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REVISION- LJM 5

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client has begun anti-dysrhythmic therapy with sotalol (Brevibloc). Knowing the side effects that could affect the client’s psychosocial well-being, the nurse does anticipatory counseling about the possibility of

a)

A.      paranoia

b)

B.      anxiety and pain

c)

C.       anxiety and confusion

d)

D.      decreased libido and impotence

2.

A nurse reinforces discharge instructions to a postoperative patient taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin). Which statement, if made by the client, indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

A.      ‘I will take my pills everyday at the same time’

b)

B.      ‘I will  be certain to limit my alcohol consumption’

c)

C.       ‘I will take Ecotrin for my headaches because it is coated’

d)

D.      ‘I have already called my family to pick up a medic alert bracelets

3.

Heparin sodium by subcutaneous injection is prescribed for a client. When administering the medications, the nurse would

a)

A.      aspirate before injection

b)

B.      apply heat after injection

c)

C.       use a 23-25 gauge needle

d)

D.      administer with a 25-27 gauge,5/8 inch needle

4.

A 51-year-old client is admitted with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction. The client is started on streptokinase (Streptase) therapy. The nurse knows that teaching has been effective when the client’s wife states that the purpose of the medication is to

a)

A.      thin the blood

b)

B.      slow the clotting of the blood

c)

C.       dissolve any clots in the coronary arteries

d)

D.      prevent further clots from forming in the coronary arteries

5.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking captopril (Capoten). Which of the following data would indicate the mechanism of action of this medication?

a)

A.      Reduces heart rate and contractility

b)

B.      Prevents conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

c)

C.       Prevents conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and prothrombin to thrombin

d)

D.      Prevents calcium entry into vascular smooth muscle cells and myocytes

6.

Refer to the scenario below.

( Encik Ali has visited a doctor. He complains to the nurse that the doctor did not prescribe him an antibiotic for his flu )

       The best nursing explanation regarding the use of antibiotics is that antibiotics are

a)

A.      ineffective in treating viral infections

b)

B.      ineffective after cold symptoms develop

c)

C.       only used to prevent the spread of colds to others

d)

D.      only used for immununosuppressed individuals

7.

SCENARIO: Encik Ali has visited a doctor. He complains to the nurse that the doctor did not prescribe him an antibiotic for his flu.

The following symptom is the best indicator that complications are developing from Encik Ali’s flu when he reports that he is having

a)

A.      a dry cough

b)

B.      a high fever

c)

C.       nasal stuffiness

d)

D.      a scratchy throat

8.

SCENARIO : Encik Ali has visited a doctor. He complains to the nurse that the doctor did not prescribe him an antibiotic for his flu.

The nurse should assess Encik Ali to determine the following disorder before recommending the use of a non-prescription decongestant

a)

A.      asthma

b)

B.      arthritis

c)

C.       diabetes

d)

D.      hypertension

9.

SCENARIO : Encik Ali has visited a doctor. He complains to the nurse that the doctor did not prescribe him an antibiotic for his flu

The nurse informs Encik Ali that the over use of a topical nasal decongestant will most likely result in

a)

A.      rebound effects with nasal stuffiness

b)

B.      decreased ability to fight microorganisms

c)

C.       mucosal ulceration of the mucus membranes

d)

D.      nasal decongestion and slowing of the heart rate

10.

SCENARION : Mrs. Lim, a 36-year-old, is having sinusitis in the maxillary sinuses.

1.       Mrs. Lim would most likely complain to the nurse that she has pain

a)

A.      in her cheeks

b)

B.      over her eyes

c)

C.       above her ears

d)

D.      near her eyebrows

11.

SCENARION : Mrs. Lim, a 36-year-old, is having sinusitis in the maxillary sinuses.

Nasal drops are prescribed to Mrs. Lim. The nurse should teach Mrs. Lim that the correct position for accurate instillation of nasal drops is by

a)

A.      tilting the head backward

b)

B.      bending the head forward

c)

C.       pushing the nose laterally

d)

D.      turning the head to the side

12.

