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ENVI Final Review Spring

Total questions: 266

Worksheet time: 3hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Before coal has formed over millions of years, it is a wet, sampling of decaying plant material called...

a)

Peanut Butter

b)

Peat

c)

Mud

d)

Sedimentary Rock

2.

What two things are required to turn decaying plant material into coal?

a)

Heat and Moisture

b)

Pressure and Moisture

c)

Heat and Pressure

d)

Heat and Gravity

3.

What happens to the carbon bonds in coal as it ages?

a)

Just gets older with compression

b)

The bonds get weaker with compression

c)

The bonds get tighter with compression

d)

The bonds explode and cause rampant destruction

4.

Which is the oldest type of coal?

a)

Diamond

b)

Anthracite

c)

Bituminous

d)

Sub-bituminous

e)

Lignite

5.

Which answer represents the order the coal is found in the ground from OLDEST to YOUNGEST?

a)

Anthracite, Lignite, Sub-bituminous, Bituminous

b)

Anthracite, Sub-bituminous, Bituminous, Lignite

c)

Anthracite, Bituminous, Sub-bituminous, Lignite

d)

Anthracite, Bituminous, Lignite, Sub-bituminous

6.

Which type of coal has a higher carbon content and is less contaminated with pollutants?

a)

Bituminous

b)

Anthracite

c)

Sub-bituminous

d)

Lignite

7.

Which two are the "dirty" types of coal?

a)

Lignite and bituminous

b)

Sub-bituminous and anthracite

c)

Lignite and anthracite

d)

Lignite and sub-bituminous

8.

This crumbly, brown coal has the lowest carbon content 

a)
lignite
b)
anthracite
c)
bituminous
d)
sub-bituminous
9.

Which type of coal has the most energy?

a)

Bituminous

b)

Peat

c)

Anthracite

d)

Lignite

10.

Which is the biggest pollution contributor from coal burning?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Carbon Monoxide

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Sludge

11.
Today, most of the coal is used to:
a)
power steamships and steam trains
b)
heat homes and businesses
c)
produce electricity
d)
make iron and steel
12.
Aside from producing electricity, coal is also used in the US for
a)
heating homes
b)
make iron and steel
c)
road construction
d)
melting ice on roads
13.
The major environmental air pollutant from coal that scrubbers help remove is
a)
carbon
b)
sulfur
c)
chlorine
d)
nitrogen
14.

What is reclamation?

a)

Taking the land back from the British

b)

Putting the land back to what it was before mining

c)

Planting trees on the remains of dead plants and animals

d)

Putting coal back into the soil after mining

15.

Surface coal mining has all of the following environmental effects EXCEPT

a)

increased erosion due to topsoil removal

b)

transport of coal results in damage to aquatic systems if tanker is damaged

c)

increased habitat disruption due to deforestation

16.

Why is surface mining of coal (including mountaintop removal) controversial?

a)

It makes the ground unstable

b)

It destroys ecosystems

c)

It causes lung cancer in miners

d)

it spreads radiation

17.

Deep deposits of coal being removed from underground though tunnels and shafts is...

a)

Strip Mining

b)

Mountaintop Removal

c)

Subsurface Mining

d)

Surface Mining

18.

Coal replaced wood as industrialized countries' major energy source in the nineteenth century because

a)

coal was easier to transport

b)

coal was a cleaner fuel

c)

early conservationists warned about the loss of biodiversity in the forests

d)

wood is not as energy efficient as coal

e)

wood supplies were diminishing

19.

Before it can be burned in a power plant, coal must first be...

a)

crushed (pulverized)

b)

colored black

c)

paid for

d)

weighed

20.

How is electricity generated in a coal powered plant?

a)

heat from the burning coal boils water and produces steam which turns the turbines

b)

heat from the burning coal heats the air which turns the turbines

c)

the turbine breaks down the coal into liquid fuel that powers the generator

d)

the coal is heated until it vaporizes and the vapor is the distilled in the combustion chamber which turns the turbine

21.

Acid rain from burning coal is caused by which element?

a)

carbon

b)

sulfur

c)

boron

22.
What kind of environment would have had to existed in the past for an area to have coal today?
a)
Any environment where a large number of plants and animals died.
b)
A swamp with many generation of plants that died and couldn't decompose naturally.
c)
A sea where many plants and animals died and couldn't decompose.
d)
A desert environment where no living things ever existed. 
23.

Coal is cheap compared to other forms of energy.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Which fuel contains the most sulfur?

a)

wood

b)

oil

c)

natural gas

d)

coal

25.

Use of coal in the US has been...

a)

increasing

b)

decreasing

26.

Which of the following is the major use for petroleum?

a)

Transportation

b)

Electricity production

27.

Which of the following is the major use for coal?

a)

Transportation

b)

Electricity production

28.

Which materials do we get from oil?

a)
gasoline, diesel, metal, plastic, wax, etc
b)
gasoline, diesel, cement, plastic, wax, etc.
c)
gasoline, diesel, asphalt, plastic, copper, etc.
d)
gasoline, diesel, asphalt, plastic, wax, etc.
29.
Crude oil is a fossil fuel
a)
True 
b)
False
30.
Oil is nonrenewable
a)
True 
b)
false
31.

A framework or tower that supports a drill over a deep hole.

a)

Derrick

b)

Reserve

c)

Wildcatter

d)

Petroleum

32.

What is NOT potential problem from hydraulic fracturing?

a)
Earthquakes
b)
gas leaks
c)

water pollution

d)
lower gas prices
33.
Natural gas is a renewable resource.
a)
True
b)
False
34.

