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Science Finals EXAM

Total questions: 152

Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The type of weathering in which rock is physically broken down into smaller pieces

a)

mechanical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

2.

The process that breaks down rock through chemical changes

a)

mechanical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

3.

Which type of glacier is kept from spreading out by mountain ranges?

a)

Valley Glacier

b)

Continental Glacier

4.

True or False: The discharge rate is how much water is moving through a stream or river.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

True or False: Faster streams can carry larger particles.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Which glaciers tend to be smaller?

a)

Valley Glacier

b)

Continental Glacier

7.

Horns

a)

Erosion

b)

Deposistion

8.

Fjord

a)

Erosion

b)

Deposition

9.

Moraine

a)

Erosion

b)

Deposition

10.

U-Shaped Valley

a)

erosion

b)

deposition

11.

Cirque

a)

erosion

b)

deposition

12.

Arete

a)

erosion

b)

deposition

13.

Kettle Lake

a)

erosion

b)

deposition

14.

Waterfall

a)

erosion

b)

deposition

15.

delta

a)

erosion

b)

deposition

16.

alluvial fan

a)

erosion

b)

deposition

17.

flood plain

a)

erosion

b)

deposition

18.

True or False: Much like waterfalls, headland areas of the beach erode differently because some rocks are harder than others.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Which of the following are features of karst topography? (Select all that apply)

a)

sinkholes

b)

underground caves

c)

glaciers

d)

stalactites and stalagmites

20.

Which feature can be found on the floor of a cave?

a)

stalcites

b)

stalagmite

21.

What will turn into a sea stack in the next stage of erosion?

a)

sea arch

b)

slump

c)

sea cave

22.

How is mechanical weathering different from chemical weathering?

a)

Chemical weathering occurs in the tropics; mechanical weathering occurs in temperate climates

b)

Chemical weathering occurs in the mountains; mechanical weathering occurs on flat surfaces

c)

chemical weathering changes the chemical composition of the materials; mechanical weathering does not

d)

Chemical weathering happens over a much shorter time frame than mechanical weathering

23.

What might cause mechanical weathering?

a)

acid rain

b)

violent earthquakes

c)

growing plants and expanding ice

d)

volcanic eruptions

24.

What exactly is bedrock?

a)

any organic rock or mineral

b)

rock that lies underwater

c)

rock that has not been weathered

d)

especially soft rock

25.

What is the most likely cause of a mudflow or a slump?

a)

an earthquake

b)

a volcanic eruption

c)

heavy rain

d)

drought

26.

Bedrock is located primarily in which horizon?

a)

A horizon

b)

B horizon

c)

C/D horizon

27.

When does wind and/or water deposit sediment?

a)

when it meets an obstacle

b)

when it slows down

c)

both of the above

d)

neither of the above

28.

The stronger/faster the wind blows, the larger the particles of sand it can carry

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Which of the following mass movements can be considered the least dangerous?

a)

landslide

b)

mudflows

c)

slumps

d)

creeps

30.

The main component of soil comes from bedrock

a)

True

b)

False

31.

What mixes the humus into the soil to form the rich top layer, known as topsoil? (Select all that apply)

a)

wind

b)

burrowing animals

c)

earthworms

d)

insects

32.

Place the layers of the earth in order, beginning with the center.

(a)  

33.

If the earth's mantle were completely solid, _________ plates could not move around.

a)

Technical

b)

Tech

c)

Tectonic

d)

Trial

34.

Choose the best definition of the geosphere:

a)

All rocks and minerals.

b)

The densest parts of Earth including the crust, mantle, and core

c)

The solid parts of land.

d)

All convection current cycles including water, atmosphere, and rock.

35.

The deeper you travel, the ________ pressure will be experienced

a)

less

b)

greater

c)

same

36.

The deeper you travel, the temperature will ______________

a)

decrease

b)

the same

c)

increase

37.

The deeper you travel, the material will become ________ dense

a)

more

b)

less

c)

equally

38.

When two plates come together

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

39.

When two plates move apart

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

40.

When plates slide past each other

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

41.

1 kilometer is equal to approximately how many football fields?

(a)  

42.

How deep would you have to drill to reach the center of the earth?

a)

About 60,000 km

b)

About 600,000 km

c)

About 600 km

d)

About 6,000 km

43.

What are the types of seismic waves?

a)

Primary waves (P waves)

b)

Third waves (T waves)

c)

Secondary waves (S waves)

d)

Ocean waves (O waves)

44.

What type of waves are only able to travel through solids?

a)

Primary Waves

b)

Secondary Waves

c)

Selection Waves

d)

All of the above

45.

