

gangue minerals

c)

metallic minerals

d)

nonmetallic minerals

54.

___ are pure substances that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by ordinary chemical means.

a)

Minerals

b)

Compounds

c)

Crystals

d)

Elements

55.

Which of the following statements about minerals is FALSE?

a)

Minerals have a crystalline structure.

b)

Humans can create minerals to suit specific needs.

c)

Minerals are inorganic materials.

d)

Minerals cannot be liquids or gases.

56.

The following are steps a mining company is likely to follow. One step is premature (listed too soon). Which step is listed too soon?

a)

Step 1: Search for suitable mining sites.

b)

Step 2: Make a geological map of the potential site.

c)

Step 3: Take rock samples at the site.

d)

Step 4: Start mining.

57.

Which of the following would be the most economical method for subsurface mining a deposit of salt?

a)

room-and-pillar mining

b)

longwall minng

c)

solution mining

d)

quarrying

58.

In longwall mining,

a)

a network of entries is cut into seams of ore deposits

b)

ore is mined downward, layer by layer

c)

a shearer is moved back and forth across the face of the seam

d)

hot water is injected into the ore to dissolve the ore, and then air bubbles lift the ore to the surface

59.

Open pits called _______ are used to mine stone and gravel.

a)

overburdens

b)

cyanide heaps

c)

solar evaporation ponds

d)

quarries

60.

A technology that was developed in the 1850s and that used water cannons to remove gold from ancient riverbeds covered with soil is called

a)

solar evaporation

b)

hydraulic mining

c)

placer minng

d)

open-pit mining

61.

_____________ often form at bends in a river where the water flows more slowly and heavier materials are likely to settle out.

a)

Dredges

b)

Placer deposits

c)

Seams

d)

Fans

62.

Flux and slag occur in the process of

a)

smelting

b)

undersea mining

c)

placer mining

d)

hydraulic mining

63.

Which phrase best describes hydraulic mining performed int California goldfields in the 1850s?

a)

great success

b)

environmental disaster

c)

environmentally friendly

d)

clean process

64.

Which of the following mining methods would most likely be used to mine salt?

a)

room-and-pillar mining

b)

quarrying

c)

solar evaporation

d)

open-pit mining

65.
A rock which contains a useful mineral is call a/an
a)
gem
b)
quarry
c)
ore
d)
alloy
66.
The color of a mineral in powder form is called the mineral's 
a)
hardness
b)
specific gravity
c)
luster
d)
streak
67.
How light reflects off of a mineral is called the mineral's 
a)
luster
b)
streak
c)
cleavage
d)
fracture
68.
Why is coal not a mineral?
a)
It's not a solid
b)
It is man-made
c)
It is not inorganic
d)
It is made of carbon
69.
The following image shows what mineral property?
a)
Hardness
b)
Streak
c)
Cleavage
d)
Density
70.
Diamond has a hardness of ___ on Mohs Hardness Scale.
a)
1
b)
5
c)
8
d)
10
71.
Dull, silky, waxy, pearly, and earthy are terms that best describe which property of minerals?
a)
luster
b)
color
c)
streak
d)
cleavage
72.
By definition, a mineral has which of the following characteristic(s)?
a)
definite chemical composition
b)
crystal structure
c)
naturally occuring
d)
all of the above
73.
How do you test the hardness of a mineral? 
a)
Throw it against a wall
b)
Step on it
c)
Scratch Test
d)
Kick it until it breaks
74.
What mineral is used for pencils?
a)
Graphite
b)
Galena
c)
Magnetite
d)
Quartz
75.
What mineral is salt?
a)
quartz
b)
sulfur
c)
halite
d)
calcite
76.
A naturally occurring, inorganic solid with a crystal structure and a definite chemical composition is referring to
a)
density
b)
streak
c)
mineral
d)
non silicate mineral
77.
The solid, geometric form of a mineral produced by a repeating pattern of atoms
a)
crystal
b)
density
c)
element
d)
fracture 
78.
What mineral is the softest mineral on Moh's Hardness Scale and the main ingredient in baby powder?
a)
feldspar
b)
talc
c)
gypsum
d)
kaolinite
79.
Which mineral smells like rotten eggs?
a)
talc
b)
sulfer
c)
mica
d)
pyrite
80.
A mineral's resistance to being scratched is called?
a)
streak
b)
luster
c)
hardness
d)
heft
81.
The mineral halite is formed by 
a)
hot water solutions
b)
cooling of magma
c)
cooling of lava
d)
evaporation
82.
This narrow channel of gold intruding into the surrounding rock is called a 
a)
sill
b)
dike
c)
volcanic neck
d)
vein
83.
The mineral iron is primarily used to make
a)
jewelry
b)
tools
c)
cement
d)
glass
84.
Large crystals are going to form
a)
when lava erupts from a volcano
b)
when a shallow sea evaporates
c)
when magma underground cools off
d)
all of the above
85.
A rock formed from fragments of other rocks is a(n)
a)
Metamorphic Rock
b)
Sedimentary Rock
c)
Extrusive Rock
d)
Igneous Rock
86.
This rock was another type of rock that was heated and compressed over time. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
87.
This rock started as molten magma. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
88.
This rock was formed by smaller pieces of rock that settled at the bottom of a lake millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
89.
This rock was formed by smaller pieces of rock that settled at the bottom of a lake millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
90.
The process when rocks break into smaller pieces due to exposure to natural elements is called
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
c)
sediments
91.
What are the 3 major types of rocks?
a)
Igneous, Metamorphic, Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic, Igneous, Cementation
c)
magma, lava, crystals
92.
The name rock is given when it is broken down into smaller pieces.
a)
texture
b)
weathering
c)
sediment
d)
erosion
93.