Renewable energy sources can best be defined as

a)

resources that will regenerate in a million or more years

b)

resources that will regenerate in a generation or less

c)

resources that will regenerate in 10-20 million years

d)

resources that do not have the ability to regenerate

35.

This is when CO2 is pulled from the atmosphere and stored underground.

a)

Capture CO2

b)

Fossil Fuels

c)

Carbon Capture

d)

Oil

36.

Which of the following characteristics is common to coal and petroleum?

a)

Both release significant amounts of mercury when burned.

b)

Both require fractional distillation in a refinery.

c)

Both are considered renewable resources.

d)

Both are forms of ancient organic matter buried deep within the earth's crust.

37.
Crude oil is also called what?
a)
biomass
b)
fossils
c)
coal
d)
petroleum
38.

Different hydrocarbons (molecules with only carbon and hydrogen) in crude oil are separated by:

a)

Cracking with different tensile levels

b)

Distillation with different boiling points

c)

Filtration with different particle sizes

d)

Crystallization with different freezing points

39.

Differences in __________ are used to separate the various components of crude OIL.

a)

sulfur

b)

solubility

c)

boiling points

40.

_____ are a combination of clay, sand, water and thick oil (bitumen).

a)

tar sands

b)

oil shales

c)

tight oils

41.

In a thermal power plant, coal, oil, natural gas or uranium are used to heat what?

a)

water

b)

oil

c)

air

d)

the turbine

42.

The main reason(s) fossil fuels are the primary source of energy in the developed world is

a)

infrastructure is in place that already uses this and it would be costly to change

b)

fossil fuels produce high energy quickly

c)

fossil fuels are readily available

d)

all of these are reasons

43.

Which of the following is NOT a true statement?

a)

The most widely used sources of energy globally are fossil fuels

b)

As developing countries become more developed, their reliance on fossil fuels for energy increases.

c)

Government regulations do not influence which energy sources people use and how they use them.

d)

As the world becomes more industrialized, the demand for energy increases.

44.

All types of coal contain some ______.

a)

iron

b)

magnesium

c)

oxygen

d)

sulfur

45.

Coal is burned to heat water so that the _______ can turn turbines.

a)

fire

b)

steam

c)

water

d)

heat

46.

In a fuel power station, the generator converts kinetic energy from the turbine into...

a)

heat energy

b)

magnetic energy

c)

electrical energy

47.

Step-down transformers...

a)

improve the efficiency of the national grid

b)

reduce the voltage to a safe level for the home

c)

both of these

48.

The device that lowers our AC voltage so we can use it in our homes

a)

Transformer

b)

Splicer

c)

Rectifier

d)

Voltmeter

49.

How does mountaintop removal affect the surrounding waterways?

a)

they are filled with debris and toxins

b)

droughts happen

c)

less erosion

50.

How does mountaintop removal affect the surrounding ecosystem?

a)

less runoff from rain

b)

more deforestation

c)

toxins go directly into the air

51.

A "fraction" of crude oil is "a refined portion of crude oil made up of hydrocarbons of similar chain lengths." Different fractions in crude oil are separated by:

a)

Cracking

b)

Filtration

c)

Distillation

d)

Crystalisation

52.

What process happens as the crude oil enters the fractionating column?

a)

the oil is slowly heated till it boils and evaporates

b)

the oil is slowly heated toll it boils and condenses

c)

the oil is slowly heated until it combusts

53.

Shorter hydrocarbons have:

a)

Higher boiling points

b)

Lower boiling points

54.

Where do short chain hydrocarbons collect?

a)

At the top

b)

In the middle

c)

At the bottom

55.

Where do long chain hydrocarbons collect?

a)

At the top

b)

In the middle

c)

At the bottom

56.

What process happens as hydrocarbons rise as gasses to each level in the fractionating column?

a)

the continue to evaporate

b)

they cool, condense, and are collected

c)

they are burned for energy in combustion

57.

Which of the following is NOT a derivative of crude oil?

a)

fertilizers and plastics

b)

chalk and coal

c)

gasoline and  diesel

d)

car tires and asphalt

58.

Bitumen is a fraction of crude oil that is very thick (viscous). It is used for:

a)

Fuel for large ships and in some power stations

b)

Roof and road surfacing

c)

Fuel in aircraft

d)

Fuel in cars

59.

The shorter the hydrocarbon, the more viscous it is

a)

true

b)

false

60.

Petroleum and natural gas form from...

a)

strong winds

b)

radioactive materials

c)

cooled magma

d)

remains of dead marine organisms

61.

Crude oil is a fossil fuel

a)

true

b)

false

62.

What condition is NOT needed to form oil?

a)

high heat

b)

no oxygen

c)

pressure

d)

lots of salt

63.

Which mining location is more costly?

a)

on-shore drilling

b)

off-shore drilling

64.

An "oil slick" is...

a)

Someone who works on an oil tanker

b)

Oil that end up on animals

c)

Oil that floats on water

65.

Waves can mix oil deeper into the water column.

a)

true

b)

false

66.

What is NOT a way oil spills can be deadly to organisms?

a)

covers fur and feathers and prevents insulation

b)

smothers eggs

c)

gets ingested and is toxic

d)

makes them easier to catch in nets

e)

erodes fish scales and poisons livers

67.

Which is NOT a way oil spills affect people?

a)

kills fish thus harming fishermen's livelihood

b)

increases oil demand

c)

reduces tourism to beaches

d)

puts toxins into the food chain

68.

Dispersants...

a)

absorb oil

b)

spread oil out

c)

remove oil

69.

Booms and skimmers work together to

a)

make the oil sink

b)

burn the oil

c)

mix the oil with water

d)

scoop the oil out of the ocean

70.

