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Pharm exam 1 (semester 1)

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which of the following statements bests conveys the complicated nature of pharmacology?

a)

There are over 10,000 brand and generic varieties of drug with many different names, interaction, side effects, and complex mechanisms of action.

b)

Many drugs may be prescribed for more than one disease and produce many different actions in the body.

c)

Drugs may elicit different responses depending on factors such as sex,age, health status,body mass, and genetics

d)

All of the above statements convey the complicated nature of pharmacology.

2.

The branch of medicine dealing with general treatment of suffering and disease is:

a)

Pharmacotherapeutics

b)

Pathophyioslogy

c)

Therapeutics

d)

Pharamacy

3.

Which of the following choices is common to traditional drug therapies, biological therapies, and natural alternative therapies?

a)

Include herbs, extracts, vitamins,minerals, or dietary supplements

b)

Includes hormones, monoclonal antibodies, and vaccines

c)

May be recommended, or routinely prescirbed ny healthcare providers

d)

Drugs are syntheticly produced in a laboratory

4.

Therapeutic drugs differ from foods, household products, and cosmetics in that:

a)

Only therapeutic drugs can induce a biological response

b)

Foods, household products, and cosmetics are not traditionally designed for the treatment of disease and suffering

c)

Drugs may be considered a part of body's normal activities

d)

Drugs are narrowly defined

5.

Which of the following statements best describes an advantage of prescription drugs over OTC drugs?

a)

OTC drugs do not require a physicians order

b)

Prescription drugs ensure that harmful reactions, ineffective treatment, or a progressive disease state will not occur.

c)

Only patients authorized to receive prescriptions drugs will take these medications

d)

The practitioner can maxamize therapy by ordering the amount and frequency to be dispensed

6.

Which branch of the food and drug administration (FDA) handles approval of vaccines and hormones?

a)

Center for drugs evaluation and research (CDER)

b)

Center for biologics evaluation and research (CBER)

c)

Center for food safely and applied nutrition (CFSAN)

d)

National center for complementary and alternative medicine (NCCAM)

7.

Clinical phase trials:

a)

Are extremely useful drug evaluation due to the potential variability of response observed among patients

b)

Generally take less time than the preclinical investigation process

c)

Are not extended after a drug has been marketed to the general public

d)

Begin only after an NDA has been submitted to the FDA for approval

8.

The FDA was officially established as an agency of the U.S. department of health and human services in:

a)

1862

b)

1906

c)

1938

d)

1988

9.

In 1997, the FDA created an approach to regulate drugs with "special problems." At the time no precedent had been established to monitor drugs with potential for causing death or serious injury. This approach was specifically called:

a)

Bioterrorism act guidelines

b)

Food safety modernization act provisions

c)

Black box warnings

d)

Critical path Intiative guidlines

10.

Some consumers are concerned that the FDA moderization act of 1997:

a)

Enabled the FDA to collect too much money from drug and biolic manufacturers

b)

Allowed the FDA to hire too many employees

c)

Allowed drugs to be approved to be approved for therapeutic use in the United States

d)

Restructured its own organization in an adverse way

11.

The devestation caused by bioterrorist avtivity or natural disaster would primarily be associated with which of the following factors?

a)

Little time to develop antidotes

b)

Inability to identify, isolate, and treat, widespread diseases

c)

Widespread harm or illness, including panic and major casualties

d)

Overwhelming of healthcare services

12.

Drug products having the same impact on the body, and for all intents and purposes the same medication and dose, are considered to have the same:

a)

Bioavailability

b)

Mechanism of action

c)

Therapeutic usefulness

d)

Bioequivalence

13.

The pharmacologic prototype approache to drug therapy considers the :

a)

Most popular drug for a particular disorder

b)

Most commonly used drug in a particular class

c)

Representative drug for how other drugs in a particular class work

d)

Drug of choice for a particular disorder

14.

The preferred and less complicated drug name given by the united states Adopted name council is the:

a)

Generic name

b)

Brand name

c)

Chemical name

d)

Trade name

15.