Which is true about the Earth's inner core?

a)

It's mostly made of nickel

b)

It's mostly made of iron

c)

It's mostly made of silver

d)

It's mostly made of cadmium

46.

What are the 5 ways we can identify minerals?

a)

Natural

b)

Inorganic

c)

Crystalline structure

d)

Definite chemical composition

e)

Solid

47.

Which property of minerals is the least dependable?

a)

Hardness

b)

Streak

c)

Color

d)

Cleavage

48.

The true color of a mineral can be found by:

a)

Writing on a chalkboard with the mineral

b)

Streaking it across a porcelain plate

c)

Looking at the mineral

d)

Shining a UV light on the mineral

49.

The name of the scale that we use to determine a mineral's hardness:

a)

Moes

b)

Mohs

c)

Hard Scale

d)

Mohes

50.

What is the hardest mineral?

a)

Brass

b)

Platinum

c)

Diamond

d)

Quartz

51.

What is the softest mineral?

a)

Platinum

b)

Talc

c)

Calcium

d)

Zinc

52.

When a mineral splits along a definite flat plane:

a)

Cleavage

b)

Fracture

c)

Break

d)

Sediment

53.

What physical property can be described as metallic or nonmetallic?

a)

Hardness

b)

Phosphorescence

c)

Luster

d)

Shine

54.

A mineral must be:

a)

organic

b)

inorganic

55.

Coal is NOT a mineral because:

a)

It is not solid.

b)

It is not naturally occurring.

c)

It is organic.

d)

It is inorganic.

56.

This mineral is found in your toothpaste. It plays a key role in keeping your teeth healthy and strong. What is it?

a)

Zinc

b)

Fluorite

c)

Copper

d)

Salt

57.

One way that minerals form is by the crystallization of cooling:

a)

Magma

b)

Water

c)

Ice

58.

Some minerals form when solutions:

a)

Boil

b)

Evaporate

c)

Sink

59.

The smallest particles are called (E)

a)

Sedimentary Rock

b)

Igneous Rock

c)

Metamorphic Rock

d)

Sediments

60.

The deposition, compaction & cementation of these particles creates (A):

a)

Sedimentary Rock

b)

Igneous Rock

c)

Sediments

d)

Metamorphic Rock

61.

Heat and pressure of those rocks creates (B):

a)

Sedimentary Rock

b)

Igneous Rock

c)

Metamorphic Rock

d)

Sediments

62.

The melting and cooling of those rocks creates (D):

a)

Sedimentary Rock

b)

Igneous Rock

c)

Metamorphic Rock

d)

Sediments

63.

What process can effect all three rock types, resulting in "sending it back" to sediments?

a)

cementation

b)

weathering and erosion

c)

heat

d)

pressure

64.

Select the different types of igneous rock (select all that apply):

a)

Intrusive

b)

Extrusive

c)

Glassy

d)

Phosphorescent

65.

Rock that forms when hot, molten rock crystallizes and solidifies. Common examples are: granite, basalt, obsidian.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

66.

Rock that forms by the accumulation or deposition of mineral or organic particles at Earth's surface, followed by cementation. Common examples are: conglomerate, shale, sandstone.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

67.

Rock that starts as another type, but has been changed to this type when subjected to high heat and pressure. Common examples: marble, gneiss, slate.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

68.

What does "compaction" mean?

a)

Sediments that are pulled apart.

b)

Sediments that are pressed together, often resulting in cementation.

c)

Sediments that are suspended in liquid.

d)

Sediments that are in convergent boundaries.

69.

The "special minerals" referred to in Revelation by Pastor Tim are said to cover the walls of ____________.

a)

New Bethlehem

b)

Jericho

c)

New Jerusalem

d)

Winter Garden

70.

The four doors are carved of solid _________.

a)

Pearl

b)

Gemstone

c)

Diamond

d)

Crystal

71.

The crystals that reflect a myriad of colors and make up the walls described in Revelation are called ___________.

a)

Anisotropic

b)

Isotropic

72.

A diamond is an example of an ______________ crystal and would reflect this color in pure light: __________.

a)

Anisotropic, black

b)

Isotropic, black

c)

Anisotropic, shades of pink

d)

Isotropic, bright teal

73.

Term describing a model of the universe in which Earth is at the center of the revolving planets and stars

a)

heliocentric

b)

geocentric

74.

Term describing a model of the solar system in which Earth and other planets revolve around the sun

a)

heliocentric

b)

geocentric

75.