Which of the following types of accidents are NOT associated with the use of petroleum?

a)

Explosion in Chernobyl, Ukraine

b)

Exxon Valdez spill in Prince William Sound

c)

Deep Horizon disaster in the Gulf of Mexico

71.

The barbs and barbules of bird feathers line up like velcro to ...

a)

make them shiny

b)

seal water away from birds' skin

c)

let them land smoothly

d)

help them find food

72.

Oil can ONLY harm an animal if it is ingested (swallowed).

a)

true

b)

false

73.

The most clean burning of the fossil fuels

a)

coal

b)

oil

c)

natural gas

d)

nuclear

74.

Burning natural gas releases what two waste products?

a)

Carbon dioxide and water vapor

b)

Methane and butane

c)

Methane and carbon dioxide

d)

Butane and water vapor

75.

What are hydrocarbons?

a)

Drilling platforms for fracking

b)

Compounds made of hydrogen and carbon

c)

Materials added to water to make fracking fluid

d)

Water that returns to the surface after fracking

76.

What fossil fuel is a mixture of methane, propane, butane, and other hydrocarbons?

a)

Fracking fluid

b)

Coal

c)

Oil

d)

Natural Gas

77.

The most common use of coal is generating electricity, but the greatest proportion of U.S. electricity is produced by...

a)

solar

b)

nuclear

c)

hydroelectric

d)

natural gas

78.

What is actually “fractured” during hydraulic fracturing?

a)

oil

b)

shale

c)

water

d)

coal

79.

Coal replaced wood as England's major energy source in the 1800's because...

a)

wood supplies were diminishing

b)

coal did not leave any ash

c)

coal contained less energy in the same volume

d)

coal contained more impurities

80.

Which device removes pollutants from smoke stacks by spraying liquid into them?

a)

Scrubber

b)

Electrostatic precipitator

c)

Catalytic converter

d)

Hose

81.

How does acid rain damage plants?

a)

Harms their leaves

b)

Keeps them from taking in oxygen

c)

Causes mutations

d)

Keeps them from taking in nutrients

82.

The pH of acid rain is anything lower than ___

a)

7

b)

5

c)

4

d)

3

83.

When unstable isotopes break apart, the energy and small particles they emit are known as...

a)

radiation

b)

atoms

c)

isotopes

d)

elements

84.

How are nuclear reactors similar to fossil fuel power plants?

a)

they both make steam

b)

They both use coal

c)

They both cause air pollution

d)

They are both renewable

85.

Why do nuclear power plants have backup generators?

a)

To make electricity when the sun is not out

b)

To keep the water pumps working in case of an accident

c)

To start the reaction each day

d)

To speed up the reaction

86.

Nuclear power plants use fission reactions to produce _______ to create power

a)

steam

b)

ash

c)

photocells

d)

geothermic

87.

What is the big advantage that nuclear power has over fossil fuels?

a)

It is renewable

b)

It creates no waste

c)

It creates no air pollution

d)

it is cheaper

88.

What is a disadvantage of a nuclear power plant?

a)

Severity of potential accidents

b)

Radiation is emitted

c)

Air pollution

d)

Depletes resources quickly

89.

How do photovoltaic cells generate electricity?

a)

Uses mirrors to collect heat and boil water into steam

b)

Energizes electrons which flow down wires

c)

Heats uranium fuel rods to boil water into steam

d)

Store solar radiation in batteries

90.

Which is NOT a reason solar power so difficult to harness efficiently?

a)

Sunlight does not have much energy

b)

It is intermittent

c)

Some areas receive less direct light

d)

It is spread out over a wide area

91.

What is a concentrating solar power (CPS) plant?

a)

many solar panels next to each other in the desert or empty field

b)

many mirrors that reflect heat from the sun on a water tank to boil it

92.

What type of energy do the wind turbines blades collect?

a)

kinetic energy

b)

heat energy

c)

mechanical energy

d)

potential energy

93.

Which of these a drawback of wind energy?

a)

it produces carbon emissions

b)

they are very expensive

c)

may visibly affect the landscape

d)

they can cause floods

94.

What does hydroelectric power use?

a)

hydrocarbons

b)

solar power

c)

the earth's heat

d)

water

95.

What is an example of biomass energy?

a)

wood

b)

sunlight

c)

water

d)

coal

96.

How does geothermal energy work?

a)

Extracting CO2 from the atmosphere

b)

Extracting water from the earth

c)

Using a wind turbine to generate energy

d)

Extracting heat from the earth's crust

97.

What is a biofuel?

a)

decomposed plants & animals from many years ago.

b)

A fuel made from recently deceased animals.

c)

A fuel created from crude oil.

d)

A fuel made from plants.

98.

How much carbon dioxide emissions does the hydrogen fuel cell release?

a)

Double the amount of emissions of an average gas engine

b)

Similar to an average gas engine

c)

Produces sparks instead of emissions

d)

No carbon dioxide emissions, just water and heat

99.

A device that has blades that can be turned by water, wind, steam, or exhaust gas from combustion that turns a generator in an electricity-producing plant.

a)

generator

b)

turbine

c)

energy carrier

d)

energy source

100.

Nuclear power plants rely on which of the following reactions to generate energy?

a)

Fusion

b)

Fission

101.

What controls the reaction within a nuclear reactor?

a)

Rods made of neutron absorbing material

b)

Moderator made of neutron emitting material

c)

Containment building made of steel, lead, and concrete

d)

Condenser chamber at the end of the second circuit

102.

