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2022 MOCK/MOOT FINAL

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Before a federal court has power to make any rulings in any case, it must have:

a)

Subject matter jurisdiction

b)

Personal jurisdiction

c)

Both of these

d)

Neither of these

2.

____ determines who the court has jurisdiction over.

a)

Subject matter jurisdiction

b)

Personal jurisdiction

c)

Both of these

d)

Neither of these

3.

____ determines what claims the court has jurisdiction over.

a)

Subject matter jurisdiction

b)

Personal jurisdiction

c)

Both of these

d)

Neither of these

4.

____ can be either federal question or diversity.

a)

Subject matter jurisdiction

b)

Personal jurisdiction

c)

Both of these

d)

Neither of these

5.

____ requires sufficient minimum contacts.

a)

Subject matter jurisdiction

b)

Personal jurisdiction

c)

Both of these

d)

Neither of these

6.

Most state courts are courts of _____ jurisdiction.

a)

Limited jurisdiction

b)

General jurisdiction

c)

Both of these

d)

Neither of these

7.

Most federal courts are courts of _____ jurisdiction.

a)

Limited jurisdiction

b)

General jurisdiction

c)

Both of these

d)

Neither of these

8.

How do we decide citizenship for individuals:

a)

The state of their home residence

b)

The state of their incorporation

c)

The state of their principal place of business

d)

The state where all of the owners reside

9.

Corporations are citizens of:

a)

The state of their home residence

b)

The state of their incorporation

c)

The state of their principal place of business

d)

The state where all of the owners reside

10.

Partnerships are citizens of:

a)

The state of their home residence

b)

The state of their incorporation

c)

The state of their principal place of business

d)

The state where all of the owners reside

11.

True or False. Once the defendant(s) file a Notice of Removal, the state courts have no jurisdiction to do anything else in the case.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

The notice to a defendant that it has been sued is called a _____

a)

due process

b)

complaint

c)

summons

d)

service of process

13.

The plaintiff starts the case in federal court by filing a _____

a)

due process

b)

complaint

c)

summons

d)

service of process

14.

What happens next if a motion to dismiss is denied:

a)

The case is over

b)

The defendant has 14 days to file an Answer

c)

Neither of these

d)

Both of these

15.

Which of the following statements about stare decisis are true:

a)

It is the legal concept that courts should follow precedent, even if they don’t agree with it.”

b)

Stare decisis applies to all state courts and federal courts, except the U.S. Supreme Court. .

c)

A decision to overrule an earlier case “should rest on some special reason over and above the belief that [the] prior case was wrongly decided.

d)

None of these - "stare decisis" means court decisions ("decisis") must be specifically stated

16.

A strawman argument:

a)

is a fact or opinion that seems relevant to the issue, but really isn't

b)

is a fallacy that attacks a position the opponent doesn’t really hold.

c)

is a fallacy that happens when you mistake something for the cause just because it came first.

d)

is a logical fallacy that assumes a chain of future events without really proving their likelihood.

17.

A red herring :

a)

is a fact or opinion that seems relevant to the issue, but really isn't

b)

is a fallacy that attacks a position the opponent doesn’t really hold.

c)

is a fallacy that happens when you mistake something for the cause just because it came first.

d)

is a logical fallacy that assumes a chain of future events without really proving their likelihood.

18.

Slippery slope:

a)

is a fact or opinion that seems relevant to the issue, but really isn't

b)

is a fallacy that attacks a position the opponent doesn’t really hold.

c)

is a fallacy that happens when you mistake something for the cause just because it came first.

d)

is a logical fallacy that assumes a chain of future events without really proving their likelihood.

19.

Ad hominem:

a)

is a logical fallacy that attacks the person, not the argument.

b)

is a logical fallacy that assumes there are only two possible answers.

c)

is a logical fallacy where a person’s argument is just repeating what they already assumed.

d)

is a logical fallacy that assumes a chain of future events without really proving their likelihood.

20.

False dichotomy:

a)

is a logical fallacy that attacks the person, not the argument.

b)

is a logical fallacy that assumes there are only two possible answers.

c)

is a logical fallacy where a person’s argument is just repeating what they already assumed.

d)

is a logical fallacy that assumes a chain of future events without really proving their likelihood.

21.

Circular reasoning:

a)

is a logical fallacy that attacks the person, not the argument.

b)

is a logical fallacy that assumes there are only two possible answers.

c)

is a logical fallacy where a person’s argument is just repeating what they already assumed.

d)

is a logical fallacy that assumes a chain of future events without really proving their likelihood.

22.

Rules of Civil Procedure:

a)

determine admissibility.

b)

includes opening statements, direct exam, cross-exam, closing arguments.

c)

determine who can sue, where to sue, and how to sue

d)

includes making appropriate restitution for students

e)

includes writing briefs and making oral argument to appellate courts.

23.

Mock trial:

a)

determine admissibility.

b)

includes opening statements, direct exam, cross-exam, closing arguments.

c)

determine who can sue, where to sue, and how to sue

d)

includes making appropriate restitution for students

e)

includes writing briefs and making oral argument to appellate courts.

24.

Moot court:

a)

determine admissibility.

b)

includes opening statements, direct exam, cross-exam, closing arguments.

c)

determine who can sue, where to sue, and how to sue

d)

includes making appropriate restitution for students

e)

includes writing briefs and making oral argument to appellate courts.

25.

Youth court:

a)

determine admissibility.

b)

includes opening statements, direct exam, cross-exam, closing arguments.

c)

determine who can sue, where to sue, and how to sue

d)

includes making appropriate restitution for students

e)

includes writing briefs and making oral argument to appellate courts.