Which rock is formed form the cooling of volcanic ash on Earth's surface?

a)

intrusive igneous

b)

foliated metamorphic

c)

extrusive igneous

d)

organic sedimentary

94.

Rocks that form from colling magma inside Earth?

a)

Igneous intrusive

b)

Igneous extrusive

c)

Metamorphic foliated

d)

Metamorphic nonfoliated

95.
True/False: Igneous rocks can only turn into metamorphic rocks.
a)
True
b)
False
96.

Any rock that forms from another rock as a result of changes in heat or pressure (or both) is a:

a)

chemical rock

b)

igneous rock

c)

sedimentary rock

d)

metamorphic rock

97.

This is a natural solid that is made of one or more minerals.

a)

Mineral

b)

Fossil

c)

Rock

d)

Sediment

98.

This is the continuous process of rock changing from one type to another.

a)

Igneous rocks

b)

Sedimentary rocks

c)

Metamorphic rocks

d)

Rock Cycle

99.

What type of rock might contain evidence of past life?

a)

Sedimentary Rock

b)

Igneous Rock

c)

Metamorphic Rock

100.

Which of the following lists the steps an igneous rock undergoes in order to become a sedimentary rock, in the correct order?

a)

Deposition, erosion, melting, cooling

b)

Erosion, weathering, eruption, cooling

c)

Dissolving, deposition, cooling, fracture

d)

Weathering, erosion, deposition, cementation

101.

Limestone is a sedimentary rock. During the rock cycle, limestone is changed into marble, a metamorphic rock. The processes that act on limestone and change it into marble are

a)

weather and erosion

b)

heat and pressure

c)

compacting and cementing

d)

melting, cooling, and hardening

102.

According to the diagram, what process is shown by letter A?

a)

extrusion

b)

erosion

c)

crystallization

d)

intrusion

103.

According to the diagram, what process is shown by letter B?

a)

compaction & cementation

b)

weather & erosion

c)

heat & pressure

d)

melting

104.

If a lot of heat is applied to a rock, it will turn into

a)

magma

b)

rocks

c)

sediment

d)

metamorphic rocks

105.

Describes a group of living things that are no longer living.

a)

fossil

b)

extinct

c)

endangered

d)

dinosaur

106.

The hardened remains of a living thing that died long ago.

a)

fossil

b)

extinct

c)

endangered

d)

minerals

107.

Why are there more animal fossils than plant fossils?

a)

Animals are smaller than plants.

b)

Plants have harder bodies than animals.

c)

Plans have softer bodies than animals.

d)

Animals eat plants.

