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Sterilization

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Name

4 lines
2.

Reg. No.

4 lines
3.

What do you mean by sterilization?

a)

Formulation of media

b)

Elimination of contamination

c)

Recovery of products

d)

Purification of products

4.

3. Which of the following instrument works on the principle of batch sterilization?

a)

LAF

b)

Centrifuge

c)

Autoclave

d)

Incubator

5.

The highest feasible temperature for batch sterilization is ________

a)

121°C

b)

122°C

c)

120°C

d)

124°C

6.
Plates should be incubated
a)
agar side up
b)
agar side down 
c)
it doesn't matter
7.
When streaking a plate, the lid should be
a)
placed on the bench top, top side up 
b)
placed on the bench top, inside surface up
c)
should be held in the same hand as the plate 
d)
should be held in the opposite hand from the plate
8.
When streaking a plate, the loop should be flamed
a)
At the beginning and end 
b)
 At the beginning and end and between the first 2 zones 
c)
At the beginning and end and between the second and third zone 
d)
At the beginning and end and between each zone 
9.

Which one of the following is the most appropriate disinfectant for cleaning the work area (Laminar Flow Cabinet)?

a)

saline

b)

water

c)

70%ethanol

d)

90%ethanol

10.

A student is creating fungal isolates by transferring them from an agar plate with multiple colonies to a fresh plates with single colonies. How should she dispose of the old petri dishes and her gloves that she was wearing?

a)

Place them in a biohazard bag, autoclave them, and put the labeled bag in the general waste bin.

b)

Check MSDS for correct disposal, put the waste in a correctly labeled container and dispose of it following SDS guidelines.

c)

Pour any liquids down the drain and throw any trash in the garbage can.

d)

Send the items to the school trash incinerator.

11.

When cleaning lab spill you should NEVER

a)

Pick up materials with hands

b)

Wear jewelry

c)

Start a sentence with a proposition

d)

Breathe

12.

What is the main danger associated with using an autoclave?

a)

Burns associated with touching the interior and hot equipment while unloading the autoclave.

b)

Explosion of the autoclave due to all safety valves failing and overheating of the unit.

c)

Workers being crushed by the autoclave when it falls out of wall/off of shelves.

d)

Workers accidentally becoming trapped inside of the autoclave and suffocating.

13.
The proper time and temperature for autoclaving is:
a)
350 degree for 1 hour (177 degree C)
b)
250 degree F for 15-20min (121 degree C)
c)
450 degree F for 5min (232 degree C)
d)
89 degree F for 30min (31 degree C)
14.
The proper time and temperature for dry heat sterilization is:
a)
320 degree F for 2 hours (160 degree C)
b)
250 degree F for 20-30min (121 degree C)
c)
450 degree F for 5min (232 degree C)
d)
89 degree F for 30min (31 degree C)
15.
Which type of pathogen provides the ultimate test for efficacy of sterilization?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Spore-forming
c)
Viruses
d)
Fungi
16.
The killing or removal of all microorganisms, including bacterial spores, is called:
a)
Disinfection
b)
Cleaning
c)
Sterilization
d)
Wiping
17.
The greatest occupational health care worker risk for bloodborne infection is:
a)
Hepatitis C virus
b)
HIV
c)
Hepatitis B virus
d)
Tuberculosis
18.
It is recommended that face masks be changed:
a)
Between patients
b)
Daily
c)
2x per day
d)
Twice in the morning and twice in the afternoon
19.
Because ______ are the hardiest microbes, their destruction is required before the defined parameters/levels of sterilization have been met.
a)
Hepatitis B virus
b)
Bacterial endospores
c)
Mycobacteria
d)
Vegetative bacteria
20.
One major difference between current “standard” infection control precautions and previous “Universal precautions” recommendations, is that the latter:
a)
Primarily targets protection against respiratory infections
b)
Provided specific precaution to protect against all microbial pathogens
c)
Was designed to primarily protect against bloodborne pathogens
d)
Addressed infection control precautions to eliminate opportunistic pathogen risk
21.
The oral health care team uses a steam autoclave for sterilization.  If you are responsible for purchasing spore strips to test sterility, which of the following would you order?
a)
Clostridium botulinum
b)
Bacillus stearothermophilus
c)
Clostridium tetani
d)
Bacillus anthracis
22.
Which method of sterilization is most appropriate for heat-sensitive items?
a)
Dry heat
b)
Ethylene oxide
c)
Chemical vapor
d)
Complex phenol
23.
The hygienist has just removed the instrument cassette from the autoclave.  The indicator tape on   the wrapping has turned brown.  One can be assured of which of the following?
a)
The instruments have been sterilized
b)
The instruments have been heat processed
c)
All microorganisms except spores, have been killed
d)
All microorganisms, except TB, have been killed
24.
What is one disadvantage of chemical vapor pressure sterilization?
a)
Materials must be aerated
b)
Rusting can occur
c)
Adequate ventilation is necessary
d)
Instruments are wet at the end of the cycle
25.
Which of the following behaviors associated with hand washing is recommended?
a)
Use cloth towels for drying
b)
Use a brush on hands two times a day
c)
Perform a short scrub at the beginning of each day
d)
Perform a surgical scrub at the beginning of each day
26.
For disinfection of an operatory, a hygienist should select an agent that has which of the following?
a)
 Fungicidal
b)
 Bactericidal
c)
Tuberculocidal
27.
Cationic surfactants can inactivate microbial cells by acting on the:
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Cell membrane
28.