Which of the following is a true statement about gravity?

a)

It acts on all matter in the universe

b)

It pushes objects away from one another.

c)

It does not exist in outer space.

d)

It gets weaker the closer you get to the sun.

76.

If the sun is bigger than the moon, why does the moon have a greater effect on tides?

a)

The sun's gravity doesn't affect water.

b)

The moon is much closer than the sun.

c)

Although the moon is smaller than the sun, it has more mass.

d)

The earth blocks the sun's gravitational pull.

77.

High tides occur

a)

At either the North Pole or South Pole, depending on where the moon is

b)

On the side of the earth facing away from the moon only.

c)

On the side of the earth facing away from the moon only.

d)

On the side of the earth facing the moon, and also the opposite side.

78.

What factor limits the number of eclipses per year?

a)

Distance between the moon and the earth

b)

Tilt of the moon's orbit around the earth

c)

Distance between the earth and the sun

d)

Tilt of the earth's axis of rotation

79.

A lunar eclipse occurs when:

a)

The sun passes between the earth and the moon

b)

The moon passes between the earth and the sun.

c)

The moon passes through the earth's shadow.

d)

The sun passes through the moon's shadow.

80.

What angle is formed by the sun, the earth, and the moon during an eclipse?

a)

180 degree

b)

270 degree

c)

90 degree

d)

45 degree

81.

When a solar eclipse happens, who can see it?

a)

Anyone in the Northern Hemisphere

b)

Anyone in the Southern Hemisphere

c)

Anyone around the Equator

d)

Anyone who is in the moon's shadow

82.

At one beach, high tide occurs at 8 a.m. When will the next high tide most likely occur?

a)

Noon

b)

4 p.m.

c)

8 p.m.

d)

8 a.m. the next day

83.

The word "waxing" can replace the first word of which phrase?

a)

Cooling temperatures

b)

Dwindling salaries

c)

Increasing support

84.

How much of the moon's bright side can you see during a new moon

a)

0 percent

b)

10 percent

c)

50 percent

d)

100 percent

85.

Place the following phases of the moon in the correct sequence: A) Waxing crescent; B) Waning gibbous; C) Third quarter moon

a)

A, B, C

b)

A, C, B

c)

C, A, B

d)

B, C, A

86.

Which of the following is a true statement about tidal energy?

a)

It's easy to harness

b)

It's more efficient than solar energy

c)

It's more powerful than the energy we get from fossil fuels

d)

It causes very little pollution

87.

The moon's gravity affects:

a)

Both the solid parts of the earth and the oceans

b)

The solid parts of the earth only

c)

The oceans only

d)

The moon only

88.

What might happen if the moon were only half as large as it is now?

a)

There would be no tides

b)

Most areas would receive fewer high tides each day

c)

The ocean level would rise and fall less dramatically

d)

Ocean waves would not be very large

89.

Identify this moon phase. A moon that is completely dark because it's illuminated side is facing away from Earth.

a)

full moon

b)

new moon

c)

waxing crescent

d)

waning crescent

90.

Identify the moon phase. The moon is a quarter of the way around the Earth. You can see the right half of the moon is illuminated.

a)

1st quarter

b)

3rd quarter

c)

waxing gibbous

d)

waning gibbous

91.

Identify the moon phase. The phase in which the illuminated portion of the moon is beginning to shrink smaller and is now on the left side, but is still more than half.

a)

waxing crescent

b)

waning crescent

c)

waxing gibbous

d)

waning gibbous

92.

Identify the moon phase. The moon phase that comes after a new moon and before a first quarter moon; less than half of the moon is illuminated on the right side.

a)

Waning Crescent

b)

Waxing Crescent

c)

Waning Gibbous

d)

Waxing Gibbous

93.

Identify the moon phase. The moon's phase in which the illuminated portion of the moon is still growing larger on the right side, but is now more than half.

a)

Waning Crescent

b)

Waxing Crescent

c)

Waning Gibbous

d)

Waxing Gibbous

94.

Identify the moon phase. The moon phase when the entire side facing Earth is illuminated.

a)

Full moon

b)

New moon

c)

Waxing Gibbous

d)

Waning Gibbous

95.

Identify the moon phase. The phase of the moon when it is three-quarters of the way through its orbit, and we see half of the moon illuminated on the left side.

a)

1st quarter

b)

3rd quarter

c)

waxing crescent

d)

waning crescent

96.

Identify the moon phase. The moon phase that comes before a new moon and after a third quarter moon; less than half of the moon is illuminated on the left side.

a)

New moon

b)

waxing crescent

c)

waning crescent

d)

waxing gibbous

97.

