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Adult Development, Ageing and Disorders

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 8hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Development is a complex interaction of what?

a)

Biological processes

b)

Psychological processes

c)

Social processes

d)

Medical processes

2.

Development is _____ and _____ rather than linear.

a)

Multidimensional

b)

Multidirectional

c)

Transactional

d)

Reactionary

3.

Development is _____

a)

Contextual

b)

Transactional

c)

Medical

d)

Spiritual

4.

What are some biological changes in ageing?

a)

Vascular & respiratory changes

b)

Cardiovascular changes

c)

Auditory and visual changes

d)

Dizziness and vertigo

5.

Acuity, accommodation speed and receptor number are some _____ changes with ageing.

a)

Visual

b)

Aural

c)

Oral

d)

Haptic

6.

According to Bromley (1988) _____ of elderly people need glasses.

a)

75%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

85%

7.

Auditor changes with age include the stiffening of _____ ear bones.

a)

Middle

b)

Outer

c)

Inner

8.

Elderly people may have poor transmission of _____ frequency sounds.

a)

High

b)

Low

c)

MIddle

9.

Auditory changes with age include...

a)

Loosening of middle ear bones

b)

Loss of auditory neurons

c)

Poor pitch discrimination

d)

Poor transmission of high frequency sounds

10.

Adult brain weight decreases by _____ between 30-70.

a)

5%

b)

20%

c)

10%

d)

40%

11.

Adult brain weight decreases by _____ between 80-90.

a)

5%

b)

20%

c)

10%

d)

40%

12.

Blood flow in the brain can be reduced due to _____ when ageing.

a)

Shrinking arteries

b)

Low blood pressure

c)

Influx of glucose

d)

Varicose veins

13.

When ageing, brain ventricles may A.) _____ and Meninges may B.) _____

a)

a.) Enlarge

b)

a.) Shrink

c)

b.) Thicken

d)

b.) Thin out

14.

What are some neurotransmitter changes during ageing?

a)

Decrease in Dopamine

b)

Decrease in Acetylcholine

c)

Reduced Cholinergic binding

d)

Increase in Seratonin

15.

Well rehearsed skills, such as verbal comprehension...

a)

Show little decline

b)

Show significant decline

c)

Increase dramatically

d)

Cannot increase after childhood

16.

What are the components of Selective Optimization with Compensation?

a)

Selection

b)

Optimization

c)

Compensation

d)

Encapsulation

e)

Redirection

17.

Selection, Optimisation, Compensation and Encapsulation are the four components of what?

a)

Selective Optimisation with Compensation

b)

The Optimisation Model

c)

Hyman's Theory of Compensated Ageing

d)

Skill-set Selection Hypothesis

18.

What is Alexithymia?

a)

Inability to identify and describe emotions

b)

Short temper and general problems with anger

c)

Inability to move facial muscles

d)

Problems with fine movements and skills

19.

Older adults tend to show increased...

a)

Cautiousness

b)

Rigidity

c)

Recklessness

d)

Spontaneity

20.

A deep-seated uneasiness for older adults on the part of the young and the middle-aged.

a)

What is Ageism?

b)

What is Multiple Jeopardy?

c)

What is inoculation Hypothesis?

d)

What is Modernisation Hypothesis?

21.

What is the Terror Management theory for Ageism?

a)

People regard with panic and dread the thought that their lives will someday come to an end

b)

Increasing urbanization and industrialization of Western society is what causes older adults to be devalued

c)

Older individuals who fit more than one discriminated-against category are affected by biases against each of these categorizations

d)

As people become older, age overrides all other ‘‘isms.’’

e)

Older minorities and women have managed to become immune to the effects of ageism through years of exposure to discrimination

22.

What is the Modernisation hypothesis for Ageism?

a)

People regard with panic and dread the thought that their lives will someday come to an end

b)

Increasing urbanization and industrialization of Western society is what causes older adults to be devalued

c)

Older individuals who fit more than one discriminated-against category are affected by biases against each of these categorizations

d)

As people become older, age overrides all other ‘‘isms.’’

e)

Older minorities and women have managed to become immune to the effects of ageism through years of exposure to discrimination

23.

What is the Multiple Jeopardy hypothesis for Ageism?

a)

People regard with panic and dread the thought that their lives will someday come to an end

b)

Increasing urbanization and industrialization of Western society is what causes older adults to be devalued

c)

Older individuals who fit more than one discriminated-against category are affected by biases against each of these categorizations

d)

As people become older, age overrides all other ‘‘isms.’’

e)

Older minorities and women have managed to become immune to the effects of ageism through years of exposure to discrimination

24.

