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Environmental Science S2 Final Exam Review 2022

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 3hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of pollution is depicted in the image.

a)

Primary

b)

Point Source

c)

Nonpoint Source

d)

Secondary

2.

Waterborne pathogens often come from

a)

untreated human and animal waste

b)

acid mine drainage

c)

excess nitrogen and phosphorous

d)

storm drains

3.

Due to biomagnification

a)

Animals accumulate toxins in their fatty tissues over the course of their lives

b)

Concentrations of toxins increase exponentially as you go up the food chain

c)

Producers often have the highest levels of toxins

d)

Concentrations of chemicals in the water are increased as animals excrete waste

4.

Which of the following is most effectively removed by a water treatment plant?

a)

Pharmaceuticals

b)

Industrial Waste

c)

Pesticides

d)

Biological material

5.

Acid rain is formed when _____________ & __________ interact in the atmosphere

a)

carbon monoxide; sulfur dioxide

b)

ozone; nitrous oxides

c)

sulfur dioxide; nitrous oxides

d)

carbon dioxide; nitrous oxides

6.
Amount of a toxic material per unit of body weight of test animals that kills half the test population in a certain time
a)

Lethal Dose

b)

MCL

c)
LD50
d)

ED50

7.

What is the definition of risk?

a)

The real possibility of suffering harm or loss

b)

The probability that 50% of the test subjects will suffer sublethal effects

c)

The perceived possibility of danger

d)

The probability that 50% of the test subjects will suffer lethal effects

8.
What is the LD-50 for Toxin B?
a)
10 mg
b)

60 mg

c)
25 mg
d)
50 mg
9.

The process of using statistical methods to estimate how much harm a particular hazard can cause to human health or to the environment.

a)

Risk management

b)

Risk development

c)

Risk assessment

d)

Risk prevention

10.

Revolves around the idea of when there is substantial preliminary evidence that an activity, technology, or chemical can harm humans, other organisms, or the environment, we should take more precautionary measures to prevent or reduce such harm, rather than waiting on more conclusive scientific evidence.

a)

Hazards principle

b)

Toxicity principle

c)

Hypothesis principle

d)

Precautionary principle

11.

Which of the following is the most lethal to humans in the smallest amount?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Bleach

c)

Lorchel mushroom

d)

Arsenic

12.

Which of the following is true of point source pollution?

a)

Type of contaminant and location are usually unknown

b)

Individual contributions may be small, but cumulative effects may be significant

c)

Results from the chemical reactions of other pollutants in water

d)

Covered by the Clean Water Act for surface water

13.

Which of the following is the safest type of fish to eat from this section of the Menominee River? (between the Menominee Dam and Green Bay)

a)

Carp

b)

Black Crappie over 9"

c)

Sunfish

d)

Northern Pike

14.

Which of the following is generally true about fish in the Menominee River?

a)

Smaller fish are safer to eat than larger fish

b)

Bluegill contain high concentrations of PCBs

c)

Northern Pike are among the safest fish to eat

d)

All fish contain dangerously high levels of mercury, and should not be eaten.

15.
Which of the following is NOT used as a tertiary treatment to sanitize wastewater?
a)
Chlorine
b)
Ozone
c)
UV light
d)

"good" bacteria

16.
DDT is a POP (Persistent Organic Pesticide) that can act as an endocrine disruptor.  Which would it have the greatest effect on?
a)
Producers
b)
Primary Consumers
c)
Secondary Consumers
d)

Tertiary Consumers

17.

Presence of fecal coliform bacteria suggests that

a)

a factory polluted the river

b)

a nearby treatment plant added chlorine to the waste water

c)

the water is safe for drinking

d)

untreated animal waste contaminated the water

18.

Which of the following is a point-source pollutant?

a)

Sediment loading from erosion

b)

Runoff of pesticides from croplands

c)

Animal wastes from feedlots

d)

Fertilizer runoff from urban areas

e)

A sewage treatment plant effluent pipe

19.
Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution
a)
Effluent from a sewage treatment plant
b)
BP refiner in Indiana discharging ammonia in a river.
c)
Runoff of pesticides from regional farms into the Illinois River.
d)
Hot water discharges from a nuclear power plant.
20.