Generic drug names are preffered over other drug names for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

a)

there may be dozens of product names for a particular drug

b)

Chemical names are often complicated and difficult to remember or pronounce

c)

Healthcare proffesionals most often use generic drug names when describing a medication

d)

The generic drug name is an assigned name that can be consistently matched with a medications active ingredients

16.

Drugs are sometimes placed on a formulary list because:

a)

Brand nam drugs are generally more expensive than generic drugs

b)

Many generic drugs are unsafe to substitute for equivalent brand name products

c)

Healthcare pratitioners need to know which generic drug equivalents are considered unsafe

d)

Some generic drugs are unsafe to substitute for equivalent brand name products

17.

In the united states, controlled substances are drugs

a)

Where hospitals and pharamacies must register with the DEA, and use their assigned registration number in order to purchase them

b)

Where telephone orders to a pharamacy are permitted

c)

that have little or no therpeuatic vakue or are intended for research purposes only

d)

Designated as drugs requiring a prescription for their sale

18.

A teratogen is:

a)

A substance having the potential to produce dependence

b)

Any substance that will harm a developing fetus or embryo

c)

A drug used exclusively for research purposes

d)

A drug whose use is restricted without a prescription

19.

The main reason trade names are such a challenge is because

a)

Most contain more than one active generic ingredient, making it difficult to match one generic name with one product name

b)

There are dozens of product names containing similar ingredients

c)

The generic name is usually written in lowercase, whereas the trade name is capitalized

d)

They are often very complicated and difficult to pronounce

20.

According to the U.S. Drug enforcement administration (DEA), which of the following drug categories has the highest abuse potential ?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Scdeule IV

21.

Which of the following drug categories is the safest in terms of its teratogenic effects?

a)

Category A

b)

Category B

c)

Category C

d)

Category D

22.

For some long-term healthcare facilities or nursing homes________, or exchange of medicines within the same therapeutic or pharmacologic class, may be authorized for distribution to patients.

a)

Combination therapy

b)

Therapeutic interchange

c)

Trade Interchange

d)

Pharmacologic therapy

23.

Which of the following is NOT a routine order?

a)

Before bedtime

b)

Before meals

c)

STAT

d)

When needed /neccessary

24.

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate drug administration guideline?

a)

Review the medication order for drug allergies

b)

Identify the patient by asking the person to state his or her full name (or, if the patient is confused, by asking the parent or guardian)

c)

Ask the patient about known allergies ,and check to see if he or she is wearing an allergy identification band

d)

Do not leave the patient's bedside. Ask for assistance from other hospital staff to secure proper equipment and supplies, such as water and cups.

25.

Of the following patients which would be appropriate for rectal administration ?

a)

Unconscious patient

b)

Ptient experiencing nausea or vomiting

c)

Infant who cannot swallow pills

d)

All of the above

26.

Which of the following drug delivery methods is NOT a parental method of drug delivery and avoids the first pass effect in the liver?

a)

Oral

b)

Intravenous

c)

Intramuscular

d)

Sublingual

27.

Which of the following is an advantage of IV drug administration ?

a)

The duration of drug actioncan be easily controlled

b)

It is relatively free from dangerous effects

c)

A precise concentration of drug can be administered into the bloostream

d)

The onset of drug action can be easily controlled

28.

What is a disadvantage of subcutaneous drug delivery?

a)

The final drug concentration within the blood stream is unpredictable

b)

Drugs cannot be confined to a precise location

c)

For safety reasons, patients, must be conscious when they receive a subcutaneous injection

d)

Pain, swelling, or infection may occur if proper precautions are not taken

29.

If rapid onset of action were critical, which of the following routes would the nurse choose?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Intramuscular

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Rectal

30.

Which of the following drug administration methods would the nurse use for the tuberculin test purified protein derivative (PPD)

a)

Topical

b)

Intramuscular

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Intramuscular

31.

Implants are geneally administered by which drug delivery method

a)

Intradermal

b)

Subcutaneous

c)

Intraperitoneal

d)

Intramuscular

32.

To Shrink swollen mucous membranes or to loosen secretions and facilitate drainage , drops or spray are often used for their local ____ effect?

a)

Infusion

b)

Astringent

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

Transmucosal

33.

