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Med Lab Semester Exam

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The lymph nodes and spleen are parts of the secondary lymphoid system.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

The formation of an insoluble antigen-antibody complex is called precipitation.

a)

False

b)

True

3.

Any leukocyte can produce monoclonal antibodies.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Humoral immunity is brought about primarily by:

a)

T cells

b)

Lymphokines

c)

Antibodies

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

5.

The antibody class that is predominant in secretions is:

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgD

d)

IgA

e)

IgE

6.

The class of antibody produced first after exposure to antigen is:

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

e)

IgE

7.

Specific immunity is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Specificity

b)

Inflammation

c)

Recognition

d)

Memory

8.

Which of the following is NOT considered secondary lymphoid tissue?

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Spleen

c)

Thymus

d)

Tonsils

9.

All of the following are characteristics of the inflammatory response EXCEPT:

a)

Phagocytic action of the neutrophils

b)

Redness, swelling, pain, and heat

c)

Complement proteins

d)

Antibody production

10.

The cells that are destroyed in HIV infection are:

a)

Monocytes

b)

CD4+ cells

c)

CD8+ cells

d)

B lymphocytes

11.

The largest immunoglobulin is:

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

12.

The reaction that occurs when soluble antigen is reacted with specific antibody is:

a)

agglutination

b)

diffusion

c)

fixation

d)

precipitation

e)

none of the above

13.

The antibody class that is in highest concentration in serum is

(a)  

14.

Cell-mediated immunity is brought about _ lymphocytes.

(a)  

15.

Hypersensitivity or allergy response are associated with _.

(a)  

16.

A foreign substance that induces an immune response by causing antibody production in a(n) _.

(a)  

17.

A hypersensitive condition is more commonly called a(n) _.

(a)  

18.

An individual who is able to produce a normal immune response is said to be _.

(a)  

19.

An individual who has reduced ability to produce an immune response is said to be _.

(a)  

20.

The portion of an antigen that reacts specifically with an antibody is the _.

(a)  

21.

An assay that uses an enzyme-labeled antibody as a reactant is a(n) _.

(a)  

22.

Immunity provided primary by cytokines and lymphocytes is called _ immunity.

(a)  

23.

Clumping of particles

(a)  

24.

Produced from the T cells

(a)  

25.

Bone marrow

(a)  

26.

Insoluble antigen-antibody complex

(a)  

27.

Produced from multiple plasma cell lines

(a)  

28.

Uses enzyme-labeled antibody

(a)  

29.

Lymph nodes and spleen

(a)  

30.

Attachment of the early embryo to the uterus is called an ectopic pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

HCG is produced by the placenta shortly after implantation.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Testing urine for pregnancy is one of the oldest tests, and it was mentioned in Egypt more than 3,000 year ago.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Results of the positive home pregnancy tests should be confirmed by a physical examination.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Serum hCG tests are CLIA waived.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Since rapid hCG tests contain internal controls, it is not necessary to run external controls.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

The use of Standard Precautions is not required when handling urine specimens.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

A false positive hCG test can be seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

a)

Choriocarcinoma

b)

2 weeks after full-term delivery

c)

Testicular tumors

d)

Ovarian tumors

38.

Which of the following is no longer a common hCG test method?

a)

RIA

b)

Urine dipstick

c)

EIA

d)

Agglutination inhibition

39.

Which of the following could be the reason for a negative urine hCG test result when a patient is 2 weeks pregnant?

a)

Urine contains glucose

b)

Urine is positive for protein

c)

Urine specific gravity is 1.028

d)

Urine is too dilute

40.

The term used for substances that are capable of causing birth defects is:

a)

Ectopic

b)

Gonadotropic

c)

Teratogenic

d)

Trophoblastic

e)

None of the above

41.

All of the following are components of hCG quality assessment program EXCEPT:

a)

Discard the kit after the expiration date

b)

Discard used kit materials into a biohazard container

c)

Do not test urine with a kit designed for serum

d)

Store and use the kit according to the manufacturer's directions.

e)

Do not interchange reagents with other kits

42.

A urine "dipstick" test for hCG is available and is CLIA waived if read using a(n) _.

(a)  

43.

After performing a urine hCG test, all used kit materials must be discarded into a(n) _.

(a)  

44.

Because it has the highest hCG concentration, the preferred urine specimen is the first urine voided in the _.

(a)  

45.

If urine cannot be tested immediately for hCG, it can be stored for _ to hours.

(a)  

46.

The results of the hCG tests should be reported following the policy of the institution, but the usual method is to report the test as negative or positive for hCG, not for _.

(a)  

47.

The "hormone of pregnancy" is _.

(a)  

48.