Match the term to the definition:


Either of the two days of the year on which the sun reaches its greatest distance north or south of the equator.

a)

Solstice

b)

Equinox

98.

Either of the two days of the year on which neither hemisphere is tilted toward or away from the sun.

a)

Equinox

b)

Solstice

99.

the scientific law that states that every object in the universe attracts every other object

a)

Law of Universal Gravitation

b)

Gravity

c)

Inertia

100.

The tendency of an object to resist a change in motion

a)

Inertia

b)

Law of Universal Gravitation

c)

Gravity

101.

The attractive force between objects; the force that moves objects downhill.

a)

Gravity

b)

Law of Universal Gravitation

c)

Inertia

102.

True or False: Earth rotates from east to west, causing the sun and moon to rise and set

a)

True

b)

False

103.

How long does it take Earth to complete one rotation?

a)

24 hours

b)

365.25 days

104.

What causes the seasons to change?

a)

The Earth's distance from the sun

b)

The warming and cooling of the Earth's core

c)

The Earth's tilt in relation to the Sun

d)

The Earth's rotation on its axis

105.

What happens when it is autumn in the Southern Hemisphere?

a)

It's autumn in the Northern Hemisphere

b)

It's spring in the Northern Hemisphere

c)

It's summer in the Northern Hemisphere

d)

It's winter in the Northern Hemisphere

106.

How are winters in the Northern Hemisphere different from winters in the Southern Hemisphere?

a)

In the Northern Hemisphere, winter lasts from June to September; in the South, it lasts from December to March

b)

Winter days are short in the Northern Hemisphere, and long in the South

c)

Northern Hemisphere winters are cold; Southern winters are hot

d)

In the Northern Hemisphere, winters last from December to March; in the South, it lasts from June to September

107.

Why does the area around the equator stay the same temperature year-round?

a)

The equator rotates slower than the poles

b)

Its days are more than 18 hours long year-round

c)

It receives the same amount of direct sunlight year-round

d)

It remains the same distance from the sun year-round

108.

You live in the Northern Hemisphere. On which day of the year will you receive the least amount of daylight?

a)

June 21

b)

December 21

c)

September 21

d)

March 21

109.

Where and when would you find almost 24 hours of daylight?

a)

In the Arctic Circle during summer

b)

In South America during spring

c)

In Jamaica during winter

d)

In the Antarctic Circle during winter

110.

This image was taken at midnight. Where was it taken?

a)

On March 21 near the equator

b)

On September 21 near the equator

c)

On June 21 near the North Pole

d)

On June 21 near the South Pole

111.

Why is summer warmer than winter?

a)

Earth spins slower on its axis during the summer

b)

The sun radiates more energy during the summer

c)

During the summer, the entire planet is closer to the sun

d)

The hemisphere experiencing summer is tilted more directly toward the sun

112.

In the Northern Hemisphere, which day falls closest to January 1?

a)

Winter Solstice

b)

Summer Solstice

c)

Vernal Equinox

d)

Autumnal Equinox

113.

Gravity depends on two factors. What are they?

a)

Volume and density

b)

Mass and distance

c)

Size and shape

d)

Mass and volume

114.

Why is the Earth's gravity stronger than the Moon's gravity?

a)

The Moon is so far away from Earth

b)

The Moon has no mass

c)

The Earth is more massive than the Moon

d)

The Earth has a larger volume than the Moon

115.

What might happen to the Earth if its orbit moved farther away from the Sun?

a)

The Sun's gravitational pull on Earth would decrease

b)

The Sun's gravitational pull on the Earth would increase

c)

The Sun's gravitational pull on Earth would stay the same

d)

The Earth's gravitational pull on the Moon would increase

116.

Would your mass change if you went to the moon?

a)

no

b)

yes

117.

Living in the Northern Hemisphere, at what time of the year can you see Polaris, the North Star? Choose the best answer.

a)

Winter and Fall

b)

Spring and Summer

c)

Summer and Fall

d)

All year

118.

If you wanted to watch a constellation rise one evening, in which direction would you look?

a)

West

b)

East

c)

North

d)

South

119.

What phenomenon is responsible for the fact that some constellations are only visible at certain times during the year?

a)

The revolution of earth around the sun

b)

The revolution of the moon around around the earth

c)

The revolution of the sun around the Milky Way galaxy

d)

The rotation of the earth on its axis

120.

True or False: The moon is Earth's only natural satellite.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

True or False: There are nine planets in our solar system.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

True or False: Some constellations are named for people or animals from Greek myths.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

Which astronomers proved that the orbit of planets are an ellipse? Choose 2 :-)

a)

Copernicus

b)

Brahe

c)

Kepler

d)

Galileo

124.