What is the Age-As-Leveller view for Ageism?

a)

People regard with panic and dread the thought that their lives will someday come to an end

b)

Increasing urbanization and industrialization of Western society is what causes older adults to be devalued

c)

Older individuals who fit more than one discriminated-against category are affected by biases against each of these categorizations

d)

As people become older, age overrides all other ‘‘isms.’’

e)

Older minorities and women have managed to become immune to the effects of ageism through years of exposure to discrimination

25.

What is the Inoculation hypothesis for Ageism?

a)

People regard with panic and dread the thought that their lives will someday come to an end

b)

Increasing urbanization and industrialization of Western society is what causes older adults to be devalued

c)

Older individuals who fit more than one discriminated-against category are affected by biases against each of these categorizations

d)

As people become older, age overrides all other ‘‘isms.’’

e)

Older minorities and women have managed to become immune to the effects of ageism through years of exposure to discrimination

26.

The process of optimizing opportunities for health, participation, and security in order to enhance quality of life as people age.

a)

What is Ageism?

b)

What is Active Ageing?

c)

What is Modernisation hypothesis?

d)

What is Tertiary Ageing?

27.

The WHO model for Active/Successful ageing makes explicit the roles of _____.

a)

Autonomy

b)

Independence

c)

Interdependence

d)

Physical Accomidations

28.

Vahia et al 2012 found that women highest in subjectively rated Successful Ageing had high scores in what?

a)

Self-efficacy

b)

Optimism

c)

Positive attitudes towards ageing

d)

Resilience

29.

Vahia et al 2012 found that with women who rated highest in subjectively Successful Ageing, _____ was not an important factor.

a)

Cognitive Functioning

b)

Depression

c)

Self-Efficacy

d)

Positive Attitude towards ageing

30.

Vahia et al 2012 found that women who rated highest in subjectively Successful Ageing had low scores in what?

a)

Cognitive Functioning

b)

Depression

c)

Aggression

d)

Empathy

31.

What are Bergman's (1978) Major Tasks of Old Age?

a)

Accepting the proximity of death

b)

Coping with and adjusting to disabilities and ill-health

c)

Achieving rational dependence on medical, social and family support

d)

Sustaining mutually emotionally gratifying relationships with friends and relatives

32.

What does NSPAA stand for?

a)

National Strategic Policy for Active Ageing

b)

National Scientific Policy for Active Ageing

c)

Natural Steps in Personality during Active Ageing

d)

National Straegic Policy for Ageing Adults

33.

Transforming society’s perception of ageing from one of dependency to active ageing requires _____.

a)

Foreign financial aid

b)

European agreement in policy changes

c)

A paradigm shift

d)

Execution of all Ageists

34.

What are the Four Principles of Adult Development and Ageing?

a)

Changes are continuous over the lifespan

b)

Individuality matters

c)

Only the survivors grow old

d)

Normal ageing is different from disease

e)

Successful ageing requires maintenance of cognitive functions

35.

According to _____, changes that people experience in later adulthood are built on the experiences they had in earlier years.

a)

Continuity Principle

b)

Survivor Principle

c)

Individuality

d)

Interindividual Differences

36.

What is the Survivor Principle?

a)

Only survivors grow old

b)

Changes in old age occur against backdrop of prior history

c)

Differences between people

d)

Normal aging is different from disease

37.

Individuality in ageing can be split into...

a)

Interindividual and Intraindividual differences

b)

Active and inactive ageing

c)

Continuous and Discontinuous development

d)

Successful and Unsuccessful

38.

A.) _____ are differences between people.

B.) _____ refer to the variations in performance within the same individual.

a)

a.) Interindividual Differences

b)

b.) Interindividual Differences

c)

a.) Intraindividual Differences

d)

b.) Intraindividual Differences

39.

Even within a single construct such as intelligence, an individual may show gains in one area, losses in another. This is known as what?

a)

Multidirectionality

b)

Interindividual differences

c)

Intraindividual differences

d)

Continuity Principle

40.

What is Primary Ageing?

a)

Changes built into the ageing process

b)

Changes which occur with greater frequency as you age, such as disease (not a necessary accompaniment)

c)

The rapid and marked physical deterioration immediately prior to death

41.