Which is NOT a disadvantage of nuclear energy?

a)

Nuclear power plants are very expensive to build.

b)

Acquiring nuclear fuel requires mining.

c)

Radioactive waste can be dangerous for thousands of years.

d)

Air pollution occurs while the nuclear power plant is active.

e)

Nuclear meltdowns can lead to catastrophic consequences.

103.

Where is nuclear waste currently stored?

a)

Waste is stored on the same site as the power plant.

b)

Waste is contained in drums and stored on the ocean floor.

c)

Waste is sent into space on a rocket.

d)

Waste is stored in a geologically stable site away from human habitation.

104.

What is another name for a solar panel?

a)

photon

b)

heliostat

c)

photovoltaic cell

d)

photon panel

105.

A nuclear reactor in which water is maintained at high pressure so that it does not boil while transferring heat energy from the reactor

a)

Distilled water reactor

b)

Boiling water reactor

c)

Pressurized water reactor

d)

Osmotic water reactor

106.

Solar panels work by...

a)

using the sun's heat to melt silicon into electricity

b)

using the sun's energy to knock electrons from one section of the panel into the other section

c)

trapping the sun's energy in wires

d)

changing the wavelength of sunlight until it can be used as electricity

107.

Solar thermal fuels...

a)

refine oil with sunlight

b)

release the sun's energy as heat

108.

What is NOT a challenge of solar energy?

a)

inconsistency of sunlight (clouds, short winter days, etc.)

b)

no sunlight at night

c)

storing energy for later

d)

space required

e)

flexible applications

109.

The main material that is used in the production of photovoltaic cells is __________________

a)

Carbon

b)

Silicon

c)

Uranium

d)

Hydrogen

110.

The map below shows the annual average wind within the U.S. (pink/purple or darker are more windy). Which U.S. region is most likely to benefit from wind turbines?

a)

Northwestern region of the U.S.

b)

Southwestern region of the U.S.

c)

Central Great Plains region of the U.S.

d)

Northeast region of the U.S.

111.

What is a disadvantage of wind turbines?

a)

They pollute the air.

b)

They may harm some animals

c)

They are expensive compared to other energy sources

112.

 What are these two types of wind turbines?

a)

Vertical-axis design & Horizontal-axis design

b)
Wind turbines & Wind mills
c)
Land-based & Water-based
113.

Match to the correct term below:

"Utilizes reflectors to concentrate sunlight into a central receiver, where it used to heat fluids to a high enough temperature to generate electricity."

a)

Solar thermal power plant

b)

Passive solar heating system

c)

Active solar heating system

d)

Photovoltaic cells

114.

Uranium-235 is considered ideal for use in nuclear reactors because

a)

it is a widely distributed resource.

b)

it is a stable isotope.

c)

it has a high EROEI (efficiency rating).

d)

it produces minimal radioactive waste.

e)

it breaks apart easily (highly fissionable.)

115.

Nuclear energy uses _____ to rotate the turbine on a generator. (one word)

a)

heat

b)

uranium

c)

steam

d)

electricity

116.

Which source of energy is not renewable?

a)

Wind

b)

Nuclear

c)

Sunlight

117.

Solar panel technology can and is being integrated into all of the following except...

a)

windows

b)

phone screens

c)

satellite dishes

d)

fabric

e)

farm fields

118.

Solar panels are most efficient when they can...

a)

adjust their angle

b)

be at hotter temperatures

c)

face both north and south

d)

reflect blue light

119.
What is the relationship between a country's wealth and the amount of meat eaten per person?
a)
Wealthier countries eat more meat
b)
Wealthier countries eat less meat
c)
There is no relationship between the two.
120.

Cows who are fed corn are more likely to have high levels of ________ in their digestive tract.

a)

acid

b)

ecoli bacteria

c)

liquid

121.

What is the consequence of growing larger chickens?

a)

they have more health issues

b)

the meat has less flavor

c)

the process is less efficient

d)

they live longer

122.

Why has the food industry become more factory based?

a)

it keeps the workers safer

b)

it ensures the food is healthier

c)

it is more efficient

d)

there is no other way to feed so many people

123.

Which is NOT a reason so much food wasted in the US?

a)

Refrigerators and plates are larger

b)

People do not buy food with harmless blemishes

c)

People don't know where to donate extra food

d)

Organic food has a shorter shelf life

124.

What is the negative consequence of increased demand for quinoa?

a)

it lowers corn prices because quinoa is cheaper to produce

b)

it is less nutritious than the rice and wheat

c)

it removes nutritious food from other countries because they export it

d)

it increases allergic reactions

125.

Why is beef cheaper than fresh produce in the US?

a)

beef is raised on corn that is subsidized (partially paid for) by the government

b)

beef uses fewer resources than produce

c)

beef requires less processing than produce

d)

there is less demand for beef than produce

126.
What is another name for horizon A in a soil profile?
a)
litter
b)
subsoil
c)
bedrock
d)
topsoil
127.
Loam is a mixture of clay, silt, and sand. 
a)
True
b)
False
128.
What is the best soil to grow plants in?
a)
sand
b)
silt
c)
loam
d)
clay
129.
If soil particles are large, then 
a)
more water is retained
b)
less water is retained
130.
What physical property of soil determines if it retains water?
a)
color
b)
particle size
c)
texture
d)
weight
131.
Which of the following offers the greatest conservation of water?
a)
center pivot sprinkler systems
b)
LEPA sprinkler systems
c)
drip irrigation
d)
flood irrigation
132.
A tiny groove in soil made by flowing water.
a)
stream
b)
gully
c)
tributary
d)
rill
133.
A large channel in soil formed by erosion.
a)
gully
b)
rill
c)
stream
d)
tributary
134.
Distinct layer within a soil profile. 
a)
Soil
b)
Soil horizon
c)
Weathering
d)
Erosion
135.

