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Mock Exam 1

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The doctor writes an order for the client, 39 year old Kim Smith, to have metoprolol PO each morning for her hypertension. What is missing from this order? (Select all that apply)

a)

Dose

b)

Time

c)

Medication

d)

Patient Name

e)

Route

2.

The client is receiving two different medications together. The effect of these medications when given together is less than the sum of the effects of each drug given alone. What term is used to identify this principle?

a)

Bioequivalent

b)

Antagonist

c)

Synergistic

d)

Steady State

3.

Which statement about parenteral drugs is true?

a)

Absorption of parenteral drugs occurs in the digestive tract

b)

Absorption of parenteral drugs is easiest when the stomach is empty

c)

Parenteral drugs are given orally

d)

Parenteral drugs bypass the first-pass effect

4.

A client arrives status post MVC with massive blood loss and multiple traumatic fractures. Client is decompensating quickly with a BP of 76/42 and HR 61. Which system do we need to activate with our drugs?

a)

Sympathetic Nervous System

b)

Autonomic Nervous System

c)

Central Nervous System

d)

Parasympathetic Nervous System

5.

An antibiotic is to be given via IV piggyback every 12 hours to a client. At which time would the nurse schedule a blood sample to be drawn to determine the trough level when the drug is being administered at 2:00PM?

a)

0130

b)

0230

c)

1500

d)

2000

6.

You know the nursing student understands the concept of IV drugs in relation to bioavailability, if they say…

a)

The bioavailability is 75%

b)

Oral drugs are relatively more bioavailable than IV drugs

c)

Bioavailability of IV drugs is 100%

d)

IV drugs are non-bioavailable

7.

The student nurse is aware that the following affect drug bioavailability. (Select all that apply)

a)

Drug form

b)

Gastric motility

c)

Route of administration

d)

Changes in liver function

e)

Right patient

8.

Sulbactam intensifies the action of ampicillin and this causes stronger therapeutic effects. You understand this interaction as

a)

Synergism

b)

Additive effects

c)

Antagonism

d)

Maximal efficacy

9.

Trough levels are drawn before the next dose of drug is administered.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

A diseased kidney majorly affects drug metabolism.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Complete the following conversions.

2 tsp = _____ mL

1 oz = _____ mL

1 L = _____ mL

1 kg = _____ g

1 kg = _____ lbs

1 Tbsp = _____ mL

1 cup = _____ oz

1 cup = _____ mL

Tyler your answer with a comma and a space in between each (ex: 2, 4,, 5, etc)

(a)  

12.

You are preparing to administer warfarin to a client. What are some of the rights of administration that you need to check? (Select all that apply)

a)

Right dose

b)

Right doctor

c)

Right route

d)

Right room number

e)

Right documentation

13.

Which of the following drug administration routes would be affected by the first-pass effect? (Select all that apply.)

a)

IV Push Injection

b)

Tablet

c)

Elixir

d)

IM Injection

e)

Capsule

14.

A client says “I guess I don’t need to tell the doctor about my vitamins because they are not actual medications”. What is your response?

a)

Vitamins are supplements. They are not considered drugs.

b)

It is wrong for non-health workers to make such assumptions

c)

Vitamins and all forms of supplements are medications and it is important you notify your HCP about them.

d)

All are correct

15.

The nurse is asking the client about medications he is on and every known drug allergy. Which step in the nursing process is the nurse applying to safe drug administration?

a)

Nursing diagnosis/problem

b)

Medication history

c)

Assessment

d)

Evaluation

16.

A nurse is administering medication to four clients. The nurse should identify which of the following nursing actions as a part of the evaluation phase of the nursing process?

a)

Collecting information about a client’s pain level following administration of a narcotic

b)

Taking the BP of a client before administering an antihypertensive medication

c)

Lowering the level of a client’s bed before administering a benzodiazepine medication

d)

Instructing the client to rinse their mouth following administration of an inhaled corticosteroid

17.

A nurse if transcribing medication prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following is the appropriate way for the nurse to record medications including a decimal point?

a)

.4 mL

b)

0.6 mL

c)

8.0 mL

d)

125.0 mL

18.

A nurse is preparing to administer sucralfate 1g PO twice daily to a client. Available is sucralfate 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest half tablet. Do not put anything in the blank but the number.)

(a)  

19.

The nurse administers a medication to the wrong client. Which is the priority nursing action following this error?

a)

Assess the client for an adverse reaction and report if an adverse event occurs

b)

Document the medication error. No further action is required.

c)

Report the error and document the medication on the client’s chart

d)

Assess the client. Notify the provider and document the error on an incident report

20.