Danny, a five-year-old boy, is an asthmatic client who uses a nebulizer at home. His mother is instructed to empty and clean the nebulizer after each use to prevent

a)

A.      an injury if the child was to pull at the nebulizer

b)

B.      the collection of cults which could affect the child’s breathing

c)

C.       the collection of water in the nebulizer which can cause a rapid growth of environmental pathogens

d)

D.      the evaporation of standing water which causes the accumulation of calcium deposits that will clog the nebulizer the next time it is used

13.

SCENARIO : Mr. Lingam is having pharyngitis

He has been ordered for a throat swab for culture and sensitivity. The best technique for the nurse to accurately collect the specimen is by

a)

A.      Collecting saliva in a sterile culture tube

b)

B.      Wiping the inner mouth and tongue with gauze

c)

C.       Swabbing the throat with a sterile cotton applicator

d)

D.      Asking the client to expectorate sputum into a paper cup

14.

SCENARIO : Mr. Lingam is having pharyngitis

       Mr. Lingam is prescribed with an antibiotic. The nurse advises him to complete the antibiotic in order to prevent from the following complication

a)

A.      shingles

b)

B.      chickenpox

c)

C.       whooping cough

d)

D.      glomerulonephritis

15.

SCENARIO : A male singer with laryngitis is waiting for his appointment to see the doctor.    

  While waiting for the appointment, the nurse should advise the singer to

a)

A.      only speak when necessary

b)

B.      drink hot liquids

c)

C.       suck on ice chips

d)

D.      massage the throat

16.

SCENARIO: A male singer with laryngitis is waiting for his appointment to see the doctor. 

        The singer understands the reason for a direct laryngoscopy  when he verbalizes that the test is done because hoarseness  is associated with

a)

A.      bronchitis

b)

B.      tracheal polyps

c)

C.       enlarged tonsils

d)

D.      laryngeal cancer

17.

SCENARIO : Miss. Lin, a 23-year-old woman, notes that whenever she in a dusty room, she sneezes endlessly and her eyes become red, itchy and watery. She makes an appointment with a doctor

      Miss. Lin is prescribed with antihistamine. The nurse should inform Miss. Lin that antihistamines may cause

a)

A.      weight loss

b)

B.      depression

c)

C.       drowsiness

d)

D.      constipation

18.

The doctor recommendeds Miss. Lin to undergo allergy skin testing. Miss Lin does not understand the reason for doing the test and the best explanation for Miss Lin would be

a)

A.      skin testing helps build up blocking antibodies

b)

B.      allergic responses vary from person to person

c)

C.       her symptoms may be related to more than one substance

d)

D.      her allergy symptoms could progress into more serious conditions

19.

REFLECTION: Based on the outcome of the skin tests, Miss Lin begins her desensitization treatment. She comes back every week for injections of diluted antigens which she is allergic to

       The assessment finding on Miss Lin which indicates anaphylaxis development is when she

a)

A.      develops a sore throat

b)

B.      complains of headache

c)

C.       has difficulty breathing

d)

D.      has cold and clammy skin

20.

Miss Lin is at risk to develop a severe allergic reaction. The nurse should ensure the following emergency drug is available

a)

A.      codeine sulphate

b)

B.      morphine sulphate

c)

C.       dopamine (intropin)

d)

D.      epinephrine (adrenalin)

21.

The most important nursing assessment in managing Miss Lin when she is experiencing a severe allergic reaction is to check her

a)

A.      skin colour

b)

B.      urine output

c)

C.       pupil response

d)

D.      blood pressure

22.

      Miss Lin is experiencing a severe allergic reaction and she in unresponsive. The priority nursing action is to

a)

A.      lift the chin tilt the head back

b)

B.      Raise the head to 90 degrees

c)

C.       Administer an injection of epinephrine

d)

D.      Administer a single blow to the sternum

23.

SCENARIO : Mr. Sing who has cancer of larynx is undergoing a total laryngectomy

Mr. Singh is having impaired verbal communication post-total laryngectomy. The most effective nursing action which facilitates optimum communication is to

a)

A.      provide the client with paper and pencil

b)

B.      listen attentively to the client’s vocalization

c)

C.       inform the client to speak slowly when talking

d)

D.      lip read the client’s attempts at communication

24.