What is erosion?

a)

The movement of sediment

b)

The breaking of sediment

c)

The dropping of sediment

136.

Soil is composed up of air, water, mineral matter, and organic matter

a)

True

b)

False

137.

Which particle of soil is the smallest?

a)

sand

b)

silt

c)

clay

d)

Humus

138.

Which soil has the greatest permeability or quickest flow?

a)

sand

b)

silt

c)

clay

d)

humus

139.

Which soil has the least permeability or slowest flow?

a)

sand

b)

silt

c)

clay

d)

humus

140.

Cutting broad, flat areas in the sides of a steep mountain to grow crops is called ____

a)

soil conservation

b)

contour plowing

c)

terracing

141.

Terracing a hillside can slow-

a)

weather

b)

absorption

c)

erosion

d)

soil formation

142.

Planting a crop between rows of another crop is_______.

a)

hummus

b)

soil conservation

c)

strip cropping

d)

contour plowing

143.

What was done by the federal government to help protect the soil from wind erosion?

a)

Planted trees and grass

b)

Build windmills nearby

c)

Stabilize the banking industry

d)

All of the choices

144.

What farming system has crops planted around slopes or hills to help hold moisture in the soil?

a)

The One-Way Plow

b)

Contour Farming

c)

Aqueducts

d)

Texas Rows

145.

the term for when water is distributed over the soil by gravity flow

a)

drip irrigation

b)

sprinkler irrigation

c)

furrow irrigation

d)

placement fertilizer application

146.

The main reason soil could be blown away during the Dust Bowl was because

a)

farmers didn't take care of their farms.

b)

winds were really strong.

c)

animals dug up the dirt with their hooves.

d)

so much planting eliminated grass that held it down.

147.

What crop did most farmers in the Great Plains grow?

a)

Corn

b)

Cotton

c)

Wheat

d)

Pecans

148.

What environmental factor played a part in the cause of the Dust Bowl?

a)

Snow

b)

Drought

c)

Hurricane

d)

Rain

149.

What converts nitrogen gas into a usable form for plants and animals?

a)

bacteria

b)

rain

c)

fungi

d)

car exhaust

150.

What is the process of combining nitrogen gas with other elements to make nitrogen into usable compounds?

a)

nitrogen composition

b)

nitrogen fixation

c)

ammonia

d)

denitrification

151.

What is the formula for atmospheric nitrogen?

a)

N

b)

N2

c)

NH3

d)

NO3

152.

What process occurs when dead plant and animal matter decomposes and nitrogen is released back into the atmosphere?

a)

Assimilation

b)

Fixation

c)

Ammonification

d)

Denitrification

153.

Plants and animals cannot use nitrogen directly from the air.

a)

True

b)

False

154.

According to this diagram, plants use nitrogen to make _________________________

a)

bacteria

b)

animals

c)

proteins

d)

decomposers

155.

According to this diagram, plants absorb

a)

nitrates

b)

nitrogen fixing bacteria

c)

animals

d)

decomposers

156.

According to this diagram, animals get proteins from eating ________________________

a)

decomposers

b)

bacteria

c)

plants

d)

sunlight

157.

A correct path that nitrogen could take would be

a)

air -> animals -> plants -> bacteria

b)

animals -> air -> bacteria -> plants

c)

bacteria -> air -> plants -> animals

d)

air -> bacteria -> plants -> animals

158.

All plants have nitrogen fixing bacteria in their roots.

a)

True

b)

False

159.

the term for when water is distributed over the soil by gravity flow

a)

drip irrigation

b)

sprinkler irrigation

c)

furrow irrigation

d)

placement fertilizer application

160.
What is one drawback of Drift Net fishing
a)
Cost of fish is too high
b)
Legal in every state
c)
A lot of unwanted fish are caught and discarded
161.
The two main agents of erosion are...
a)
wind and flowing water
b)
gravity and frost wedging
c)
oxygen and water
d)
carbon dioxiede and wind
162.
Mixture of decomposing organic matter used as a fertilizer
a)
Domesticated
b)
Biological pest control
c)
Aquaculture
d)
Compost
163.
A poison used to destroy pests
a)
Biological Pest Control
b)
Pesticide
c)
Genetic Engineering
d)
Overharvesting
164.
The use of certain organisms by humans to control pests
a)
Biological pest control
b)
Pesticides
c)
Yield
d)
Overharvesting
165.
Practice that modifies the genome of living organisms for industrial use
a)
Domesticated
b)
Livestock
c)
Biological pest control
d)
Genetic engineering
166.
Raising of aquatic plants or animals for human use
a)
Aquaculture
b)
Overharvesting
c)
Arable
d)
Famine
167.
The _______________________ was the period between 1950 and 1970 when increases in crop yields resulted from the use of new crop varieties and the application of modern agriculture techniques.
a)
drought
b)
persistent
c)
Green Revolution
d)
Industrial Revolution
168.
A pesticide is _____________if it does not break down easily or quickly in the environment.
a)
Persistent
b)
Domesticated
c)
Compost
d)
Aquaculture
169.
Which of the following is NOT a negative side effect of modern agricultural techniques versus traditional techniques?
a)
Increased use of fossil fuels
b)
Increased crop yields
c)
Increased use of fertilizers
d)
Increased use of pesticides
170.
Which of the following is NOT a way of conserving topsoil:
a)
Build terraces when planting crops on hillsides
b)
Till down the slope instead of across it
c)
Do not till the soil between plantings
d)
Leave strips of land untilled between fields
171.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a biological pest control?
a)
Use of pathogens to control pests
b)
Natural plant defenses
c)
Use of insecticides to eliminate pests
d)
disruption of pest breeding
172.
It is more efficient to raise livestock for food than to grow crops.
a)
True
b)
False
173.
Traditional farmers grow several crops on the same plot of land in a practice referred to as
a)
monoculture
b)
polyculture
c)
aquaculture
d)
slash and burn
174.
The use of synthetic fertilizers can increase crop yield, but also
a)
destroy nitrifying bacteria in the soil
b)
increase nutrient runoff into nearby surface waters
c)
slow the release of organic nutrients from compost
d)
increase fish populations in nearby streams
175.
A farmer discovers pests have become resistant to the atrazine she's been using so she must use larger, more frequent doses.  This is known as 
a)
the pesticide treadmill
b)
both an acute and a chronic effect
c)
a synergistic effect
d)
an antagonistic effect
176.