What is Secondary Ageing?

a)

Changes built into the ageing process

b)

Changes which occur with greater frequency as you age, such as disease (not a necessary accompaniment)

c)

The rapid and marked physical deterioration immediately prior to death

42.

What is Tertiary Ageing?

a)

Changes built into the ageing process

b)

Changes which occur with greater frequency as you age, such as disease (not a necessary accompaniment)

c)

The rapid and marked physical deterioration immediately prior to death

43.

What age range is Middle Adulthood?

a)

40-65

b)

65-74

c)

20-40

d)

18-29

44.

What age range is Emerging Adulthood?

a)

40-65

b)

65-74

c)

20-40

d)

18-29

45.

What age range is Young Adulthood?

a)

40-65

b)

65-74

c)

20-40

d)

18-29

46.

What age range is Old Young?

a)

40-65

b)

65-74

c)

20-40

d)

75-84

47.

What age range is Old Old?

a)

40-65

b)

65-74

c)

20-40

d)

75-84

48.

What do you call someone above 110 years old?

a)

Supercentenarian

b)

Ultracentenarian

c)

Megacentenarian

d)

Gramps

49.

_____ is the average number of years of life remaining to the people born within a similar period of time.

a)

Life Expectancy

b)

Health Expectancy

50.

_____ estimates whether or not longer life is accompanied by an increase in the time lived in good health or bad health.

a)

Life Expectancy

b)

Health Expectancy

51.

The concept that the illness burden to a society can be reduced if people become disabled closer to the time of their death.

a)

Compression of morbidity

b)

Expansion of morbidity

52.

The concept that the illness burden to a society can be reduced if people become disabled closer to the time of their death.

a)

Compression of morbidity

b)

Expansion of morbidity

53.

The concept that the illness burden to a society can be increased if people become disabled much earlier than their time of their death.

a)

Compression of morbidity

b)

Expansion of morbidity

54.

What was the leading cause of death in Malta in 2004?

a)

Cerebrovascular disease

b)

Ischemic heart disease

c)

Lower respiratory infection

d)

Trachea, bronchia or lung cancer

55.

What was the second leading cause of death in Malta in 2004?

a)

Cerebrovascular disease

b)

Ischemic heart disease

c)

Lower respiratory infection

d)

Trachea, bronchia or lung cancer

56.

What was the average life expectancy for Maltese males in 2018?

a)

80.6

b)

84.4

c)

75.2

d)

90.1

57.

What was the average life expectancy for Maltese females in 2018?

a)

80.6

b)

84.4

c)

75.2

d)

90.1

58.

According to Formosa (2018), Malta was 1st place in _____ in the EU.

a)

Health expectancy

b)

Life expectancy

c)

Adolescent pregnancy

d)

Diabetes Mellitus

59.

In Malta there are _____ as many women as there are men in the 90+ cohort

a)

Just

b)

Twice

c)

Three times

d)

Half

60.

What does ADL stand for?

a)

Activities of Daily Living

b)

Arrangement of Dementia Life-cycle

c)

Aging with a Detrimental Lifestyle

d)

Association for Desolate Living

61.

What are 3 prominent models of developmental science with regards to ageing?

a)

Organismic Model

b)

Mechanistic Model

c)

Interactionist Model

d)

Edification Model

62.

What is the Interactionist Model of development?

a)

Genetics and environment interact to produce their effects on the individual and individuals actively shape their own development

b)

People’s behaviour changes gradually over time, shaped by the outside forces that cause them to adapt to their environments

c)

Individuals are genetically programmed to exhibit certain behaviours at certain ages with distinct differences between stages of life

63.

What is the Organismic Model of development?

a)

Genetics and environment interact to produce their effects on the individual and individuals actively shape their own development

b)

People’s behaviour changes gradually over time, shaped by the outside forces that cause them to adapt to their environments

c)

Individuals are genetically programmed to exhibit certain behaviours at certain ages with distinct differences between stages of life

64.

What is the Mechanistic Model of development?

a)

Genetics and environment interact to produce their effects on the individual and individuals actively shape their own development

b)

People’s behaviour changes gradually over time, shaped by the outside forces that cause them to adapt to their environments

c)

Individuals are genetically programmed to exhibit certain behaviours at certain ages with distinct differences between stages of life

65.