SCENARIO: The nursing team discusses Mr. Singh’s anger and depression related to his cancer diagnosis, the change in his body image and the loss of speech following a laryngectomy

       The action that indicates Mr. Singh is beginning to resolve his grief is when he

a)

A.      wants only his wife to visit him

b)

B.      looks at a tracheostomy tube in the mirror

c)

C.       asks the nurse to help him bathe and shave

d)

D.      states that the doctor made an incorrect diagnosis

25.

Mr. Wong, who has a persistent upper respiratory infection, develops acute bronchitis and is given a prescription for an antitussive that contains guaifenesin and codeine

       when assessing Mr. Wong’s cough, it is most important for the nurse to document the characteristics of the cough and the

a)

A.      self-treatment that is being used

b)

B.      presence of respiratory secretions

c)

C.       client’s family history of respiratory disease

d)

D.      current assessment of the client’s vital signs

26.

SCENARIO : Mr. Wong, who has a persistent upper respiratory infection, develops acute bronchitis and is given a prescription for an antitussive that contains guaifenesin and codeine

             Mr. Wong asks the nurse why this type of cough medicine was ordered. The best nursing response is that  guaifenesin  liquefies mucus while codeine

a)

A.      dilates the bronchi

b)

B.      relieves discomfort

c)

C.       suppresses coughing

d)

D.      reduces inflammation

27.

Mr. Wong, who has a persistent upper respiratory infection, develops acute bronchitis and is given a prescription for an antitussive that contains guaifenesin and codeine

The most appropriate instruction for the nurse to provide to Mr. Wong regarding the administration of the antitusssive cough syrup which contains guaifenesin and codeine is to

a)

A.      drink extra fluids throughout his waking hours

b)

B.      avoid taking the medication before going to sleep

c)

C.       not take the drug more frequently than prescribed

d)

D.      warm the cough syrup to make the taste more acceptable

28.

SCENARIO : Together with the liquid antitussive  cough syrup, Mr. Wong is also prescribed several oral tablets to be taken at the same time.       The nurse should advise Mr. Wong that the most appropriate technique to administer the liquid cough syrup and solid medication is by

a)

A.      administering solid tablets and then the cough syrup

b)

B.      administering the cough syrup and then the oral tablets

c)

C.       taking the cough syrup in between administering the oral tablets

d)

D.      waiting for 15 minutes after taking the cough syrup before taking the solid tablets

29.

    Mr. Wong has been ordered to take 5 ml of the liquid cough syrup. If the cough syrup contains 15 mg of codeine in 5 ml of liquid, what is the amount of codeine that Mr. Wong is ordered to take?

a)

A.      0.5 mg

b)

B.      1.5 mg

c)

C.       5.0 mg

d)

D.      15 mg

30.

      Mr. Wong also receives aerosol therapy to treat his bronchitis. The best evidence that Mr. Wong understands the purpose of his aerosol therapy is when he states that it is used to

a)

A.      relieve tissue irritation

b)

B.      kill infections organism

c)

C.       slow the respiratory rate

d)

D.      dry respiratory passages

31.

SCENARIO : Mr. Samy, who has been diagnosed with pneumonia, is admitted to the medical ward. The nurse observes that he has shaking chills and fever of 39 0 C.  A chest X-ray and sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity are ordered

       Which nursing action is essential before the chest X-ray is done on Mr. Samy?

a)

A.      administer a  parenteral  analgesic

b)

B.      have the client swallow X-ray dye

c)

C.       make sure the client does not eat food

d)

D.      remove any metal accessories he is wearing

32.

Mr. Samy, who has been diagnosed with pneumonia, is admitted to the medical ward. The nurse observes that he has shaking chills and fever of 39 0 C.  A chest X-ray and sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity are ordered

      The most appropriate nursing action when planning to obtain the sputum specimen from Mr.Samy is by

a)

A.      ordering him a clear liquid diet

b)

B.      providing him with a generous fluid intake

c)

C.       encouraging him to change positions regularly

d)

D.      administering an antitussive prior to collecting  the specimen

33.