What is the danger in eating large fish like tuna and shark?

a)

Since they are high on the food chain they may contain high levels toxins due to bioaccumulation

b)

Since they are low on the food chain they may contain high levels toxins due to biomagnification

c)

Since they are high on the food chain they may contain high levels toxins due to biomagnification

d)

Since they are low on the food chain they may contain high levels toxins due to bioaccumulation

21.
What is it called when a persistent pollutant (like mercury or PCBs) builds up in the tissues of an organism as they continue to eat something that contains the pollutant
a)
Subsidence
b)
Biomagnification
c)
Tragedy of the commons
d)
Bioaccumulation
22.

Primary wastewater treatment

a)

prevents toxic chemicals from reaching secondary treatment.

b)

removes physical objects/materials.

c)

involves chemicals like chlorine.

d)

removes most bacteria.

23.
What gas must be maintained at precise levels in the aeration tank?
a)
CO2
b)
O2
c)
H2
d)
CO
24.
Bacteria are beneficial to wastewater treatment because
a)
they naturally break down organic matter
b)
they help solid material to settle out of the wastewater
c)
the nutrients produced are beneficial to the treated water
d)
they aren't beneficial
25.

What is a Septic Tank?

a)

A place where wastewater flows through screens to catch large particles.

b)

An underground tank that contains bacteria that treats wastewater.

c)

A place in which the wastewater is filtered through a bed of gravel that is covered with colonies of bacteria.

d)

A tank in a wastewater treatment facility that uses chemicals to kill bacteria.

26.
Legislation that supports the “protection and propagation of fish, shellfish, and wildlife and recreation in and on the water” by maintaining and, when necessary, restoring the chemical, physical, and biological properties of surface waters.
a)
Clean Water Act
b)
Safe Drinking Water Act
c)

Oil Spill Prevention and Liability Act

d)

Superfund Act

27.
Water produced by livestock operations and human activities, including human sewage from toilets and gray water from bathing and washing of clothes and dishes.
a)
Wastewater
b)
leach feild
c)
septage
d)
sludge 
28.

The measure of safe drinking water established by the EPA under the Safe Drinking Water Act.

a)

Phosphate and Nitrate Levels

b)
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
c)
Maximum Contaminant Level (MCL)
d)

Turbidity

29.
A component of a septic system, made up of underground pipes laid out below the surface of the ground.
a)
Septic system
b)
Septic tank
c)
leach field
d)
all of these
30.

What is the LD100 of this chemical?

a)

5 mg

b)

20 mg

c)

50 mg

d)

32 mg

31.

What is the safe human dose of this chemical?

a)

.02 mg

b)

20 mg

c)

5 mg

d)

0 mg

32.

How did city officials change the water supply for the city of Flint in the spring of 2014?

a)

Switched FROM Detroit Water supply (Lake Huron) to the Flint River

b)

Switched FROM the Flint River to the Detroit Water supply (Lake Huron)

c)

Switched FROM the Detroit River to the Flint River

d)

Switched FROM the Flint River to the Detroit River

33.

When the residents of Flint began complaining about the water, what was the initial response of those in charge?

a)

Created a committee to look into the problem

b)

Switched back to the Detroit water

c)

Urged residents to use bottled water

d)

Insisted the water was fine and safe

34.

Why was lead leaching into the water in Flint?

a)

The city replaced PVC pipes with lead in order to save money

b)

Corrosive contaminants in the river water wore away the protective layer inside the lead lead pipes

c)

The city accidentally added the wrong chemicals to the drinking water

d)

Lead-rich chemical waste dumped underground migrated into the water supply

35.

Which of the following is true of Love Canal and NOT Hinkley, CA?

a)

The pollutant contaminated the groundwater

b)

Contaminated homes were purchased and families relocated

c)

EPA hostages were taken in an act of defiance

d)

The population was poor

36.

Refers to the way in which neighborhoods, populated by people of color and of low income, are burdened with a disproportionate number of hazards, including toxic waste facilities, garbage dumps, pollution and foul odors that lower the quality of life.

a)

Environmental Racism

b)

Urban blight

c)

Gentrification

d)

Targeted Pollution

37.

