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Principles of Health Science Final Exam

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

the area of the body where you take a carotid pulse is...

a)

the neck

b)

the groin area

c)

the wrist

d)

the inside of your elbow

2.
When a disaster occurs, a CERT member's first responsibility is to
a)
Join the CERT in disaster response efforts
b)
Help professional responders
c)
Ensure personal and family safety
d)
Do the greatest good for the greatest number
3.

What methods are available to control bleeding in a disaster situation?

a)

Tourniquet

b)

Elevation

c)

Direct pressure

d)

All of the above

4.
Which of the following is an effective strategy for eliminating or reducing potential fire hazards in the home and workplace?
a)
Install a fireplace screen that allows a fire to be left unattended.
b)
Store flammable liquids away from heat sources. 
c)
Place extension cords beneath rugs so they do not become tripping hazards.
d)
Inspect wood stoves and chimney flues every five to seven years. 
5.

CERT members can control most bleeding by putting direct pressure on the wound and:

a)

Cauterizing (burning) the wound

b)

Elevating the wound

c)

Covering the wound in ice

d)

Submerging the wound in water

6.

The first action to take when approaching a victim is:

a)

Check for pulse

b)

Control bleeding

c)

Survey the area for safety

d)

Assess airway

7.

Which of the following is considered in most health care agencies as the 5th vital sign?

a)

Blood Pressure

b)

Pain

c)

Pulse

d)

Temperature

8.

Which of the following is the normal range for pulse?

a)

60-100

b)

80-100

c)

12-20

d)

60-80

9.

What is the normal range for systolic blood pressure?

a)

100-140

b)

90-110

c)

100-120

d)

60-80

10.

Which of the following is the normal rang for diastolic blood pressure?

a)

100-140

b)

100-120

c)

60-80

d)

60-100

11.

Which of the of the following measurements would you immediately report to the nurse?

a)

Blood Pressure: 86/36

b)

Pulse: 98

c)

Respirations: 18

d)

Pulse Ox: 100%

12.

Mrs. McFlurry tells you she is having difficulty breathing. Which of the following vital signs should the CPT measure:

a)

Respirations

b)

SPO2

c)

Pulse

d)

All the Above

13.

The CPT enters the room to do a blood draw. When assessing Mrs. Jefferson's pain level, she tells you that her pain is 8/10. What should the nurse aide do next?

a)

Tell the nurse.

b)

Give Mrs. Jefferson her prescribed pain medication.

c)

Ask Mrs. Jefferson where is the location of the pain.

d)

Ask Mrs. Jefferson why she is in pain.

14.

What is the normal range for respirations?

a)

10-18

b)

14-20

c)

12-24

d)

12-20

15.

What is the normal range for SPO2?

a)

90%-100%

b)

100%-110%

c)

95%-100%

d)

80%-100%

16.

the area of the body where you take a radial pulse is

a)

the neck

b)

the wrist

c)

the groin

d)

the inside of the elbow

17.

slow heart rate of less than a 60 bpm

a)

tachycardia

b)

bradcardia

c)

tachypnea

d)

bradypnea

18.

the following are routes to take a temperature EXCEPT ...

a)

oral

b)

temporal

c)

axillary

d)

femoral

19.

all the following are normal ranges for vital signs EXCEPT

a)

blood pressure of 140/90

b)

12-20 respirations per minute

c)

98.6 degrees Fahrenheit temperature

d)

60-100 bpm

20.

The most accurate mode of taking temperature is...

a)

oral

b)

axillary

c)

rectal

d)

tympanic

21.

Normal respirations are .....

a)

12-20 per minute

b)

10-25 per minute

c)

11-22 per minute

d)

5-30 per minute

22.

High blood pressure is...

a)

tachycardia

b)

hypotension

c)

bradycardia

d)

hypertension

23.

the area of the body where you take a carotid pulse is...

a)

the neck

b)

the groin area

c)

the wrist

d)

the inside of your elbow

24.

What is the unit of measurement for blood pressure?

a)

mmHg

b)

°C\degree C  

c)

BPM

25.

You were assigned to take vital signs on patient on a 62 year old adult male. Vital signs were blood pressure 162/99 mm Hg,

Pulse 131 beats per minute, respiratory rate 14, SpO2 88%. Which vital sign reflects a measurement within normal limits?

a)

blood pressure

b)

pulse

c)

pulse oximetry

d)

respirations

26.
All CERT decisions are made with what key question in mind? 
a)
Who is the Incident Commander in this situation?
b)
How quickly can the CERT assist the survivors?
c)
 Is it safe for CERT members to attempt this task?
d)
When will professional responders arrive at the scene?
27.

Respiration means _________________?

a)

one expiration

b)

one inspiration

c)

one inspiration and expiration

d)

hold breath

28.