Which of the following is most rarely used for IM injections?

a)

Ventrogluteal

b)

Deltoid

c)

Dorsogluteal

d)

Vastus Lateralis

34.

Which of the following statements is true about IV infusions

a)

Bolus injections should only be given by direct IV push

b)

A flow regulator must always be used when injecting drugs directly into the bloodstream

c)

Intermittenet infusion is used to give additional medications such as antibiotics or anelgesics, over an extended time

d)

Large volume infusion is used for fluid maintenance, replacement, or supplementation

35.

What is the deepest skin layer?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Hypodermis (also called subcutaneous layer)

d)

Muscular layer

36.

Which of the following statements is true regarding topical drug applications?

a)

For local effect, it id desireable to keep drugs from penetrating the skin barrier

b)

Liquids and liquid mixtures are most effective physical compositions for topical drug therapy

c)

In some cases topical drugs are administered to ensure slow release and absorption into the general circulation

d)

All of the above are correct

37.

What is the most common type of drug formulation used for otic and ophthalmic routes of administration?

a)

Salves

b)

Ointments

c)

Drops

d)

Sprays

38.

The process of moving a drug from its site of administration across one or more body membranes is called

a)

Absorption

b)

Distribution

c)

Meatbolism

d)

Excretion

39.

The process that describes how drugs are transported in the body is:

a)

Absorption

b)

Distribution

c)

Metabolism

d)

Excretion

40.

The term used to describe how much of a drug is available to produce a biological response is:

a)

Volume of distribution

b)

Rate of elimination

c)

Bioavailability

d)

Half-Life (t1/2)

41.

The fact that the half-life (t1/2) of drug A is longer than that of drug B might be explained by a Higher:

a)

Metabolic rate for Drug A

b)

Rate of elimination for drug B

c)

potentcy for drug A

d)

Effectiveness for drug b

42.

One reason that the first-pass effect is so important is that drugs absorbed at the level of the digestive tract:

a)

Are circulated directly back to the heart

b)

Are distributed to the rest of the body and their target organs

c)

Have ultimately more bioavailability than they would if absorbed at a different locations

d)

Are routed through the hepatic portal ciculation

43.

Drug doses are often __________ when administered to children or the elderly

a)

decreased to account for increased metabolism

b)

increased to account for increased metabolism

c)

decreased to account for decreased metabolism

d)

increased to account for decreased metabolism

44.

Substances that enter the body are removed by:

a)

Urination

b)

Defecation

c)

Sweating

d)

All of the above choices

45.

Which of the following statments is NOT correct regarding excretion by the lungs?

a)

Factors that affect gas exchange influnce the respiratory excretion rate

b)

The greaterthe flow of blood into lung capillaries the greater the respiratory excretion rate

c)

Drugs easily converted to gases,such as ethanol, are especially suited for excretion by the respiratory system

d)

The lungs excrete most drugs as products of metabolism

46.

For drugs easily dissolved in bile

a)

Enterohepatic recirculation significantly decreases the duration of drug action

b)

The entire drug amount is absorbed with the bile in the intestinal tract

c)

Drugs are subject to metabolism by the liver

d)

A fraction of drug amount is eliminated from the body through defecation

47.

Which of the following is most important regarding excretion mechanisms and the breats?

a)

Drugs excreted into breast milk may significantly harm the nursing infant

b)

The breasts are a modified type of sweat gland

c)

Urea and other waste products are eliminated naturally from the breasts

d)

Natural alternative agents are considered safe and not excreted into breast milk

48.

Antagonists :

a)

Are sometimes reffered to as facillitators of drug action

b)

Can produce an effect by interacting with receptors

c)

Inhibit or block th action of agonist drugs

d)

All of the above

49.

Mr. J just returned from surgery. As the nurse you are taking vital signs, checking his incision site, and determining if he is in pain. With these actions, what step of the nursing process are you using?

a)

Evaluation

b)

Planning

c)

Assessment

d)

Implementation

50.

Mr. J has begun to complain of pain in his incisions site. As the nurse, you are to administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV. With these actions, what step of the nursing process are you using?

a)

Evaluation

b)

Planning

c)

Assessment

d)

Implementation

51.