26.

Plaintiffs start a case in federal court by filing a _____.

a)

Motion to Dismiss

b)

Answer

c)

Complaint

d)

Liability

e)

Default Judgment

27.

When ruling on a motion to dismiss, the judge takes the facts alleged in the complaint as _____.

a)

Denied

b)

Granted

c)

Law

d)

True

28.

If the motion to dismiss is _____, the case is over.

a)

Denied

b)

Granted

c)

Law

d)

True

29.

The 14th Amendment extends the Bill of Rights protections to the conduct of _____ employees.

a)

Federal

b)

State

c)

14th

d)

1983

30.

What role does the president play in the process of appointing a U.S. Supreme Court Justice?

a)

Confirm

b)

Nominate

c)

Simple majority

d)

Majority leader

e)

Appointment

31.

What role does the Senate play in the process of appointing a U.S. Supreme Court Justice?

a)

Confirm

b)

Nominate

c)

Simple majority

d)

Majority leader

e)

Appointment

32.

What was a tactic that the minority party used to have (but doesn’t have any more) to stop an appointment to the U.S. Supreme Court?

a)

Filibuster

b)

Nuclear option

c)

Super majority

d)

Expressio unis est exclusio alterius

e)

Cloture

33.

What is it called when there are enough votes to stop a Filibuster?

a)

Filibuster

b)

Nuclear option

c)

Super majority

d)

Expressio unis est exclusio alterius

e)

Cloture

34.

What tactic eliminated the ability of the minority party to stop an appointment to the U.S. Supreme Court?

a)

Filibuster

b)

Nuclear option

c)

Super majority

d)

Expressio unis est exclusio alterius

e)

Cloture

35.

True or False. Under the doctrine of stare decisis, courts routinely overturn controlling precedent if they disagree with it.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

The U.S. Supreme Court normally must follow the precedent that is established by:

a)

The U.S. Supreme Court

b)

U.S. Circuit Courts

c)

U.S. District Courts

d)

None of these

37.

This type of evidence is defined as evidence that is favorable to the defendant in a criminal case:

a)

Exculpatory

b)

Incriminatory

c)

Circumstantial

d)

Testimony

e)

Documents

38.

The prosecutor in a criminal case has a duty to turn over this type of evidence to the defendant:

a)

Exculpatory

b)

Incriminatory

c)

Circumstantial

d)

Testimony

e)

Documents

39.

True or False. We like surprises at trial - that's what makes them fun.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Which of these are things that the rules are intended to "secure" about the "determination" of cases:

a)

Just

b)

Speedy

c)

Inexpensive

d)

All of these

41.

Which of these are limits or requirements for the scope of discovery:

a)

Relevant

b)

Proportional

c)

Not Privileged

d)

All of these

42.

True or False. The RESULT of the attorney-client privilige is often to keep relevant and important evidence away from opposing counsel.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

True or False. Privilege logs are expensive to create, but they are very helpful for opposing counsel.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

True or False. Information is relevant if it has any tendency to make any element of a claim more or less probable.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

True or False. The law requires parties to do everything that they possibly can to preserve all relevant ESI once the duty is triggered.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which type of objections do need to be made during depositions, to avoid waiving the objection at trial.

a)

Substantive objections

b)

Objections to form

47.

True or False. A fact is genuine if reasonable jurors could disagree about it.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

True or False. The court can discount a responding party’s affidavit for lack of credibility.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The ______ period is often the longest and most expensive part of court cases.

a)

Trial

b)

Discovery

c)

Pleadings

d)

Summary Judgment

50.

True or False. Most criminal cases go to a trial, where a jury decides if the defendant is guilty.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

True or False. As part of plea agreements, the defendants are allowed plead not guilty to what they have been charged with.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

True or False. As part of plea agreements, the prosecutor can promise to give the defendant a shorter sentence.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

If the prosecutor promises a defendant something, and the defendant relies on the promise, is the state required to honor the promise if a new attorney takes over as prosecutor?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Maybe

54.

True or False. Arbitrators must be attorneys or retired judges.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Two Truths and a Lie. Pick the Lie: Which of these is normally NOT involved in picking three arbitrators:

a)

Each party picks one arbitrator

b)

The two arbitrators picked by the parties picks the third arbitrator

c)

One party picks all three arbitrators

56.

Which of these should you call by their name, instead of their role in the case:

a)

Petitioner

b)

Respondent

c)

Both of these

d)

Neither of these

57.

True or False. Your summary of argument should include all the cases that support your argument.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

True or False. You should avoid using headings and sub-headings, because they break up the flow of the brief.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

For most cases, which of these is MOST likely to win the case:

a)

Arguing that the case presents a new question of law that SCOTUS hasn't already decided

b)

Arguing that SCOTUS should reverse or over-rule one of its prior decisions

c)

Arguing that a prior SCOTUS decision supports your position

d)

None of these are likely to win

60.

Under the _____ doctrine, SCOTUS is unlikely to reverse its prior decisions.

a)

Stare decisis

b)

Res Ipsa

c)

Inclusio unis

d)

Exclusio Alterus

61.

Is there an education requirement for SCOTUS Justices?

a)

YES

b)

NO

c)

MAYBE

62.

Which of these are part of the appeal at SCOTUS:

a)

a jury

b)

witnesses testifying

c)

Neither of these

d)

Both of these

63.

True or False. If an attorney objects to a question during a deposition because the question calls for privleged information, the witness doesn’t answer the question until the attorneys can get a judge to rule on the objection.

a)

True

b)

False