Which of the following is considered in most health care agencies as the 5th vital sign?

a)

Blood Pressure

b)

Pain

c)

Pulse

d)

Temperature

29.

To check blood pressure, palpate the ________ artery with your first three fingers: It’s found in the bend of the arm, closest to the patient.

a)

radial

b)

brachial

c)

carotid

d)

temporal

30.

Find the pulse of the patient’s _______ artery by using the index and middle fingers. Never use the _______ to find the patient’s pulse because the ______ has its own pulse.

a)

Radial; thumb

b)

Thumb; radial

c)

Brachial; thumb

d)

Thumb; brachial

31.

A fast pulse is also called...

a)

tachycardia

b)

tachypnea

c)

bradycardia

d)

bradypnea

32.

When checking blood pressure, let the needle of the gauge fall about 2 mmHg per second. The first sound you hear is the _______ number. The last sound you hear is the _______ number.

a)

systolic; diastolic

b)

diastolic; systolic

c)

systolic; systolic

33.
Number of beats or respirations per minute
a)
Character
b)
Rate
c)
Rhythm
d)
Volume
34.

When the heart is contracting, the pressure is highest.

This pressure is what we know as _________.

a)

Diastolic Pressure

b)

Systolic Pressure

35.

It is the force of the blood pushing against the walls of the blood vessels.

a)

Temperature

b)

Blood Pressure

c)

Pulse Rate

36.
Regularity of pulse or respirations
a)
Character
b)
Rate
c)
Rhythm
d)
Volume
37.
_______________ can be counted most accurately if a patient is not aware of the procedure
a)
Weight
b)
Height
c)
Vision
d)
Respirations
38.

You are caring for a patient with a respiratory rate of 38 breaths per minute. This could be documented as:

a)
Bradycardia
b)
Bradypnea
c)
Tachypnea
d)
Tachycardia
39.

Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute in a 26 year old adult female would be considered this:

a)
Bradycardia
b)
Bradypnea
c)

Tachypnea

d)
Dyspnea
40.

A patient's respiratory rate is zero. This would be described as:

a)
Apnea
b)
Arrhythmia
c)
Dyspnea
d)
Apical pulse
41.
Pulse count taken by listening to apex of heart
a)
Radial pulse
b)
Brachial pulse
c)
Apical pulse
d)
Temporal pulse
42.

The arrow is pointing to which pulse site?

a)

Temporalis

b)

Dorsalis Pedis

c)

Common Carotid

43.

individuals who can attest to the applicant’s abilities at work, school and in character

a)

Friends

b)

Contact Information

c)

Parents

d)

References

44.

Pulse rate 52 beats per minute in a 42 year old male.

a)
Tachycardia
b)
Tachypnea
c)
Bradycardia
d)
Bradypnea
45.

The arrow is pointing to which pulse site?

a)

Femoral

b)

Radial

c)

Brachial

46.
A resume is:
a)
a written compilation of your education and personal references
b)
a written compilation of your education and work experience
c)
 a written compilation of your education, work experience, credentials, and accomplishments
d)
none of the above
47.

What is the purpose of a resume?

a)

to get a job

b)

to show off

c)

to transfer companies

d)

to get an interview

48.

Nutrients that provide materials that form the cell membranes and the tissues that protect organs

a)

Proteins

b)

Fats

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Amino Acids

49.
Cover letters are generally _____ page at most in length.
a)
Four
b)
Three
c)
Two
d)
One
50.

A sugar that is a major source of energy for the body's cells

a)

Glucose

b)

Mineral

c)

Sugar

d)

Cellulose

51.

Energy-containing nutrients that include sugars and starch

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Minerals

c)

Bread

d)

Calorie

52.

What are the six types of nutrients your body needs to carry out all its essential processes?

a)

Proteins, vitamins, viruses, water, minerals, carbohydrates

b)

Minerals, fats, proteins, water, oxygen, vitamins

c)

Carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins, minerals, water

d)

Carbohydrates, fats, protists, vitamins, minerals, water

53.

Nutrients that are not made by living things

a)

Minerals

b)

Glucose

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Vitamins

54.

The amount of energy needed to raise the temperatiure of one gram of water by one degree of Celsius

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Glucose

c)

Vitamins

d)

Calorie

55.

Which of the following are macronutrients?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

minerals

c)

fats

d)

vitamins

e)

protein

56.

_____ are vitamins used by the body but not stored. Excess will be elimated.

a)

water soluble vitamins

b)

fat soluble vitamins

c)

antioxidants

57.

_____ are vitamins that protect cells from damage.

a)

water soluble vitamins

b)

fat soluble vitamins

c)

antioxidants

58.

Examples include Vitamin C and K

a)

minerals

b)

vitamins

c)

water

59.

_____ are vitamins that are stored by the body, so care must be used to not overconsume.

a)

water soluble vitamins

b)

fat soluble vitamins

c)

antioxidants

60.