Which technique would be most appropriate to use when the nurse is teaching a patient with a language barrier?

a)

Obtain an interpreter who can speak in the patient's native language for teaching sessions

b)

Use detailed explanations, speaking slowly and clearly

c)

Assume that the patient understands the information presented if the patient has no questions

d)

Provide only written instructions

21.

Order: oxacillin 450 mg IM

Reconstitution: 250 mg/1.5 mL

 

How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth. Do not put anything else in the blank except the number.)

(a)  

22.

A nurse is writing down a prescription being relayed over the telephone and it reads “acetaminophen two tablets PO, every 6 hours as needed for fever.” Which part of the order does the nurse ask the health care provider to clarify?

a)

Name

b)

Dosage

c)

Frequency

d)

Route

23.

When a new patient is transferred from one unit of the hospital to another, which action is the most useful in preventing medication errors?

a)

Completing a medication reconciliation between units

b)

Participating in a verbal report from the transferring nurse

c)

Asking the patient which medications they received in the previous unit

d)

Asking the primary care provider to rewrite all prescriptions upon transfer

24.

The nurse administers 500 mg of aspirin at 1900. The drug has a half life of 3 hours. Which time would half the medication be eliminated from the patient’s system?

a)

0700

b)

2200

c)

0100

d)

1000

25.

The nurse is educating a patient about the precautions for using enteric-coated tablets. Which statement made by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

“I can take half a tablet when required”

b)

“I can drink more fluids after taking the medicine”

c)

“I should be patient when waiting for the therapeutic effect”

d)

“I should avoid taking any other medications before the drug action”

26.

The therapeutic blood level range for an antibiotic is 4 to 10 mcg/mL. Which should the nurse conclude when the lab test indicates a peak level of 12 mcg/mL?

a)

Drug dose is safe.

b)

Drug dose is subtherapeutic.

c)

Patient is at risk for drug toxicity.

d)

Client’s next dose of the drug should be given over a longer period of time.

27.

An antibiotic is to be given at 0800 via IV piggyback every 12 hours to a patient. At which time would the nurse schedule a blood sample to be drawn to determine the peak level?

a)

1030

b)

1200

c)

1530

d)

0830

28.

A client has an order for odansetron 300 mg PO BID. The client has the liquid medication that has 150 mg/2.5mL. She states that she takes her medication with her teaspoon measuring spoons. How many teaspoons should you educate the client to take per dose?

a)

1 tsp

b)

2 tsp

c)

0.5 tsp

d)

2.5 tsp

29.

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.125 mg PO at 8:15am. At which of the following times should the nurse administer the medication?

a)

1500

b)

0815

c)

1700

d)

0930

30.

 A nurse is preparing to administer diphenhydramine 75 mg PO every 6 hrs. Available is diphenhydramine syrup 12.5 mg/5 mL. How many tsp should the nurse administer per dose? (Type nothing but numbers in the space)

(a)  

31.

 A nurse is preparing to administer cephalexin 0.125 g PO every 6 hr. Available is cephalexin 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest half tablet. Type nothing except the number in the space below.)

(a)  

32.

A nurse is caring for a client who states that his provider told him he is at risk for anaphylaxis following administration of amoxicillin and that he does not understand what this means. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

a)

“Anaphylaxis is a predictable and often unavoidable secondary effect that can occur at a usual therapeutic dose.”

b)

“Anaphylaxis will cause you to experience withdrawal symptoms when you discontinue taking the medication.”

c)

“Anaphylaxis is an unusual response that can occur due to an inherited predisposition.”

d)

“Anaphylaxis is a severe hypersensitivity or allergic reaction that is life-threatening.”

33.

A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a newly admitted client. The nurse should identify which of the following actions as a part of the assessment phase of the nursing process?

a)

Asking the client about a history of medication allergies

b)

Instructing the client about the medications adverse effects

c)

Determining whether the medication should be administered with or without meals

d)

Monitoring the client's response to the medication

34.

 A nurse is assessing a client following administration of an antibiotic. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a manifestation of an anaphylactic reaction to the medication?

a)

Swollen Lips

b)

HTN

c)

Low HR

d)

Constipation

35.

 A nurse on a medical unit is assisting with the orientation of a newly licensed nurse. The nurse should remind the newly licensed nurse to have a second nurse review the dosage of which of the following medications prior to administration?

a)

Warfarin

b)

Diphenhydramine

c)

Cephalexin

d)

Hydroxychoroquine

36.

A nurse is preparing to administer a time-critical medication to a client at 1400. Which of the following times are appropriate for the nurse to administer the medication? (Select all that apply.)

a)

1200

b)

1345

c)

1430

d)

1445

e)

1500

37.