SCENARIO: Mr. Samy, who has been diagnosed with pneumonia, is admitted to the medical ward. The nurse observes that he has shaking chills and fever of 39 0 C.  A chest X-ray and sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity are ordered.

       Which time of the day is best for the nurse to attempt to obtain a sputum specimen from Mr. samy ?

a)

A.      after a meal at noon

b)

B.      before bedtime at night

c)

C.       between meals in the evening

d)

D.      upon awakening in the morning

34.

SCENARIO: Mr. Samy, who has been diagnosed with pneumonia, is admitted to the medical ward. The nurse observes that he has shaking chills and fever of 39 0 C.  A chest X-ray and sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity are ordered

      the best evidence that Mr. Samy understands the nurse’s instruction on how to handle the sputum specimen container for the culture and sensitivity test is when he says that he

a)

A.      cannot touch the outside of the container

b)

B.      must not touch the inside of the container

c)

C.       should wipe the container with an alcohol swab

d)

D.      should don gloves before opening the container

35.

SCENARIO: Mr. Samy, who has been diagnosed with pneumonia, is admitted to the medical ward. The nurse observes that he has shaking chills and fever of 39 0 C.  A chest X-ray and sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity are ordered

       The assessment finding which best indicates that Mr.Samy has developed pleurisy secondary to his pneumonia is when

a)

A.      his heart rate is rapid

b)

B.      his beds are cyanotic

c)

C.       he has a productive cough

d)

D.      he has pain when breathing

36.

SCENARIO : Mr. Samy’s culture and sensitivity test result has shown that he has pneumococcal pneumonia. He then receives penicillin by intramuscular injection and asks the nurse why the physician chose penicillin to tear the pneumonia

     The best response by the nurse to answer Mr. samy’s question is that

a)

A.      penicillin is one of the safest yet most effective antibiotics

b)

B.      all antibiotics are similar; the choice of drug is not that important

c)

C.       most viral infections respond well when treated with penicillin drugs

d)

D.      the sensitivity report shows that the organism can be easily killed by penicillin

37.

     Mr. Samy is allergic to penicillin, which other group of antibiotics can the nurse anticipate might provoke hypersensitivity?

a)

A.      Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

b)

B.      Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline (Vibramycin)

c)

C.       Aminoglycosides, such as kanamycin sulphate (Kantrex)

d)

D.      Cephalosporins, such as ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin)

38.

SCENARIO:

Madam Non is admitted to the medical ward as referred by a nursing home. She is required to be tested for tuberculosis based on the physical assessment done on her. A Mantoux intradermal skin test was ordered for her

      The nurse correctly assesses the site of the Mantoux skin test in

a)

A.      6 hours

b)

B.      12 hours

c)

C.       24 hours

d)

D.      72 hours

39.

     Madam Non’s previous Mountoux test result was negative, but now she has a positive reaction to the test. The nurse correctly explains to her that the

a)

A.      she will need to quit her job

b)

B.      she will need to live alone temporarily

c)

C.       antituberculosis drugs will be prescribed

d)

D.      skin test will be performed every six months

40.

After six months of drug therapy, madam Non comes back to the clinic for follow up. Her sputum is collected for acid fast bacilli and the result shows tubercle bacilli in her sputum     

Which question is the most important to ask Madam Non at this time?

a)

A.      ‘How many drug refills have you obtained?’

b)

B.      ‘Have you experienced any drug side effects?’

c)

C.       ‘When did you last take your prescribed medications?’

d)

D.      ‘Have you taken all your medications as prescribed?’

41.

       The nurse notes vigorous bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the drainage system. The most appropriate nursing action to be taken by the nurse to correct the bubbling is to

a)

A.      lower the suction level

b)

B.      ask the patient to cough forcefully

c)

C.       examine the enter system and tubing for air leaks

d)

D.      do noting because vigorous bubbling is expected

42.