Which of the following are micronutrients?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

minerals

c)

fats

d)

vitamins

e)

water

61.

The gold standard method to confirm placement of an NG tube is:

a)

Aspiration

b)

X-ray

c)

pH

d)

Auscultation

62.

Examples include calcium and magnesium

a)

minerals

b)

vitamins

c)

water

63.

This micronutrient is required for almost all chemical reactions in the body.

a)

minerals

b)

vitamins

c)

water

64.

NG tube diameter is measured in?

a)

Gauge

b)

French

c)

Italian

d)

Inches

65.

NG tube insertion length is determined by measuring:

a)

from the nose to the xyphoid process

b)

from the earlobe to the xyphoid process

c)

from the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xyphoid process

d)

from the earlobe to the tip of the nose to the xyphoid process

66.

NG tubes can be used for all of the following except?

a)

IV Fluid

b)

Decompression of fluids and gas from the stomach

c)

Nutrition as a feeding tube

d)

Irrigate and remove toxins in the stomach

67.

Prior to inserting a urinary catheter, which of the following should always be assessed?

a)

Assess for ambulatory status (walking ability)

b)

Assess for respiratory status

c)

Assess for allergies for latex and iodine

d)

Assess for adhesive allergies

68.

What bed position do you place the client in when inserting a NG tube?

a)

Supine

b)

Tredelenburg

c)

Fowlers

69.

Assess a patient for adhesive allergies prior to nasogastric tube insertion.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Why might urine stop draining from a urinary catheter? (select all that apply)

a)

It may become kinked or blocked

b)

The patient may chew through the line

c)

The bag is left above the level of the patient

d)

The urinary catheter may be dislodged

71.

True or False: A foley urinary catheter has an inflatable balloon to keep it in place.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Which statement shows understanding of why the catheter is secured to the leg? Select all that apply.

a)

taping the catheter to the leg helps to keep it from getting pulled out

b)

taping the catheter helps keep the insertion point from becoming irritated

c)

there is no need to tape the catheter if it is clamped to a patient's gown

73.

Choose two patient identifiers:

a)

Social Security Number

b)

Name

c)

Room Number

d)

Telephone Number

e)

Date of Birth

74.

What's this?

a)

pill

b)

capsule

c)

drops

d)

spray

75.

What's this?

a)

syrup

b)

drops

c)

tablet

d)

ointment

76.

What's this?

a)

suppository

b)

inhaler

c)

spray

d)

syrup

77.

What's this?

a)

decongestant spray

b)

nasal drops

c)

nasal spray

d)

inhaler

78.

What's this?

a)

eye drops

b)

nasal drops

c)

inhaler

d)

vitamins

79.

What's this?

a)

spray

b)

dropper

c)

tablet

d)

inhaler

80.

Common intramascular injection site for infants?

a)

Deltoid

b)

Right Dorsogluteal

c)

Left Dorsogluteal

d)

Vastus Lateralis

81.

The doctor have prescribed syrup paracetamol 200mg. Available syrup paracetamol is 250mg/5ml. How much would you administer?

a)

4mg/kg

b)

4ml

c)

0.4ml

d)

44ml

82.

Mr. Smith is to take 0.75 grams of a medication. Each tablet is 0.5 g. How many tablets should Mr. Smith take (expressed as a common fraction)?

a)

2

b)

2 1/2

c)

1 1/2

d)

3

83.

Order: Hydrochlorothiazide 75 mg po

Supply: scored tablets 50 mg

How much medication will you give the patient?

a)

0.5 tablets

b)

1 tablet

c)

1.5 tablets

d)

2 tablets

84.

In this position, the patient is lying on their back with knees straight and arm at the sides

a)

Prone

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Sims position

d)

Supine

85.

Patient lying on the back, with knees bent and feet flat on the examination table, arms are at sides

a)

Dorsal recumbant

b)

Prone

c)

Supine

d)

Lithotomy

86.

Patient lying on the stomach, with knee straight, forearms may be under the head

a)

Prone

b)

Dorsal Recumbant

c)

Supine

d)

Lithotomy

87.

The patient lies on back, with knees straight and arms at sides, then with the head lower than the trunk and the knees straight.

a)

Sims' Position

b)

Modified Trendelenburg Position

c)

Trendelenburg Position

d)

Knee-chest Position

88.

To prevent bed sores, ___________

a)

Don't move the patient at all

b)

Actively move and turn the patient

c)

Place the patient sitting upright in a chair

89.

How often must you turn a patient that can not turn themselves?

a)

Every 30 mins

b)

Every 2 hours

c)

Every 4 hours

d)

Every 12 hours

90.

The patient is sitting, with legs extended and the trunk at a 90-degree angle; the back is supported by the examining table. Sometimes the knees are elevated.

a)

Sitting

b)

Trendelenburg Position

c)

Knee-chest Position

d)

Fowler's Position

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