Very slight increases in the acidity of seawater stresses organisms that

a)

prefer a low pH

b)

make shells and exoskeletons out of calcium carbonate

c)

migrate over long distances

d)

live in the aphotic zone where light cannot reach

38.

Which of the following is NOT true concerning persistent chemicals?

a)

Break down quickly and easily

b)

Can be bioaccumulated

c)

Don't need to be reapplied often

d)

Are at high risk of being biomagnified

39.

In which of the following case studies were the chemicals cleaned up?

a)

Hinkley, CA

b)

Love Canal

c)

Camp Lejeune

d)

None of them

40.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an area easily polluted without repercussions?

a)

Affluent

b)

Poor

c)

Mostly Minorities

d)

Military Base

41.

A mineral that are formed in thin jagged crystalline fibers

a)

Lead

b)
Asbestos
c)
Radon
d)

Mercury

42.
Which of the following substances is an colorless, odorless, tasteless, radioactive gas?
a)
carbon monoxide
b)
radon
c)
ozone
d)
asbestos
43.
Hydrocarbons such as gasoline, solvents, paints, finger nail polish & thinners that vaporize easily.
a)
Sulfur Oxides
b)
Nitrogen Oxides
c)

VOCs

d)
Mercury
44.
Carbon monoxide
a)
increases lung cancer rates
b)
leads to the formation of photochemical smog
c)
is most problematic in rural areas
d)

is produced by combustion

45.

Which of the following indoor air pollutants results in dizziness, headaches, and loss of oxygen to the brain?

a)

Carbon monoxide

b)

Asbestos

c)

Radon-222

d)

Particulate matter

46.

Which indoor air pollutant is produced by the decay of uranium in bedrock & is a leading cause of lung cancer?

a)

Formaldehyde

b)

Radon

c)

Carbon monoxide

d)

Sulfur dioxide

47.

Which of the following is TRUE about particulate matter? You may select more than one.

a)

PM 2.5 is the most harmful

b)

PM 10 is so small it can be absorbed directly into your bloodstream

c)

PM can be produced by coal & oil combustion & construction sites.

d)

PM is a primary pollutant involved in the formation of photochemical smog.

48.

Volatile organic compounds

a)

are tiny particles of liquid or solid matter

b)

are produced by chemical interactions between sulfur and oxygen

c)

are an odorless, colorless poisonous gas

d)

are organic chemicals that form toxic fumes

49.

Which device helps reduce vehicle emissions?

a)

electrostatic precipitator

b)

catalytic converter

c)

scrubber

d)

baghouse filter

50.

Long term effects of air pollution

a)

headache, eye irritation, coughing, bronchitis

b)

emphysema, lung cancer, heart disease

c)

headaches, high blood pressure, loss of smell

d)

Nausea, dizziness, sore throat

51.

Short term effects of air pollution

a)

headache, eye irritation, coughing, bronchitis

b)

emphysema, lung cancer, heart disease

c)

causes stress, high blood pressure, heart attacks

d)

lung cancer, heart disease, nausea

52.

Which indoor air pollutant would be produced from burning wood?

a)

asbestos

b)

formaldehyde

c)

VOCs

d)

PM

53.

Which indoor air pollutant was used in insulation and fire resistant building materials?

a)

asbestos

b)

formaldehyde

c)

carbon monoxide

d)

radon

54.

What is the difference between primary and secondary pollutants? Choose all correct answers.

a)

Secondary pollutants form when primary pollutants react with each other or naturally occurring elements.

b)

Primary pollutants are put directly into the air by humans.

c)

Primary pollutants include things like ground level ozone from vehicle emissions and UV rays.

d)

Secondary pollutants include things like carbon monoxide, particulate matter, and VOCs.

55.

Chemical reactions involving sunlight, air, car exhaust, and ozone cause which of the following to form?

a)

primary pollutants

b)

CFCs

c)

smog

d)

acid rain

56.

Radon is usually found in this location in your home.

a)

attic

b)

basement

c)

bathroom

d)

kitchen

57.
The ozone layer protects us from
a)
UV rays
b)
CFCs
c)
Increased atmospheric heat
d)
Decreased atmospheric heat
58.

Where is the "GOOD" ozone located?

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

59.