Which health teaching measure is the most important to emphasize when instructing madam Non on ways to prevent the transmission of the disease?

a)

A.      Eat a nutritious diet

b)

B.      Get adequate sleep

c)

C.       Hand washing before and after meals

d)

D.      Cover the nose and mouth when coughing

43.

       When Madam non asks the nurse why she has to take two drugs, the best explanation is that when these drugs are combined

a)

A.      bacteria resistance is slowed

b)

B.      their dosages can be reduced

c)

C.       one diminishes the side effects of the other

d)

D.      one kills the live organism and the other, their spores

44.

       If  Madam non complains of gastrointestinal side effects associated with rifampicin, the nurse should plan to

a)

A.      administer the drug at night

b)

B.      provide the client with an antacid

c)

C.       encourage the client to drink lots of water

d)

D.      administer the drug with food or at mealtimes

45.

       An 80-year-old client suffers from dysphagia. One way to maintain normal nutritional levels is to

a)

A.      give soft and balanced food

b)

B.      give total parenteral nutrition (TPN)

c)

C.       feed the client through the nasogastric route

d)

D.      have the client fast and give an intravenous infusion

46.

      The nurse explains to a client with gastro esophageal reflux that it is a condition where

a)

A.      the gastric wall protrudes and presses on the esophageal wall

ke of too much medication

b)

B.      inflammation of the esophageal wall occurs due to frequent vomiting

c)

C.       gastric juices enter the esophagus and cause irritation of the esophageal wall

d)

D.      inflammation of the gastric wall occurs due to the inta

47.

Mr. Jega has undergone oesophagectomy for esophageal cancer. He complains of increased pain, fever and difficulty in breathing after fluid is started. These symptoms show that Mr. Jega

a)

A.      has cancer which has metastasized to the lungs

b)

B.      is tolerant towards the fluid administered

c)

C.       has an obstruction and fluid is accumulating in his esophagus

d)

D.      has a puncture in his esophagus leading to fluid entering the lungs

48.

      Pernicious anaemia in a client with gastritis is caused by

a)

A.      lack of food containing folic acid

b)

B.      antacids used in the treatment of gastritis

c)

C.       bleeding due to damage to the mucosal lining

d)

D.      lack of intrinsic factor produced by acid secreting cells of the mucosal lining

49.

1.       Mrs. Choo who is suffering from gastric cancer is receiving radiotherapy. The health education that is suitable for her concern is

a)

A.      practicing a healthy lifestyle

b)

B.      the problem of hair loss and stomatitis

c)

C.       skin and wound care, diet and sources on information

d)

D.      emotional support and involvement of the family in treatment

50.

      A client with gastritis should be advised to avoid

a)

A.      taking dairy products

b)

B.      taking oral medication

c)

C.       eating meat and vegetables

d)

D.      taking aspirin and alcohol and to avoid smoking

51.

     You are  explaining the risk factors for peptic ulcers and you state that ulcers can be caused by taking drugs belonging to the group of

a)

A.      H2 receptor blockers

b)

B.      proton pump inhibitors

c)

C.       broad spectrum antibiotics

d)

D.      nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

52.

1.       The main nursing action for the treatment of a client with acute appendicitis is to

a)

A.      give medical advice

b)

B.      monitor the client’s pain level

c)

C.       allow the intake of clear liquids only

d)

D.      monitor the client for signs of peritonitis

53.

       According to research, one major cause of duodenal ulcers is

a)

A.      a diet high in fat

b)

B.      a sedentary lifestyle

c)

C.       infection by Helicobacter pyloriI

d)

D.      genetic problems affecting the gastric mucus

54.

      The fluid used  to irrigate the nasogastric  tube of a client with peptic ulcer bleeding is

a)

A.      5% dextrose

b)

B.      normal saline

c)

C.       ringer’s lactate

d)

D.      lukewarm water

55.

1.       When performing auscultation, which of the following findings shows that the client has intestinal obstruction?

a)

A.      No bowel sounds

b)

B.      A gurgling sound

c)

C.       A low-pitched sound

d)

D.      A borborygmus sound

56.