Mr. J has inquired about the physical therapy he will be receiving to regain his mobility after his knee replacement surgery. As the nurse, you will interact with physical therapy to coordinate his plan of care. With these actions, what step of nursing process are you using.

a)

Evaluation

b)

Planning

c)

Assessment

d)

Implementation

52.

Mr. J received the physical therapy and has regained his knee replacement surgery. As the nurse, you interact with physical therapy to determine if he is ready to be discharged from this skilled unit. With these actions, what step of nursing process are you using?

a)

Evaluation

b)

Planning

c)

Assessment

d)

Implementation

53.

Ms.L is complaining of pain in her right hip and a burning sensation in the area around her incision. As the nurse, you are recording these findings. What type of information have you gathered?

a)

objective data

b)

Subjective data

c)

Outcomes

d)

goals

54.

Ms. L is complaining of pain in her right hip. As the nurse, you have assessed the area and have found swelling, redness, and open areas, and there is history of trauma to the hip. What type of information have you gathered?

a)

Objective data

b)

Subjective data

c)

Outcomes

d)

Goals

55.

Ms. L is complaining of pain in her right hip. As the nurse, you have assessed the area and have found swelling, redness, and open areas, and there is a history of trauma to the hip. The information may be used to compare with assessment information gathered at a later date. What type of information have you gathered?

a)

Objective data

b)

Subjective data

c)

Outcomes

d)

Baseline Data

56.

Mrs. C is recovering from a fracture of the right hip. The interdisciplinary team has established a schedule of physical therapy for her. She will ambulate using a walker with the assist of one member of the team for 50 feet three times a day for 1 Week, to be increased to 100 feet three times a day for 2 weeks, then to be changed to a quad cane and standby assist for 2 weeks, then to be changes to a quad cane and standby assist for 2 weeks, and then discharged to home. What type of information has been presented?

a)

Outcomes

b)

Goals

c)

Baseline data

d)

Objective data

57.

What factor established from the patients health history would suggest the greatest potential for nonadhearances to the medication regimen?

a)

Male

b)

Female

c)

Older adult

d)

lives in a rural area

58.

The nurse is developing goals and outcomes for MS. D who is being discharged today following recent abdominal surgery. One key element regarding these goals is that they:

a)

Should be focused on the patients needs

b)

Should be focused on the nurses opinions

c)

Should include at least three outcomes

d)

Should not be seen by the patient prior to discharge

59.

The nurse writes "Deficeint knowledge related to a lack of information about adverse drug effects" on a patients record. This statement is considered a(N):

a)

Intervention

b)

Outcome

c)

Nursing diagnosis

d)

Assessment

60.

All drugs have more than one:

a)

Name

b)

Active ingredient

c)

Generic name

d)

Indication

61.

How do therapeutic drugs differ from foods, household products, and cosmetics?

a)

Only therapeutic drugs can induce a biologic response

b)

Food, household products, and cosmetics are not traditionally designed for treatment of disease and suffering

c)

Drugs may not be considered part of the body's normal activities

d)

Drugs are narrowly defined

62.

Which method is used for delivering large volumes of medications?

a)

Intradermal

b)

Intravenous

c)

Intramuscular

d)

Subcutaneous

63.

To produce an effect, most drugs must interact or bind to:

a)

Another drug

b)

Plasma proteins

c)

A specific receptor

d)

Hepatic enzymes

64.

What is the process of moving a drug from its site of administration across one or more body membranes

a)

Absorption

b)

Metabolism

c)

Distribution

d)

Excretion

65.

A patient is discharged with a newly prescribed blocker for control of hypertension. The nurse gives discharge instructions. It is inappropriate to include which of the following instructions prior to the patients leaving?

a)

Report any difficulty with urination

b)

Take the mediction for the first time directly prior to getting into bed

c)

Monitor blood pressure and pulse daily

d)

Return for laboratory tests to monitor renal function

66.

An adrenergiv blocker is MOST DIRECTLY related to which of the following ?

a)

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

b)

Inhabittion of the parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervours system

d)

Inhabition of the sympathetic nervous system

67.