Which of the following best describes Integrated Pest Management?

a)

Spraying broad-spectrum chemical pesticides as the first line of defense

b)

Complete elimination of all chemical pesticides

c)

Implementing a variety of cultivation and biological techniques and only spraying pesticides as a last resort

d)

Utilizing only trap cropping and crop rotation

177.

Which of the following best describes a genetically modified organism (GMO)?

a)

An organism that has been selectively bred for the best traits

b)

An organism that contains DNA from another species

c)

An organism that is produced after exposure to a mutagen.

d)

An organism that has been cloned

178.

Which Fishing technique is considered the most destructive?

a)

Drift Nets

b)

Trawling

c)

Baiting

d)

Breeding

179.

Pole and Line is a fast fishing process with maximum success

a)

True

b)

False

180.
Which of the following offers the greatest conservation of water?
a)
center pivot sprinkler systems
b)
LEPA sprinkler systems
c)
drip irrigation
d)
flood irrigation
181.

What converts nitrogen gas into a usable form for plants and animals?

a)

bacteria

b)

rain

c)

fungi

d)

car exhaust

182.

What is the process of combining nitrogen gas with other elements to make nitrogen into usable compounds?

a)

nitrogen composition

b)

nitrogen fixation

c)

ammonia

d)

denitrification

183.
All of the following are benefits of pesticide use EXCEPT
a)
disease control
b)
crop protection
c)
genetic resistance
d)
lower food costs for consumers
184.
Which of the following are environmental impacts of extensive aquaculture?
a)
spread of disease
b)
pollution
c)
introduced species
d)
all of the above
185.
Which of the following describes a fundamental characteristic of the Green Revolution?
a)
The application of higher levels of organic fertilizers.
b)
The addition of calorie, fat, and fiber content to food labels.
c)
The development of new strains of crops with higher yields.
d)
Deforestation to provide crops with additional sunlight.
186.
Repeated application of irrigated water in dry climates leads to...
a)
a drop in productivity of the land by more than 10%, leading to desertification
b)
a build up of nutrients, leading to increased levels of erosion
c)
a build up of salts in the soil, leading to salinization
d)
decreased phosphorus and nitrogen, leading to eutrophication
187.
Concentrated Animal Feedlot Operations (CAFO's) can BEST be described as...
a)
a method of producing meat with more land
b)
an experiment to test the effectiveness of antibiotics
c)
the storing of grain as a nutritional supplement
d)
large numbers of livestock in confined spaces
188.
All of the following are disadvantages of raising animals in feedlots, EXCEPT
a)
less land use
b)
uses more water
c)
produces large amounts of animal waste
d)
increased antibiotic use
189.
Which of the following are harmful effects of agriculture?
a)
Algal blooms due to fertilizer runoff
b)
Climate change associated with methane emissions from livestock and rice paddies
c)
Pesticide residue in food, water, and air
d)
All of the above
190.
Which of the following best describes the process of desertification?
a)
A drop of productivity of land of more than 10%.
b)
Caused by overgrazing and soil erosion.
c)
Occurs in arid or semi-arid areas.
d)
All of the above 
191.
Which of the following is NOT a key component of organic agriculture?
a)
Using genetically modified seeds.
b)
Applying manure as fertilizer.
c)
Integrated Pest Management
d)
Crop Rotation
192.
Industrialized agriculture is often referred to as "high input" because it requires a great deal of:
a)
pesticides
b)
fertilizers
c)
fossil fuels
d)
all of these 
193.

The development of dangerous strains of bacteria is a result of which agricultural practice...

a)

using herbicides in large scale grain farming

b)

growing crops that are genetically modified for increased yields

c)

increasing the use of legumes into crop rotation protocols

d)

incorporating the use of antibiotics into the feeding regimes of densely concentrated livestock

194.
The result of overgrazing in semi-arid climates is
a)
environmental modification
b)
desertification
c)
aquaculture
d)
desalination
195.
What is land called that is suitable for farming?
a)
Growable
b)
Fallow
c)
Arable 
d)
Plantable
196.
Disorder of nutrition resulting from improper balance of nutrients
a)
Diet
b)
Famine
c)
Malnutrition
d)
Yield
197.
Amount of crops produced per unit area
a)
Diet
b)
Famine
c)
Malnutrition
d)
Yield
198.

Agriculture is mainly a _________ source of water pollution.

a)

Point

b)

Non Point

199.
This is found in the topsoil and is made of decaying plants and animals. 
a)
dirt
b)
water
c)
humus
d)
subsoil
200.

The three main layers of soil

a)

topsoil, midsoil, and bottomsoil

b)

drysoil, wetsoil, and thicksoil

c)

topsoil, subsoil, and parent material

d)

richsoil, parent material, and subsoil

201.