Standard Precautions must be following in hospital blood banks, but are not required at donor centers.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

It is not possible to use disposable supplies in blood banking.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Documentation of the working condition of temperature chambers such as refrigerators and water baths is a critical component of QA in the blood bank.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

A blood transfusion is a transplant.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Although transfusion of incompatible blood can cause adverse reactions, it cannot be a cause of death.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

One form of "artificial blood" that has been used in humans and animals is cell-free hemoglobin.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

The testing of patient blood with potential donor blood is called compatibility testing or crossmatching.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Concentrates containing coagulation factors, such as factor VIII, acn be prepared from donated blood.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Tests of donor blood for evidence of hepatitis B include testing both for anti-hepatitis B antibodies as well as for hepatitis B viral antigen.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Donor blood is routinely tested for the presence of Ebola virus.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Which is true concerning the history of transfusion medicine?

a)

James Blundell preformed the first recorded successful blood transfusion of human blood

b)

Karl Landsteiner discovered the ABO group in 1930

c)

The first hospital blood bank was in San Francisco

d)

The discovery of BSE in the 1980s dramatically changed blood donor policy

59.

The operation of blood banks is ultimately regulated by the:

a)

American Association of Blood Banks (AABB)

b)

U.S Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

c)

Centers for Disease and Prevention (CDC)

d)

All of the above

60.

Typical testing preformed in immunohematology laboratories includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Routine blood typing

b)

Evaluation of suitable blood donors

c)

Providing compatible blood for transfusion

d)

Hemoglobin and hematocrit

61.

Which of the following is a reason to defer a prospective blood donor?

a)

Age < 16

b)

Weight 120lbs

c)

Temperature 37 degrees Celsius

d)

Blood pressure 140/90

e)

Hemoglobin 12 g/dL

62.

Which of the following has NOT been shown to be able to be transmitted by blood transfusion?

a)

Malaria

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Hepatitis B infection

d)

Chagas' disease

e)

HIV infection

63.

Concerning blood donation:

a)

Donor must wait a minimum of 8 months between blood donations

b)

The normal adult circulation contains about 10 pints (4 or 5 liters) of blood

c)

The puncture site is cleaned with alcohol before venipuncture

d)

Blood is collected into a sterile bag containing EDTA

e)

Approximately 1 liter of blood is obtained from each blood donor

64.

As of June 2010, donating blood is tested for evidence of several infectious disease. Which of the following are included in the testing?

a)

HIV, HTLV, and Hep B

b)

HIV, Hep B, and chlamydia

c)

Syphilis, West Nile virus, and HIV

d)

Hep A, Hep B, and Hep C

e)

Strep, Hep A, and HIV

65.

The components of easily obtaining from 1 unit of donated blood include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

RBC

b)

Platelet concentrate

c)

Leukocyte concentrate

d)

Fresh frozen plasma

66.

In blood banking:

a)

ABO is the major blood group

b)

Artificial blood is now in common use

c)

Rh is only one minor importance

d)

Most blood bank reagents come from nonhuman sources

67.

The process of removing a specific blood component and returning the remaining blood to the circulation is _.

(a)  

68.

The common anticoagulant used in blood donor units is:

(a)  

69.

All of the following is true of blood vessels EXCEPT:

a)

Arteries are thick-walled, the strongest type of blood vessel

b)

Veins carry deoxygenated blood

c)

There are about 10000 miles of blood vessels in an adult

d)

Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels

70.

In cardiopulmonary circulation:

a)

Blood is carried from the heart to the tissues

b)

Blood circulates from the heart to the lungs to the tissues

c)

Blood circulates from the heart to the lungs where 02 is picked up by the blood and CO2 is released; the blood then goes back to the heart and is pumped to the tissues to deliver O2

d)

Blood is carried from the heart to the tissue and back to the heart, providing O2 to the tissues

71.

"Thick-walled, elastic, and muscular" describes which type of blood vessel?

(a)  

72.

In the packed cell column after centrifugation of blood, the leukocytes are at the bottom of the column.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

The microhematocrit centrifuge separates the blood into 3 layers: RBCs, WBCs, and thrombocytes.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Microhematocrit capillary tubes are lined with heparin to keep the blood from clotting.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Hemoglobin carries both oxygen and carbon dioxide.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

While counting leukocytes with a hemacytometer, counting only the cells that touch the right and bottom line of the primary square.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

RBC counts are usually done under the low-power objective of the microscope

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Which of the indices were outside of the normal range for your patient?

a)

MCV

b)

MCH

c)

MCHC

d)

MCV & MCH

e)

MCH & MCHC

79.

When you view the cells under the microscope, they will appear

a)

microcytic & hypochromic

b)

macrocytic & hyperchromic

c)

normocytic & normochromic

80.

What do you predict is causing the patient's

a)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

b)

Iron deficiency

c)

Acute blood less

d)

Chronic blood loss

81.

An average value for a microhematocrit on a male adult is _.

a)

25-35%

b)

30-40%

c)

35-45%

d)

40-55%

82.

The blood cells with a normal count of 5,000 to 10,000 cells per cubic millimeter of blood are _.

a)

erythrocytes

b)

leukocytes

c)

thrombocytes

d)

platelets

83.

A low white blood cell count indicates _.

a)

Anemia

b)

Leukopenia

c)

Leukocytosis

d)

Ploycythemia