A metallic element that can cause brain damage.

a)
Lead
b)

Zinc

c)

Barium

d)

Iron

60.
A colorless, odorless gas that decreases the blood's ability to carry oxygen.  Can cause faintness, death.
a)
Nitrogen oxides
b)
Ground-level ozone
c)
Carbon monoxide
d)
Sulfur dioxide
61.

What pollution control device removes particulate matter (PM) from industry smokestacks?

a)

Catalytic Converters

b)

Electrostatic Precipitators

c)

Scrubbers

62.
The breakdown of stratospheric ozone
I. can originate from the emission of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
II. is catalyzed through a free chlorine (Cl) atom.
III. prevents UV rays from reaching the earth’s surface.
a)
I only
b)
III only
c)
I,&II
d)
I,II,& III
63.
Which agreement allowed for a reduction, and eventual elimination, of CFC production and use?
a)
Montreal Protoccol
b)
Kyoto Protoccol
c)
Paris Agreement
d)
Yo MaMa
64.
How do CFCs affect ozone production?
a)
UV radiation frees a chlorine atom, which breaks down ozone.
b)
Infrared radiation frees a chlorine atom, which breaks down ozone.
c)
UV radiation frees a fluorine atom, which breaks down ozone.
d)
Infrared radiation frees a chlorine atom, which breaks down ozone.
65.
Which of these sets of three items produce CFCs
a)
cars, factories, and cardboard
b)
spray cans, cardboard, insulation
c)
spray cans, refrigerant, cardboard
d)
spray cans, refrigerant, insulation
66.

Ozone holes appear in polar regions during springtime when ozone-destroying

a)

chlorine atoms are released from polar stratospheric clouds

b)

chlorine atoms are captured by polar stratospheric clouds

c)

CFCs are synthesized in polar stratospheric clouds

d)

CFCs magnify ultraviolet light

67.

The location where the most ozone depletion occurs.

a)

Antarctica

b)

The Arctic

c)

The Equator

d)

Greenland

68.

Which of the following DOES NOT cause cancer?

a)

Radon

b)

Asbestos

c)

Carbon Monoxide

d)

Tobacco Smoke

69.

Earth's atmosphere is mostly

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Carbon Monoxide

70.

This PM control method is effective but requires a large amount of energy.

a)

Baghouse Filter

b)

Scrubber

c)

Electrostatic Precipitator

d)

Catalytic Converter

71.

Which one requires major renovations that are expensive and must be carried out by professionals in full protective equipment?

a)

Radon

b)

Asbestos

c)

VOCs

d)

Formaldehyde

72.

Ground-level ozone can become photochemical smog if this is present.

a)

CO2

b)

SOx

c)

NOx

d)

VOCs

73.

Which of the following is NOT a downside of scrubbers?

a)

They use a considerable amount of water.

b)

They move pollution from the air to water but don't get rid of it.

c)

They only reduce PM pollution but nothing else.

d)

They are expensive.

74.

Which describes the trend in the ozone layer?

a)

Decreasing until the 80's then leveling off then actually increasing

b)

Decreasing since the mid 70's

c)

Decreasing since the start of the industrial revolution then stopping after the Clean Air Act

d)

Decreasing but predicted to level off and repair itself in the next century after CFCs are gone.

75.

Which is NOT true of polar stratospheric clouds?

a)

They form inside the polar vortex

b)

CFCs are converted into chlorine gas there

c)

Ozone is destroyed during the dark winter months there

d)

They form over the north and south poles

76.

What is leachate?

a)

Water that collects contaminants as it drains through a landfill.

b)

Type of organism that helps to break down compost in a landfill.

c)

The bottom layer of covering in a landfill.

d)

The system to capture methane before it vents into the atmosphere.

77.

Which is NOT an important component of composting?

a)

moisture

b)

oxygen

c)

phosphorous

d)

carbon

78.

What is the term for a place where trash is simply piled up?

a)

open dump

b)

sanitary landfill

c)

municipal solid waste

d)

leachate

79.

How can incinerators help the waste problem?

a)

Incinerators reduce air pollution

b)

Incinerators remove toxins from wastes

c)

Incinerators recycle biodegradable wastes

d)

Incinerators decrease the volume of trash

80.