1.       When treating a client in the emergency room for gastrointestinal bleeding, your main objective is to ensure that the client

a)

A.      is not in pain

b)

B.      does not have bleeding

c)

C.       is conscious and cooperating

d)

D.      has normal vital signs and a urinary output of > 30 ml/hour

57.

     When the doctor performs a rectal examination on a client, the nurse’s responsibility is to ensure the client’s comfort by

a)

A.      encouraging the client to breathe slowly

b)

B.      positioning the client in the semi-prone position

c)

C.       instructing the client to hold his breath during the procedure

d)

D.      advising  the client to empty his bladder before the examination

58.

    Which of the following represents the best method to control diverticulotis?

a)

A.      Drink more fluids

b)

B.      Eat more fibre-based foods

c)

C.       Eat more carbohydrate-based foods

d)

D.      Take vitamins A,C and F everyday

59.

     Which of the following symptoms is the main clinical manifestation of colorectal cancer?

a)

A.      Lack of appetite

b)

B.      No bowel sounds

c)

C.       Blood in the stools

d)

D.      Rebound tenderness pain in the abdomen

60.

     Which of the following parts of the alimentary canal is the typical location for ulcerative colitis?

a)

A.      Rectum

b)

B.      Ascending colon

c)

C.       Descending colon

d)

D.      Terminal of the ileum

61.

      The treatment for a client’s wound after haemorrhoidectomy is to

a)

A.      encourage sitz baths

b)

B.      apply a dressing everyday

c)

C.       give painkillers every six hours

d)

D.      position the client in the lateral position

62.

     A client with intestinal obstruction will experience abdominal distention. The best nursing action to reduce the abdominal distension to

a)

A.      position the client in Fowler’s position

b)

B.      apply a hot compress on the abdomen

c)

C.       administer an antiemetic drug s directed

d)

D.      insert a nasogastric tube in the unobstructed flow

63.

      The following complication should be watched for in a client who has just undergone a liver biopsy

a)

A.      bleeding

b)

B.      abdominal cramps

c)

C.       potential for injection

d)

D.      nausea and vomiting

64.

      The following steps is taken to prevent aspiration problems after nasogastric administration to a client

a)

A.      rinse the tube after feeding

b)

B.      clamp the tube after feeding

c)

C.       position the client in the low Fowler’s position

d)

D.      position the client in the lateral-supine position

65.

       Alcohol contributes to GI problems because it

a)

A.      increases the secretion of mucus

b)

B.      decrease the desecration of acid

c)

C.       breaks down the gastric mucosa

d)

D.      decreases the secretion of pepsin

66.

     Chronic alcohol intake can result in the destruction of gastric glands leading to a decreased secretion of intrinsic factor. Decreased intrinsic factor results in

a)

A.      gastric ulcers

b)

B.      gastric cancer

c)

C.       chronic gastritis

d)

D.      pernicious  anamemia

67.

       Which of the following will protect the nurse who is caring for a client with hepatitis B?

a)

A.      Reverse isolation

b)

B.      Airborne precautions

c)

C.       Standard precautions

d)

D.      Respiratory precautions

68.

    A patient with ulcerative colitis is admitted with severe rectal bleeding and will be NPO for an extended period of time. Which of the following is the best option for maintaining the patient’s nutritional status?

a)

A.      TPN

b)

B.      IV 5% dextrose

c)

C.       NG tube feeding

d)

D.      PEG tube feeding

69.

      A patient is diagnosed with acute diverticulitis. Which of the following may have placed the client at risk of developing diverticulitis?

a)

A.      Chronic diarrhoe

b)

B.      History of NSAID use

c)

C.       Fating a low fibre diet

d)

D.      Family history of colon cancer

70.

       A client is admitted with upper GI bleeding. Which nursing action would be the first priority with this client?

a)

A.      Obtain the client’s vital signs

b)

B.      Obtain a detailed nutritional history

c)

C.       Complete the abdominal physical exam

d)

D.      Insert a nasogastric tube and hematest the aspirated fluid

71.