Which astronomer constructed a telescope and discovered moons orbiting Jupiter?

a)

Copernicus

b)

Brahe

c)

Kepler

d)

Galileo

125.

What defines a planet?

a)

it is round

b)

orbits the sun

c)

has cleared out the region of its orbit

d)

All of the above

126.

True or False: The farther the planet is from the sun, the longer its year is.

a)

True

b)

False

127.

If you wanted to find an asteroid with a telescope, where would be the best place to look?

a)

Between Mars and Jupiter

b)

Between Earth and Venus

c)

Between Jupiter and Saturn

d)

Mercury and Venus

128.

What do asteroids have in common with Earth?

a)

They have oxygen rich atmospheres

b)

They rotate around a central axis

c)

Many of them contain water

d)

They are mostly made of magnesium

129.

Why do asteroids burn up as they enter Earth's atmosphere?

a)

The oxygen trapped inside them ignites in the presence of nitrogen

b)

Because they are covered in extremely flammable material

c)

Heat is created by the friction between the asteroid and the atmosphere

d)

The sun's UV rays ignite them when they pass through the ozone layer

130.

You can see a comet passing Earth:

a)

Practically every night

b)

Once every few weeks

c)

One a year

d)

Very rarely

131.

An astronomical body is located 300,000,000 km from the sun. How many AU is this?

a)

1 AU

b)

2 AU

c)

3 AU

d)

4 AU

132.

True or False: The sun's mass is three-fourths helium and one-fourth hydrogen.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

The sun's interior is made up of the radiative zone, convection zone, and the core. List these layers in order from the innermost layer to the outermost layer

4 lines
134.

Where can you find the photosphere?

a)

1,000 km away from the sun

b)

In the earth's atmosphere

c)

The surface of the sun

d)

Deep within the sun

135.

The sun's atmosphere is made up of the corona, photosphere, and the chromosphere. Which layer looks like a white halo around the sun?

a)

Photosphere

b)

Chromosphere

c)

Corona

136.

Compared to other stars we observe, the Sun appears bigger and brighter because:

a)

It is visible at night

b)

It is much closer to Earth

c)

It has more mass

d)

It is older

137.

In a nuclear fusion reaction, atoms

a)

Split apart

b)

Combine

c)

Explode

d)

Cool down

138.

If Earth was farther from the Sun, the planet's water would be mostly:

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

None of the above

139.

Prominences and sunspots are both:

a)

Jets of burning gas

b)

Patches on the sun's surface

c)

Caused by the sun's electromagnetic field

d)

Visible during an eclipse

140.

Electromagnetic radiation is energy that can travel in the form of waves.

a)

True

b)

False

141.

Wavelength is the distance between the ______ of one wave to the crest of the next.

a)

Crest

b)

Trough

c)

Frequency

142.

Reflecting telescopes use _________ to collect light

a)

Magnifying glasses

b)

Lenses

c)

Mirrors

143.

Refracting telescopes use ____________ to focus light.

a)

Magnifying glasses

b)

Lenses

c)

Mirrors

144.

How many lenses are found in the simplest telescopes?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

145.

A telescope that can enlarge images from very far away has high ______________________.

a)

Magnification

b)

Wavelengths

c)

Aperture

146.

X-ray telescopes magnify images that can't be seen with the naked eye.

a)

True

b)

False

147.

How many people have landed on or orbited the moon?

a)

12

b)

28

c)

17

d)

27

148.

Place the following stages in the life of a low to medium-mass star, like our sun, in order: A) Red Giant; B) Protostar; C) White Dwarf; D) Main Sequence Star; E) Planetary Nebula

a)

B, A, D, E, C,

b)

B, D, A, E, C,

c)

E, A, D, B, C,

d)

E, A, D, B, C

149.

How does a white dwarf compare to our sun as it exists now?

a)

It has a larger mass, but is less dense

b)

It has more mass, and is more dense

c)

It has a similar mass, but is more dense

d)

It has less mass, and is less dense

150.

Large stars will burn out more quickly because they require more fuel, small stars can live much longer

a)

true

b)

false

151.

Our star is an average-sized star, yet appears brighter than others we can see. What idea explains this?

a)

We see the sun's absolute brightness from Earth

b)

We see the sun's apparent brightness from Earth

c)

Our star has a greater mass than others

152.

True or False: A star's size affect its physical characteristics, but its composition does not.

a)

true

b)

false