Which part of a sanitary landfill is designed to prevent contamination of groundwater?

a)

Methane recovery system

b)

Leachate

c)

Alternating layers of soil and waste

d)

Plastic or clay liner

81.

What would be the consequences if leachate was to leak out of a landfill?

a)

Surface water could become contaminated

b)

Groundwater could become contaminated

c)

Soil could become contaminated

d)

All of these are correct

82.

Which greenhouse gas is produced by the microbes in landfills?

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

carbon monoxide

d)

methane

83.

Which soil is best to have under a landfill?

a)

sand

b)

silt

c)

clay

d)

loam

84.
Green materials are high in _________ and brown materials are high in ___________.
a)
carbon, nitrogen
b)
nitrogen, carbon
c)
carbon, oxygen
d)
oxygen, carbon
85.
Composting occurs
a)
within hours
b)
within a few days
c)
over an extended period of time
d)
only when you turn the pile
86.

The following is an example of reducing:

a)

bringing newspapers to a recycling center.

b)

using plastic bags as small garbage bags.

c)

designing packaging that uses less material.

d)

all of these are good examples of reducing.

87.
Which item should you NOT put in your compost pile?
a)
food scraps
b)
autumn leaves
c)
wood chips
d)
plastic
88.
Which of the following are problems associated with landfills?
a)
source reduction and composting
b)
surface improvement and leachate
c)
leachate and methane production
d)
all of the above
89.
Which of the following practices would help achieve source reduction?
a)
more consumption
b)
increased use of plastics
c)
more packaging
d)
designing goods that last longer
90.

The material that makes up the highest proportion of MSW is

a)

plastic

b)

rubber, leather and textiles

c)

paper products

d)

food

91.
The correct order of the three R's is
a)
Reduce, Recycle, Reuse
b)
Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
c)
Recycle, Reuse, Reduce
d)
Recycle, Reduce, Reuse
92.
Which is NOT a form of source reduction?
a)
printing double-sided instead of single-sided
b)
purchasing digital versions of music instead of CD's
c)
replacing plastic mugs with disposable paper cups
d)
designing a smaller box for packaging
93.
Which material usually used closed-loop recycling?
a)
aluminum
b)
glass
c)
paper
d)
plastic
94.
For composting to work effectively, the compost
a)
must be kept very wet
b)
must be mixed
c)
must be anaerobic 
d)
must be protected from high temperatures
95.
Incineration of waste is primarily used
a)
to generate heat or electricity
b)
to reduce waste volume and mass
c)
to eliminate heavy metals
d)
when there is no other option
96.

"Not in my backyard!" describes

a)

the fact that materials cannot be easily incinerated

b)

the costs associated with the use of incineration

c)

an attitude about placement of landfills and incinerators

d)

attempts to develop better landfills

97.

A cap on a landfill...

a)

reduces leachate

b)

attracts pests

c)

increases methane production

d)

must be permeable to water

98.

Which of the following would be ideal in deciding on a site for a new landfill?

a)

very far away from the city

b)

sandy soil

c)

close to water

d)

an intermediate distance from the city

99.

Incineration is often favored in regions where

a)

the soil is rich in clay.

b)

land is expensive.

c)

there is less public land.

d)

wilderness areas have been established.

100.

During open loop recycling, plastic bottles would likely become

a)

metal cans

b)

carpet fibers

c)

Tupperware containers

d)

more plastic bottles

101.

As _____ increases, the amount of waste per capita also increases.

a)

wealth

b)

education

c)

distance from the city

d)

population size

102.

_____ and _____ are about keeping materials in the waste stream for as long as possible.

a)

reusing and reducing

b)

reducing and recycling

c)

reusing and recycling

d)

minimizing and recycling

103.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of composting?

a)

Reducing landfill methane emissions

b)

Reducing landfill leachate

c)

Extending the longevity of a landfill

d)

Much less expensive than traditional waste collection

104.

The largest source of municipal solid waste is/are

a)

food and yard waste

b)

containers and packaging

c)

durable goods

d)

nondurable goods

105.

As countries like China and India become more developed, we'd expect their per capita waste generation to

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

d)

fluctuate with global markets

106.

T/F: The majority of recyclable materials are recycled.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

T/F: Recycling metal uses less energy than mining for new metal.

a)

True

b)

False

108.