      A client with acute pancreatitis and a history of alcoholism is being monitored for paralytic complications. Which of the following is a sign of a paralytic ileus?

a)

A.      Inability to pass gas

b)

B.      Loss of anal sphincter control

c)

C.       Severe, constant pain with rapid onset

d)

D.      Firm, non-tender mass palpable in the RUQ

72.

     A nurse is preparing educational materials on colorectal cancer. What is the most important risk factor which should be included?

a)

A.      Over 20 year old

b)

B.      History of smoking

c)

C.       Distant relative with colorectal cancer

d)

D.      Personal history of ulcerative colitis or gastrointestinal polyps

73.

A nurse is teaching a client with GRD. The nurse tells the client to exclude all the following foods except

a)

A.      coffee

b)

B.      chocolate

c)

C.       fatty foods

d)

D.      spicy foods

74.

       A client has returned from special procedures following an oesophago gastroduodenoscopy (OGDS). Which of the following items of the client’s care plan must be given the highest priority?

a)

A.      Monitor the client’s temperature

b)

B.      Monitor for complaints of heartburn

c)

C.       Giving warm gargles for a sore throat

d)

D.      Checking for the return of a gag reflex

75.

Billroth II procedure = Definition :(If the stomach cannot be reconnected to the duodenum, a Billroth II is performed, in which an opening hole is made in the next section of the small intestine, the jejunum, and the stomach attached at that opening. The pylorus is used to grind food and slowly release it into the small intestine. )    

A nurse is caring for a client after a Billroth II procedure. Which of the following postoperative orders would the nurse question?

a)

A.      Leg exercise

b)

B.      Irrigate NG tube

c)

C.       Early ambulation

d)

D.      Cough and deep breathing exercise

76.

    The nurse is providing discharge teaching after a gastrectomy. Which of the following instructions would be given to the client to assist in preventing dumping syndrome?

a)

A.      Eat large meals

b)

B.      Ambululate after meals

c)

C.       Limit fluid intake with foods

d)

D.      Eat high carbohydrate  foods

77.

     A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of cirrhosis. To assess for the presence of telangiectasis, the nurse would

a)

A.      measure abdominal girth

b)

B.      check for swelling of the ankles

c)

C.       instruct the client to learn forward

d)

D.      ask the client to extend his arms

78.

   A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with cirrhosis and notes that the ammonia level is elevated. Which diet will probably be prescribed for the client?

a)

A.      Low protein

b)

B.      High protein

c)

C.       Moderate fat

d)

D.      High carbohydrate

79.

     A client with a hiatal hernia frequently experiences heartburn after eating. The nurse would include all of the following when providing the patient’s health teaching except

a)

A.      lie flat after eating

b)

B.      lose weight if obese

c)

C.       eat small, frequent ,meals

d)

D.      avoid caffeine and alcohol

80.

     The physician prescribed nystatin  oral suspension for the client with candidiasis. Which instruction should the nurse plan to give the client when administering nystatin (Mycostatin) oral suspension?

a)

A.      Drink the medication through a strew

b)

B.      Dilute the medication with cold water

c)

C.       Retain the drug a s long as possible in the mouth

d)

D.      Swish the drug  in the mouth, but avoid swallowing

81.

     A patient has just returned to your unit following a colostomy placement. On initial assessment, you the found the stoma is purple in colour. You would then

a)

A.      notify the doctor

b)

B.      change the pouching system

c)

C.       turn on the lights for a better look

d)

D.      increase the patient’s fluid and fibre untaken

82.

     Foods that are good for the ostomy patient with diarrhoe include all of the following except

a)

A.      apple

b)

B.      prunes

c)

C.       tapioca

d)

D.      bananas

83.

      A patient suffering from Chron’s disease will  present all of the following except

a)

A.      ascites

b)

B.      steatorrhoea

c)

C.       abdominal pain

d)

D.      severe diarrhea

84.