108.

Which type of fossil would look just like the body part of a once-living thing?

a)

mineral

b)

footprint

c)

cast

d)

petrified wood

109.

Which is an imprint fossil?

a)

bone

b)

a cast

c)

an animal track

d)

amber fossil

110.

Which type of rock are most fossils found?

a)

sedimentary rock

b)

metamorphic rock

c)

igneous rock

d)

fossils

111.

An animal has sharp, pointy teeth, what can we infer about this animal?

a)

The animal lived in the water

b)

The animal lived near the beach.

c)

The animal is a carnivore.

d)

The animal only ate plants.

112.

If a scientist found a fish fossil in the desert, what can they infer?

a)

An animal ate the fish.

b)

The water covered the area long ago.

c)

Today's fish looks the same

d)

The fish is endangered.

113.

How are an elephant and a mammoth alike?

a)

They are both endangered.

b)

They are both extinct.

c)

They both have tusks.

d)

They both live in a warm climate.

114.

What statement is true about fossils?

a)

All living organisms leave behind fossils.

b)

Fossils show that camels never change.

c)

Some living things have not really changed in millions of years.

d)

Plant fossils have never changed.

115.

What needs to happen FIRST for a fossil to form?

a)

A plant or animal must be covered by sediment.

b)

A plant or animal must die and decompose.

c)

Sediments fill a a mold to form a cast.

d)

An earthquake shifts the land up.

116.

Which of these animals is extinct?

a)

Camel

b)

Rhino

c)

Red Panda

d)

Saber-toothed cat

117.

Why are there a lot of fern fossils?

a)

Ferns are hard like bones.

b)

Ferns have changed little over time.

c)

Ferns were larger than all plants.

d)

Most animals ate ferns.

118.

How can you make a mold of an ancient seashell?

a)

Press the seashell in model clay.

b)

Draw the seashell

c)

Press the seashell in model clay to make a mold then fill it in.

d)

Trace the seashell

119.

This type of fossil is tree sap hardened and replaced by minerals.

a)

Petrified wood

b)

Imprint

c)

Amber

d)

Mold

120.

Turtles look much like they did millions of years ago. What can we infer about turtle fossils?

a)

They did not change over time.

b)

The turtle survived the ice age.

c)

Turtles went extinct.

d)

Turtles were never endangered.

121.

What can we infer about animals with dull teeth?

a)

They ate other animals.

b)

They ate only plants.

c)

They ate nothing.

d)

They only ate fish.

122.

Which statement is true?

a)

Layer C is the oldest

b)

Layer B is older than Layer A

c)

Layer B is older than Layer C

d)

Layer A is the youngest

123.

Which type of rock can contain fossils?

a)

Metamorphic

b)

Stereosonic

c)

Sedimentary

d)

Igneous

124.

What type of fossil is pictured here?

a)

Mold fossil

b)

Trace fossil

c)

Cast fossil

d)

Body fossil

125.

What type of fossil is pictured here?

a)

Mold fossil

b)

Trace fossil

c)

Cast fossil

d)

Body fossil

126.

What type of fossil is pictured here?

a)

Forest fossil

b)

Trace fossil

c)

Cast fossil

d)

Body fossil

127.

What type of fossil is pictured here?

a)

Mold fossil

b)

Trace fossil

c)

Cast fossil

d)

Body fossil

128.

Which conditions might lead to fossil formation? (Choose 3)

a)

Decomposition

b)

Getting buried quickly by sediment

c)

getting trapped in a tar pit

d)

getting eaten by another animal

e)

making a footprint in mud

129.

What conclusions could you make about the environment where this fossil formed?

a)

It was under water.

b)

It might have been a grassland.

c)

It was snowy and cold.

d)

It was a desert.

130.

What is a good rule to follow when determining the age of rock layers?

a)

The oldest is always on the top.

b)

The rock layers get older as you dig deeper.

c)

The layers position does not necessarily tell you about the age.

d)

The youngest is always on the bottom.

131.