T/F: As long as a landfill has a liner it is safe to dispose of hazardous waste there.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

T/F: Landfills and incinerators are often located near poor neighborhoods.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

Which of the following is TRUE of tipping fees? Check all that apply.

a)

They help pay for waste disposal costs.

b)

They are more expensive in rural areas.

c)

They can help prevent illegal dumping.

d)

They encourage the three R's

111.

What is a advantage of oil energy?

a)

Cleaner burning than natural gas

b)

Renewable

c)

High energy density

d)

Low emissions

112.

Wind energy

a)

is less expensive than fossil fuels

b)

has not been found to harm wildlife

c)

is non-renewable

d)

is ultimately powered by the sun

113.

Hydropower...

a)

is second only to biomass in terms of green energy production

b)

can be built in any location were there is water

c)

has low construction costs

d)

has been growing exponentially over the past decade

114.

Which is an advantage of using photovoltaics?

a)

No loss of energy through transmission because it is produced and used in the same location.

b)

They can work on cloudy days with the same efficiency as solar panels.

c)

They are able to use moonlight to produce electricity so they even work at night.

d)

They are the most inexpensive type of renewable energy.

115.
Oil, Natural Gas, Nuclear, Coal - What do these items have in common?
a)
They are examples of inexhaustible energy resources.
b)
They are examples of renewable energy resources.
c)
They are examples of energy resources that do not cause pollution.
d)
They are examples of nonrenewable energy resources.
116.

Which example is a potentially renewable resource, but not at the rate that we use it?

a)

biomass

b)

Wind

c)

Solar

d)

Uranium (Nuclear)

117.

What is one disadvantage of coal?

a)

Coal produces large quantities of air pollution like CO2.

b)

There isn't a lot of coal left which makes it expensive.

c)

It has a low energy density.

d)

We must rely on foreign countries for our coal supply.

118.

What is one disadvantage of renewable energy?

a)

Electricity and power could become much cheaper.

b)

Third world countries could have affordable energy.

c)

Many people could become energy independent.

d)

Most sources are expensive to get started.

119.

What is one disadvantage of using hydropower?

a)

Hydropower is a renewable energy resource. There are no disadvantages.

b)

The power is used as electricity to power large buildings instead of homes.

c)

Building dams can damage natural wildlife and water systems like lakes and rivers.

d)

Most of the time there isn't enough water power to create electricity.

120.

What can you infer about fossil fuels from their name?

a)

They emit harmful gases when burned.

b)

They've been buried in the earth's crust for millions of years.

c)

They're the most abundant energy source on the planet.

d)

They're used to make gasoline.

121.

Which of these is an example of biomass energy?

a)

A coal-burning generator

b)

A wood-burning stove

c)

A gasoline-burning automobile

d)

An automobile that operates on fuel cells

122.

How is natural gas different from coal?

a)

Natural gas is a nondepletable resource; coal is a fossil fuel.

b)

Natural gas is cleaner burning than coal.

c)

Coal is a form of petroleum; natural gas is emitted by volcanoes.

d)

Coal is a fossil fuel; natural gas is a potentially renewable resource

123.

Which of these is an advantage of fossil fuels?

a)

You can extract them without complicated machinery.

b)

They are relatively inexpensive to produce.

c)

Burning them does not have any negative side effects.

d)

There is an unlimited supply of them.

124.

What type of alcohol is a common biofuel?

a)

methanol

b)

isopropyl

c)

octane

d)

ethanol

125.

What process is used to make ethanol?

a)

Desalination

b)

Extraction

c)

Distillation

d)

Reverse Osmosis

126.

Most ethanol in the U.S. is made from

a)

Corn

b)

Soy

c)

Jatropha

d)

Palm

127.

What is one problem with run-of-the-river hydroelectricity?

a)

Displacement of people

b)

Greenhouse gas emissions

c)

Breeding ground for disease

d)

Low power output

128.

What is the main source of tidal energy?

a)

The gravitational pull of the moon

b)

Wind

c)

Temperature

d)

Air pressure

129.

Which of the following are nondepletable resources?

a)

Nuclear

b)

Biofuels

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Geothermal

130.

Approximately what percent of energy in the U.S. comes from renewable sources?

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

Less than 10%

d)

Less than 1%

131.