       Which of the following is not a true statement about total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

a)

A.      TPN is intravenous hyperalimentation

b)

B.      TPN is used to improve nutritional status and enhance healing

c)

C.       Glucose levels are only monitored during the initial hours of administration

d)

D.      TPN is started slowly to allow the body to adjust to the high glucose concentration

85.

      Leucocytes are produced by the following organs except the

a)

A.      liver

b)

B.      spleen

c)

C.       lymphatic tissues

d)

D.      red bone marrow

86.

   It has been confirmed that Encik Hamid has leukemia. The following statements are true regarding leukemia except

a)

A.      there is an abnormal deficiency of thrombocytes

b)

B.      leucoblastic cells fail to mature

c)

C.       the patient is at risk of anaemia, infection and haemorrhage

d)

D.      there is an uncontrolled multiplication of abnormal leucocytes in the bone marrow

87.

      The following statement is true of aplastic anaemia

a)

A.      there is pancytopenia

b)

B.      there is no treatment available

c)

C.       it leaves a permanent sign of infection

d)

D.      the bone marrow does not produce enough red blood cells

88.

    The following formed element can help in blood clotting

a)

A.      platelet

b)

B.      erythrocyte

c)

C.       leucocyte

d)

D.      agglutinogen

89.

    Pernicious anaemia occurs as a result of

a)

A.      a folic acid deficiency

b)

B.      vitamin B 6 deficiency

c)

C.       vitamin B12 deficiency

d)

D.      ascorbic acid deficiency

90.

  Tommy has diagnosed with thalassaemia. Which blood element is involved in Tommy’s illness?

a)

A.      Platetet

b)

B.      Leucocyte

c)

C.       Neutrophil

d)

D.      Haemoglobin

91.

1.       Among the following, which is the clearest manifestation of Hodgkin’s disease?

a)

A.      Bone pain

b)

B.      Periorbital oedema

c)

C.       Bruises and petechiea

d)

D.      Enlarged lymph nodes that are painless

92.

SCENARIO : 8-year-old Ali has been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia. He complains of joint pain, fever and bleeding.

      Ali bleeds frequently due to

a)

A.      anaemia

b)

B.      polycythaemia

c)

C.       leucopenia

d)

D.      thrombocytopenia

93.

SCENARIO : 8-year-old Ali has been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia. He complains of joint pain, fever and bleeding.

      Ali is given treatment in the isolation room. The main reason for isolating Ali from other clients is to

a)

A.      protect  Ali’s self-image

b)

B.      avoid the occurrence of hemorrhage

c)

C.       prevent other clients from being infected by Ali

d)

D.      prevent Ali from being infected by other clients

94.

    A tumour that originates from nerve tissue is also know as

a)

A.      sarcoma

b)

B.      carcinoma

c)

C.       astrocytoma

d)

D.      adenocarcinoma

95.

     Adjuvant therapies for a client suffering from cancer are

a)

A.      surgery, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy

b)

B.      surgery, radiotherapy and palliative care

c)

C.       chemotherapy, surgery and palliative care

d)

D.      surgery, chemotherapy and home care

96.

      Radiotherapy used for the treatment of cancer acts by

a)

A.      destroying cell  DNA

b)

B.      forming abnormal cells

c)

C.       raising the temperatures of the cytoplasm

d)

D.      altering semi-permeable cell membranes

97.

     Drugs used in chemotherapy are known as

a)

A.      antifungal drugs

b)

B.      antibiotics

c)

C.       antipyrexia drugs

d)

D.      antineoplastic drugs

98.

      The malignant cell growth known as Reed-Sternberg cells is found in

a)

A.      myelloma

b)

B.      leukaemia

c)

C.       Hodgkin’s disease

d)

D.      non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

99.

       The purpose of bone marrow aspiration is to

a)

A.      administer medication

b)

B.      assess heart function

c)

C.       confirm diagnosis

d)

D.      give blood transfusion

100.

               10-year-old Sony was warded because he has leukemia. Sony was treated in the isolation room. This action is appropriate for the following nursing diagnosis

a)

A.      lack nutrition

b)

B.      body image disturbance

c)

C.       risk of infection

d)

D.      changes to the mucous membranes of the mouth