Which is the most common fossil type?

a)

Body fossil

b)

Trace fossil

c)

Cast fossil

d)

Mold fossil

132.
What is the net force and the direction of movement?
a)
50 Newtons, Left
b)
50 Newtons, Right
c)
500 Newtons, RIght
d)
450 Newtons, LEft
133.
What is Newtons 1st law of motion?
a)
Force= Mass multiplied by acceleration 
b)
An object at rest stays at rest unless acted on an unbalanced force. (inertia)
c)
For every action there is a equal and opposite  re-action.
d)
law of gravity 
134.
What law of motion does this picture represent?
a)
Newtons 3rd law
b)
Newtons 4th law
c)
Newtons 1st law
d)
Newtons 2nd law 
135.
What is Newtons 2nd law of motion?
a)
Pancakes 
b)
Force= Mass multiplied by acceleration
c)
For every action there is a equal and opposite  re-action.
d)
Law of gravity 
136.
What law of motion does this picture represent?
a)
Newtons 1st law
b)
law of gravity 
c)
Newtons 4th law 
d)
Newtons 2nd law
137.
What law of motion does this picture represent?
a)
Newtons 1st law
b)
Newtons 4th law 
c)
Newtons 3rd law 
d)
Newtons 2nd law
138.
A net force of 15 N is exerted on an encyclopedia to cause it to accelerate at a rate of 5 m/s2. Determine the mass of the encyclopedia?
a)
 m = 3.0 kg
b)
m = 4.0 kg 
c)
m = 3.0 ml 
d)
m = 30.0 g
139.
Determine the accelerations that result when a 12-N net force is applied to a 3-kg object. 
a)
3 m/s
b)
4 ft/s 
c)
13 m/s
d)
4 m/s 
140.
For every action there is a equal and opposite...
a)
action
b)
movement 
c)
re-action 
d)
Newtons law of inertia 
141.
What Newtons law does this picture represent
a)
Newtons 2nd law 
b)
Law of gravity 
c)
Newtons 1st law
d)
Newtons 5th law
142.
Mass is a measure of an object's inertia. Objects with greater mass have a greater inertia; objects with less mass have less inertia.
a)
true 
b)
false 
143.
__________ is the sum of all forces acting on an object. It is capable of accelerating a mass. 
a)
velocity
b)
gravity
c)
net force
d)
distance
144.
What is the tendency of an object to resist a change in motion?
a)
coffee
b)
motion
c)
inertia
d)
gravity
145.
Which car is accelerating?
a)
A car that is not moving
b)
A  car that rounds a curve at a constant speed
c)
A car traveling  at a constant speed 
d)
A car that has a set speed of 60mph
146.
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
147.
What law is best described by inertia?
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
148.
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
149.
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
150.
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
151.
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
152.
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
153.
Acceleration is due to a force put on an objects mass. 
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
154.
Object at rest stays at rest.
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
155.
Action/Reaction
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
156.
A magician pulls a tablecloth out from under dishes and glasses on a table without disturbing them.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
157.
Rockets are launched into space using jet propulsion where exhaust accelerates out from the rocket and the rocket accelerates in an opposite direction.
a)
The Law of Inertia
b)
The Law of Acceleration
c)
The Law of Conservation of Momentum
158.
A person not paying attention while skateboarding hits a rock. The skateboard stops...they don't.
a)
The Law of Inertia
b)
The Law of Acceleration
c)
The Law of Conservation of Momentum
159.
Pushing a child on a swing is easier than pushing an adult on the same swing, because the adult has more inertia.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
160.
If a 10 kilogram object accelerates suddenly at 15 m/s^2, how much force was applied to the object?
a)
150 Newtons
b)
15 Newtons
c)
150 kilograms
d)
100 kilograms
161.
If a force of 50 Newton's was applied to an object with a mass of 500 grams, what will the object's acceleration be?
a)
10 m/s^2
b)
.1 m/s^2
c)
100 m/s^2
d)
1 m/s^2
162.
If an object was accelerating at 10 m/s^2, and a force of 10 newtons was required to accelerate it, what was the object's mass?
a)
1 kilogram
b)
10 kilograms
c)
2 kilograms
d)
5 kilograms

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