How does bethanechol (Urecholine) exert its effects?

a)

Stimulates cholinergic receptors

b)

Blocks cholinergic receptors

c)

Blocks beta receptors

d)

Stimulate alpha receptors

68.

What drugs block the action of norepinephrine at alpha and beta receptors?

a)

Parasympathomimetics

b)

Parasymthomimetrics

c)

Sympaatholytics

d)

Sympatholytics

69.

A nurse is to gove phenylephrine parenterally. What safety precaution would be necessary especially with this drug?

a)

Monitor patency throughout the infusion

b)

Monitor the temperature of the patient every 1 hour during the infusion

c)

Monitor for central nervous (CNS) depression

d)

Monitor for hypotension throughout the infusion.

70.

Parasympathomimetics are safe for patients diagnosed with which of the following ?

a)

Myasthenia gravis

b)

GI obstruction

c)

Asthma

d)

Angina or dysrhythmias

71.

How does propranolol (Inderal) excert its effects?

a)

Stimulates cholinergic receptors

b)

Blocks cholinergic receptos

c)

Blocks beta receptors

d)

Stimulates alpha receptors

72.

Pseudophedrine has been ordered for a patient with nasal congestion. The nurse knows that the drug can give which of the following side effects

a)

Hypertension, insomnia, and tachycardia

b)

Drowsiness and dry mouth

c)

Increased heart rate and abdominal cramps

d)

Dilated pupils and orthostatic hypotension

73.

Anticholinerigics may be used in the treatment of peptic ulcers. which action makes this drug useful in thus condition?

a)

Decreases gastric emptying time

b)

Decreases gastric acid secretions

c)

Decreases intestinal motility

d)

Relaxes gastric smooth muscles

74.

What are sympathomimetics also called?

a)

Cholinergic drugs

b)

Adrenergic drugs

c)

Cholinergic blockers

d)

Adrenergic blockers

75.

Epinephrine is nonselectice adrenergic drug. What is the disadvantage of this nonspecific action?

a)

It causes more autonomic side effects

b)

This drug cannot be used for nervous system conditions

c)

It will not cross the blood-brain barrier

d)

It can only be given by subcutaneous method

76.

A patient is prescribed Mestinon for myasthenia gravis. Which of the following would be inappropriate to teach the patient?

a)

Take the drug at the same times each day

b)

Take the drug on a full stomach

c)

Monitor liver enzymes as requested

d)

Maintain journal of episodes of weakness and how long they occur after the drug is given

77.

Neostigmine is an example of which of the following ?

a)

Cholinergic blocker

b)

Nicotinic blocker

c)

Cholinergic drug

d)

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

78.

Which of the following drugs dry up body secretions?

a)

Bethanachol (Urecholine)

b)

Metoprolol (Lopressor)

c)

Atropine (AtroPen)

d)

Doxazosin (Cardura)

79.

Atropine is usually not precribed for any patient with glaucoma. The nurse kmows that the contraindication is due to which of the following effects of atropine?

a)

Increase in intraocular pressure

b)

Decrease in lacrimation

c)

Decrease in lateral movement of the eyes

d)

Increase in difficulty with night vision due to pupillary constriction

80.

Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is most similar to which abused substance?

a)

Tetrahydrocannbinol (THC)

b)

Ketamine

c)

Methamphetamine

d)

Ethyl alcohol

81.

When a drug is reffered to as an agonist, it can do which of the following?

a)

Be a facilitator of an action

b)

Be an inhibitor of an action

c)

Have a potentiated action

d)

Make one drug interact with another drug

82.

What are most commonly abused sympathomimetrics?

a)

Amphetamines

b)

Methyldopa (Aldomet)

c)

Sudated/Pseudoephedrine

d)

Marijuana

83.

What is an example of an illegal CNS stimulant?

a)

Oyxcodone (oxytocin)

b)

Alprazolam (Xanax)

c)

Herioin

d)

Cocaine

84.

The nurse is to give medications using the traditional "six rights of drugs administration." To admister medications to a patient without an identification (ID) bracelet violates which rights?

a)

Right medications

b)

Right time

c)

Right patient

d)

Right route