What does it mean by the rate of flow of water or ability to transmit water?

a)

formation

b)

permeability

c)

texture

d)

composition

202.

What soil horizon contains leaf litter and organic matter

a)

O Horizon

b)

A Horizon

c)

B Horizon

d)

C Horizon

203.

Which Horizon contains topsoil. Seeds germinate in this "Plough Zone"

a)

O Horizon

b)

A Horizon

c)

B Horizon

d)

C Horizon

204.

Which Horizon contains subsoil. It contains mineral and clay deposits. This zone leaches off of the zone above it.

a)

A Horizon

b)

B Horizon

c)

C Horizon

d)

R Horizon

205.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of soil?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
silt
d)
mud
206.
You dig a small hole in the soil and the next day it rains. The hole fills with water, but does not empty even after several days of dry weather. What is the soil mostly made of?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
humus
d)
silt
207.
Which of the following best describes soil erosion?
a)
A.  the breakdown of soil 
b)
A.  the improvement of soil
c)
A.  the addition of soil
d)
A.  the movement of soil by wind or water
208.
Wind blowing dirt and sand through the air is an example of...
a)
weathering 
b)
erosion
209.
Water gets into the cracks of rock and freezes, causing the rock to break.  What is this an example of?
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
210.
Occurs when eroded materials are dropped in another location
a)
Weathering
b)
Exfoliation
c)
Deposition
d)
Frost wedging
211.
Vertical sequence of soil layers containing the A, B, and C horizons. 
a)
Soil profile
b)
Oxidation
c)
Rill erosion
d)
Residual soil
212.

The total waste produced by individuals, industries, mining, and agriculture is referred to as _____.

a)
trash
b)
the waste stream
c)
municipal solid waste
213.

What type of waste is generated by residential area, commercial businesses, and local institutions?

a)

Mining

b)

Agricultural

c)

Industrial

d)

Municipal Solid Waste

214.

Which of the following is the primary method of waste disposal in the U.S.?

a)

Incineration

b)

Landfills

c)

Composting

d)

Recycling

215.

True or False- Trash in a dump decays more quickly than a landfill because it is exposed to air.

a)
True
b)
False
216.

As rain falls on a landfill, it sinks through the trash and picks up pesticides, heavy metals, and organic toxins. This liquid is called...

a)

leachate

b)

methane

c)

bile

d)

liners

217.

What flammable greenhouse gas is produced in landfills?

a)
Nitrogen
b)
Carbon dioxide
c)
Methane
d)
Ozone
218.

Some landfills capture _____ to create electricity.

a)

methane

b)

leachate

c)

garbage

d)

CO2

e)

paper and organics

219.
A process in which mixed garbage is burned at very high temperatures is:
a)
recovery
b)
incineration
c)
leachate
d)
source reduction 
220.

What is a benefit of incineration?

a)

It reduces the volume of trash.

b)
It heats the air which makes warmer temperatures.
c)
It releases greenhouse gases
221.

What is a cost of using incinerators?

a)

produces air pollution

b)

high-level radioactive waste is disposed of unsafely

c)

difficult to get it approved

d)

all of these are costs of incinerators

222.

Which of the following is NOT a potential benefit provided by waste incinerators for local communities?

a)

Cheapest option for disposal of MSW

b)

Production of electrical energy from the combustion of waste

c)

Extends life of local landfills by reducing the volume of waste

223.
To prevent groundwater contamination, sanitary landfills are:
a)
Located far from populated areas
b)
Lined with plastic and clay
c)
Covered with cement
d)
Located on slopes so that water runs downhill
224.

Which soil is best to have under a landfill?

a)

sand

b)

silt

c)

clay

d)

loam

225.

Which of the following is NOT true about pollution prevention at landfills?

a)

Clay & plastic line the bottom of the landfill because they are impermeable to water.

b)

Groundwater near a landfill is monitored to ensure that leachate does not reach aquifers.

c)

Methane gas is added to the landfill to increase the rate of decomposition.

d)

Methane gas is vented & burned to release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

226.

A hot water bath breaks paper down into strands of cellulose fibers, this mushy substance is called...

a)

pulp

b)

bark

c)

paper

d)

bales

227.

How is steel removed from the other items at the MRF (Material Recovery Facility)?

a)

by hand

b)

by rotary separators

c)

with a magnet

d)

with a water bath

228.

Recycled glass takes less energy to produce than new glass because recycled glass shards melt at a ___ temperature than the different ingredients of new glass.

a)

higher

b)

lower

229.

Plastics may be separated by type using ___ or infrared sensors that send out puffs of air.

a)

chemicals

b)

gravity

c)

human labor

d)

heat

230.

Single stream recycling focuses on paper, plastic, and which other three categories? (select 3)

a)

organic material

b)

steel

c)

aluminum

d)

glass

e)

rubber

231.

Recycling numbers indicate the ... (select 2)

a)

color of plastic

b)

age of plastic

c)

molecular structure of plastic

232.

The total waste produced by individuals, industries, mining, and agriculture is referred to as _____.

a)
trash
b)
the waste stream
c)
municipal solid waste
233.

Which of the following are the four main sources of solid waste?

a)

Paper, Yard waste, Glass, and Wood

b)

Municipal, Industrial, Mining, and Agricultural

c)

Paper, Food Waste, Yard waste, and Other

d)

Plastics, Paper, Metals, Glass

234.

What type of waste is generated by residential area, commercial businesses, and local institutions?

a)

Mining

b)

Agricultural

c)

Industrial

d)

Municipal Solid Waste

235.