Process of removing unwanted smell, dust, dirt, or stains from surfaces.

a)

Disinfecting

b)

Sanitizing

c)

Cleaning

d)

Contaminating

29.

Process of removing harmful bacteria using heat and water, or chemicals, or a combination of both.

a)

Disinfecting

b)

Sanitizing

c)

Cleaning

d)

Contaminating

30.

Examples include liquid and paste dishwashing formula that penetrates quickly and soften soiled dishes.

a)

Acid Cleaners

b)

Detergents

c)

Solvent Cleaners

d)

Abrasive Cleaners

31.

Use on surfaces where grease has burned on.

a)

Acid Cleaners

b)

Detergents

c)

Solvent Cleaners

d)

Abrasive Cleaners

32.

Use in removing mineral deposits and other soils that detergents cannot remove.

a)

Acid Cleaners

b)

Detergents

c)

Solvent Cleaners

d)

Abrasive Cleaners

33.

Use to remove heavy collected soil that is difficult to remove with other cleaning agents.

a)

Acid Cleaners

b)

Detergents

c)

Solvent Cleaners

d)

Abrasive Cleaners

34.

Which of the following is approved Chemical Sanitizer?

a)
b)
c)
d)
35.

Which of the following is approved Chemical Sanitizer aside from Quaternary Ammonium?

a)
b)
c)
d)
36.

Describes the Presence of too little sanitizer is not enough to reduce harmful microorganisms.

a)

Contact Time

b)

Concentration

c)

Temperature

d)

Solubility

37.

Describes the condition of a water solution where chemical sanitizer will best work effectively.

a)

Contact Time

b)

Concentration

c)

Temperature

d)

Solubility

38.

Pertains to recommended period of exposure of a kitchen tool for the effectiveness of a chemical sanitizer.

a)

Contact Time

b)

Concentration

c)

Temperature

d)

Solubility

39.

The activity above shows what kind of removing dirt?

a)

Sanitizing

b)

Disinfecting

c)

Cleaning

d)

Steaming

40.

The activity above shows what kind of removing dirt?

a)

Sanitizing

b)

Disinfecting

c)

Cleaning

d)

Electrifrying

41.

The activity above shows what kind of pre-dishwashing method?

a)

Rinse

b)

Sanitize

c)

Wash

d)

Scrapping

42.

The activity above shows what kind of post-dishwashing method?

a)

Rinse

b)

Air Drying

c)

Wash

d)

Sanitize

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