A nurse working in a med-surg unit is preparing to administer medications to a client. The nurse plans to use two forms of identification to verify that she has the right client. Which of the following actions can the nurse take to identify the client? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Compare the name on the client’s wristband with the name in the MAR.

b)

Ask the client to state his DOB

c)

Check the room number in the MAR

d)

Ask the client to state his name

e)

Use the bar code to scan to identify the client

38.

A charge nurse is reviewing the types of prescriptions with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse include as an example of a standing prescription?

a)

Guaifenesin 100 mg PO every 8 hours

b)

Acetaminophen 550 mg PO every 6 hr for temperature greater than 38.4 degrees C

c)

Morphine 4 mg IV bolus every hr PRN for pain

d)

Diazepam 10 mg IV 30 min prior to procedure

39.

A nurse is reviewing a client’s prescriptions. The nurse should contact the provider to clarify which of the following prescriptions?

a)

Phenytoin 100 mg PO every 8 hr

b)

Morphine 2.5 mg IV bolus PRN for incisional pain

c)

Regular insulin 7 units subcutaneous 30 min before breakfast and dinner

d)

Lisinopril 20 mg PO every 12 hr. Hold for systolic BP less than 110 mm Hg

40.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate tablets twice daily for iron-deficiency anemia. The client asks the nurse why the provider instructed that she take the ferrous sulfate between meals. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

a)

 "Taking the medication between meals will help you avoid becoming constipated."

b)

 "Taking the medication with food increases the risk of esophagitis."

c)

"Taking the medication between meals will help you absorb the medication more efficiently."

d)

 "The medication can cause nausea if taken with food."

41.

 A nurse is caring for a client who has difficulty swallowing medications and is prescribed enteric-coated aspirin PO once daily. The client asks if the medication can be crushed to make it easier to swallow. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?

a)

"Crushing the medication might cause you to have a stomachache or indigestion."

b)

 "Crushing the medication is a good idea, and I can mix it in some ice cream for you."

c)

"Crushing the medication would release all the medication at once, rather than over time."

d)

"Crushing is unsafe, as it destroys the ingredients in the medication."

42.

A nurse in a public clinic is planning a health fair for older adult clients in the community. In teaching medication safety, which of the following foods should the nurse advise the clients to avoid when taking their prescriptions?

a)

Carbonated Beverage

b)

Milk

c)

Orange Juice

d)

Grapefruit Juice

43.

 A nurse is instructing a group of clients about nutrition and eating foods high in iron. The nurse should include that which of the following aids in the absorption of iron?

a)

Fiber

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Oxalates

44.

A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about medication reconciliation. Which of the following information should the charge nurse include in the teaching?

a)

The goal of medication reconciliation is to minimize the financial impact of prescription medications to the client

b)

Only newly prescribed medications need to be reviewed during the process

c)

Perform medication reconciliation daily during a client’s hospitalization

d)

Vitamins, supplements, and OTC medications should be included

45.

 A nurse is caring for a client who received ondansetron 30 min ago and now reporting dizziness and headache. Which of the following should the nurse do first?

a)

Document the client’s response in the medical record

b)

Obtain the client’s vital signs

c)

Tell the client to change positions slowly

d)

Notify the provider

46.

A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 225 mcg for a pediatric client who has a heart rate above 90/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure administration of the right dose? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Check the client’s heart rate prior to administration

b)

Confirm the medication amount is appropriate for the child

c)

Document the administration in the medication administration record

d)

Validate that the dosage is within the safe range

e)

Verify that the medication is not expired

47.

A nurse is preparing to administer a drug to a client. In which of the following sections of a drug handbook should the nurse look to determine if the client can receive the drug?

a)

Implementation

b)

Adverse Effects

c)

Contraindications

d)

Black Box Warning

48.

 A nurse is obtaining a client’s health history and discovers that the client takes loratadine, an OTC drug. The nurse should identify that which of the following is correct regarding OTC drugs? (Select all that apply.)

a)

They do not require the supervision of a nurse

b)

They can interact with other drugs

c)

They should be included in the client’s drug history assessment

d)

They are less effective than prescription drugs

e)

They do not cause toxicity

49.

 A nurse is speaking to a client who is taking sertraline and reports drinking grapefruit juice. The nurse explains that grapefruit juice inhibits an enzyme in the liver that is used to metabolize sertraline. The nurse should educate the client that they are at risk for which of the following?

a)

Drug toxicity

b)

Drug dependence

c)

Reduced drug absorption

d)

Altered drug distribution

50.

A nurse is reviewing a drug handbook prior to administering a drug to a client who has kidney disease. The handbook states that the drug can be administered but identifies certain risks. Which of the following terms describes these risks?

a)

Paradoxical effects

b)

Contraindications

c)

Precautions

d)

Adverse effects