Which of the following is the primary method of waste disposal in the U.S.?

a)

Incineration

b)

Landfills

c)

Composting

d)

Recycling

236.

A ____________ is a waste disposal facility where wastes are put in the ground and covered each day with a layer of dirt, plastic, or both.

a)

landfill

b)

incinerator

c)

dump

d)

aquifer

237.

True or False- Trash in a dump decays more quickly than a landfill because it is exposed to air.

a)
True
b)
False
238.

Which of the following are environmental problems often associated with sanitary landfills? (select all the apply)

a)

Absorb vast quantities of carbon dioxide gas

b)

Contamination of groundwater with landfill leachate

c)

Release of disease organisms

d)

Production of methane from anaerobic decomposition

239.

As rain falls on a landfill, it sinks through the trash and picks up pesticides, heavy metals, and organic toxins. This liquid is called...

a)

leachate

b)

methane

c)

bile

d)

liners

240.

What keeps liquids in a landfill from leaking into the surrounding soil and contaminating groundwater?

a)

methane bubbles

b)
incineration
c)

a clay layer or plastic liner

d)

layers of gravel

241.

Where would you expect to find the greatest concentration of leachate?

a)

at the bottom of the landfill

b)

at the top of the landfill

c)

throughout the landfill

d)

leachate is not created in a landfill

242.
What dangerous greenhouse gas is produced in landfills?
a)
Nitrogen
b)
Carbon dioxide
c)
Methane
d)
Ozone
243.

Which compound is a flammable gas produced by landfills?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

methane

c)

sulfur dioxide

d)

nitrogen oxides

244.

What creates the methane in a in landfills?

a)

bacteria working without oxygen

b)

leachate

c)

CO2

d)

bacteria using oxygen

245.

Why is decomposition in a landfill anaerobic (without oxygen)?

a)

daily compaction of garbage forces air out and reduces the amount of O2 available to decomposers

b)

leachate reacts with O2, converting it to CO2

c)

methane reacts with O2, converting it to CO2

d)

liners at the bottom of the landfill prevent O2 from getting to the garbage

246.

In a landfill, MSW (Municipal Solid Waste) is covered with soil every day to reduce the impact of

a)

rats, seagulls and smells

b)

methane, leachate and litter

c)

leachate, rats and groundwater pollution

d)

surface water pollution and air pollution

247.

Some landfills capture _____ to create electricity.

a)

methane

b)

leachate

c)

garbage

d)

CO2

e)

paper and organics

248.

When a landfill closes, it can be capped with soil and used for a variety of purposes. Which of these can be built on top of a landfill? (select all that apply)

a)

wind farms and solar farms

b)

parks and wildlife habitat

c)

golf courses

d)

schools

e)

homes

249.
Which method of waste disposal is most effective at reducing the volume of solid waste?
a)
burying
b)
incineration
c)
recycling
250.

Which of the following is the most desirable method of solid waste disposal?

a)

Landfill

b)

Source Reduction

c)

Incineration

d)

Recycling

251.

Which of the following are advantages of landfills? (select all that apply)

a)

Convenient

b)

Creates methane

c)

Can be covered in grass when full

d)

Cost Efficient

252.
A process in which mixed garbage is burned at very high temperatures is:
a)
recovery
b)
incineration
c)
leachate
d)
source reduction 
253.

What is a benefit of incineration?

a)

It reduces the volume of trash.

b)
It heats the air which makes warmer temperatures.
c)
It releases greenhouse gases
254.

What is a cost of using incinerators?

a)

produces air pollution

b)

high-level radioactive waste is disposed of unsafely

c)

difficult to get it approved

d)

all of these are costs of incinerators

255.

Which of the following are benefits provided by waste incinerators for local communities?

a)

Disposes of waste without any use of landfill space

b)

Production of clean water from the combustion of waste

c)

Cheapest option for disposal of MSW

d)

Production of electrical energy from the combustion of waste

e)

Extends life of local landfills

256.

All of the following things happen in a waste-to-energy incinerator EXCEPT

a)

concentration of hazardous or toxic materials in ash.

b)

Use of UV light or chlorine gas being used as a disinfectant.

c)

water being heated until it becomes steam.

d)

ash being taken to a conventional landfill.

257.

The most common waste material found in US municipal solid waste is

a)

plastic

b)

food waste

c)

glass

d)

paper

258.

Dual stream recycling plants...

a)

keep glass items separate

b)

keep plastic items separate

c)

keep paper items separate

d)

keep metal items separate

259.

Single stream recycling focuses on paper, plastic, and which other three categories? (select 3)

a)

organic material

b)

steel

c)

aluminum

d)

glass

e)

rubber

260.

A hot water bath breaks paper down into strands of cellulose fibers, this mushy substance is called...

a)

pulp

b)

bark

c)

paper

d)

bales

261.

Chemicals and ___ help remove ink from the pulp.

a)

heat

b)

pressure

c)

air bubbles

d)

time

262.

How is steel removed from the other items at the MRF (Material Recovery Facility)?

a)

by hand

b)

by rotary separators

c)

with a magnet

d)

with a water bath

263.

Glass must also be separated by...

a)

shape

b)

size

c)

color

d)

thickness

264.

Recycled glass takes less energy to produce than new glass because recycled glass shards melt at a ___ temperature than the different ingredients of new glass.

a)

higher

b)

lower

265.

Recycling numbers indicate the ... (select 2)

a)

type of plastic

b)

color of plastic

c)

age of plastic

d)

molecular structure of plastic

266.

Plastics may be separated by type using ___ or infrared sensors that send out puffs of air.

a)

chemicals

b)

gravity

c)

human labor

d)

heat

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