Which of the following sources of energy ultimately comes from the sun?

a)

Wind

b)

Nuclear

c)

Geothermal

d)

Tidal

132.

Biomass is __________________, meaning it only releases the carbon that it has already absorbed from the atmosphere.

a)

carbon-free

b)

carbon neutral

c)

carbon combustion

d)

carbon sequestering

133.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good biofuel?

a)

Low cost

b)

Doesn't require pesticides or fertilizer

c)

Is a crop that can also be used for food if needed

d)

Contains oily seeds, fruit, or residues

134.

Which of the following is NOT a potential source of biodiesel?

a)

Corn oil

b)

Petroleum

c)

Algae

d)

Palm oil

135.

What did this man invent?

a)

Biodiesel

b)

Ford Model T

c)

Ethanol

d)

Diesel engine

136.

Which is not a risk to subsurface miners?

a)

Mine collapse

b)

Disease from inhaling coal dust

c)

Landslides of loose soil

d)

Methane explosions

137.

Which type of mining is associated with disturbing more land?

a)

Surface mining

b)

Subsurface mining

c)

Ocean mining

d)

Stream & river mining

138.

In the Northern Hemisphere, which side of the house would you want your windows on in a passive solar heating system?

a)

North

b)

East

c)

South

d)

West

139.

These are...

a)

part of a "power tower" system

b)

parabolic photovoltaic cells

c)

concentrating solar thermal collectors

d)

satellite dishes

140.

What is this?

a)

a CST solar system

b)

a photovoltaic system

c)

a passive solar system

d)

a system for heating water

141.

______________ are promising because they don't use land and wind is plentiful and reliable there.

a)

Onshore wind farms

b)

Offshore wind farms

c)

Indoor wind farms

d)

Underwater wind farms

142.

Which of the following is a drawback of wind but not solar?

a)

Not consistent

b)

Expensive

c)

Noise pollution

d)

Energy storage is limited/expensive

143.
Which of these is a disadvantage of hydrogen fuel cells
a)

produces harmful pollution

b)
expensive and flammable
c)

inefficient

d)

can only be used in lightweight vehicles

144.

What is produced by a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell?

a)

Water and Carbon Dioxide

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Water

d)

Carbon Monoxide

145.
What type of energy is being produced when a dam is placed across a river and water is released to turn a turbine that produces electricity?
a)

Tidal

b)

Run of the river

c)

Hydraulic

d)

Impoundment

146.

What is the key drawback of Geothermal energy today?

a)

Limited locations

b)

Nonrenewable

c)

Mining it is destructive

d)

Produces energy too slowly

147.

Which of the following is NOT true about fracking?

a)

It is used to access natural gas deposits

b)

It uses water, sand and chemicals to break up shale formations

c)

It is regulated by the Clean Water Act, which limits contamination

d)

The U.S. is rich in natural gas fracking opportunities

148.

What has been found to leak into local water supply as a result of fracking?

a)

Ethane

b)

Toxic Chemicals

c)

Nitrogen Oxide

d)

Propane

149.

The world’s top consumer of crude oil is_____

a)

United States

b)

China

c)

Saudi Arabia

d)

Canada

150.

At a refinery, crude oil is _____.

a)

pumped up from underground deposits

b)

burned to help produce electricity

c)

boiled to separate out various components

d)

distributed for use as gasoline

e)

purified to remove pollutants

151.

Which pollutant associated with coal use is known to contribute to acid rain?

a)

coal ash

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

methane

d)

sulfur dioxide

152.

______ has a high EROEI but ______ has a low EROEI.

a)

coal, tar sand oil

b)

natural gas, geothermal

c)

wind, solar

d)

ethanol, oil

153.

Which action would most likely reduce concerns about how strip mining can harm the environment?

a)

Restrict mining operations to rural areas

b)

Reclaim the ecosystem after mining

c)

Increase the usage of the products being mined

d)

Decrease the amount of labor needed in the mines

154.

What is a disadvantage associated with many renewable or alternative energy sources?

a)

cost

b)

pollution

c)

waste

d)

radiation

155.

Which of the following energy types is not a fossil fuel?

a)

Methane

b)

Magma

c)

Petroleum

d)

Bitumen