_____ propose that aging and death are built into the hard-wiring of all organisms and therefore are part of the genetic code.

a)

Programmed Ageing

b)

Good genes gone bad

c)

Theory of Replicative Senescence

d)

Random Error theories

66.

_____ propose that aging genes take over in the post-reproductive years and lead to the ultimate destruction of the organism.

a)

Programmed Ageing

b)

Good genes gone bad

c)

Theory of Replicative Senescence

d)

Random Error theories

67.

_____ proposes that aging through genetics are based on the loss of the ability of cells to reproduce.

a)

Programmed Ageing

b)

Good genes gone bad

c)

Theory of Replicative Senescence

d)

Random Error theories

68.

_____ are based on the assumption that aging reflects unplanned changes in an organism over time.

a)

Programmed Ageing

b)

Good genes gone bad

c)

Theory of Replicative Senescence

d)

Random Error theories

69.

Identity vs. _____

a)

Diffusion

b)

Isolation

c)

Stagnation

d)

Despair

70.

Intimacy vs. _____

a)

Diffusion

b)

Isolation

c)

Stagnation

d)

Despair

71.

Generativity vs. _____

a)

Diffusion

b)

Isolation

c)

Stagnation

d)

Despair

72.

Ego integrity vs. _____

a)

Diffusion

b)

Isolation

c)

Stagnation

d)

Despair

73.

According to _____, norms, roles, and attitudes about age have an impact on the shape of each person’s life

a)

Life Course Perspective

b)

Activity theory

c)

Disengagement theory

d)

Continuity theory

74.

What is the view that older adults are most satisfied if they are able to remain involved in their social roles?

a)

Life Course perspective

b)

Activity theory

c)

Disengagement theory

d)

Continuity theory

75.

_____ proposed that the normal and natural evolution of life causes older adults to loosen purposefully their social ties.

a)

Life Course perspective

b)

Activity theory

c)

Disengagement theory

d)

Continuity theory

76.

What is the proposal that whether disengagement or activity is beneficial to the older adult depends on the individual’s personality.

a)

Life Course perspective

b)

Activity theory

c)

Disengagement theory

d)

Continuity theory

77.

_____ is a disturbance in attention, reduced ability to direct focus and shift attention and awareness.

a)

Delirium

b)

Major Neurocognitive Disorder

c)

Mild Neurocognitive Disorder

d)

Alzheimer's

78.

Those with Neurocognitive disorders may have impaired _____, which is the ability to think about mental states, both your own and those of others.

a)

Theory of Mind

b)

Alexythimia

c)

Neural Cognition

d)

Apathy

79.

Personality disorders are...

a)

Egosyntonic

b)

Egodystonic

c)

Inflexible and pervasive

d)

Chronic

e)

Temporal

80.

An inflexible and maladaptive organising pattern of cognitions, emotions and behaviours.

a)

What is a Personality Disorder?

b)

What is a Clinical Syndrome?

c)

What is a Neurocognitive Disorder?

d)

What is Aeitiology?

81.

Which of these terms best describes Personality Disorders, as opposed to Clinical Syndromes?

a)

Trait not state

b)

Often unconscious

c)

Less intense

d)

Egodystonic

82.

What Personality Disorders are odd/eccentric, paranoid, schizoid and schizotypal?

a)

Cluster A

b)

Cluster B

c)

Cluster C

83.

What Personality Disorders are dramatic, emotional and erratic?

a)

Cluster A

b)

Cluster B

c)

Cluster C

84.

What Personality Disorders are anxious, avoidant, dependent or obsessive-compulsive?

a)

Cluster A

b)

Cluster B

c)

Cluster C

85.

A disorder characterized by unreasonable, excessive suspiciousness and mistrust, and irrational feelings of being persecuted by others.

a)

Paranoid Personality Disorder

b)

Schizoid Personality Disorder

c)

Antisocial Personality Disorder

d)

Borderline Personality Disorder

86.

A disorder characterized by detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression.

a)

Paranoid Personality Disorder

b)

Schizoid Personality Disorder

c)

Antisocial Personality Disorder

d)

Borderline Personality Disorder

87.

Acute discomfort in close relationships, cognitive or perceptual distortions, eccentricities of behaviour.

a)

Paranoid Personality Disorder

b)

Schizoid Personality Disorder

c)

Antisocial Personality Disorder

d)

Schizotypal Personality Disorder

88.

Disregard for, and violation of, the rights of others.

a)

Paranoid Personality Disorder

b)

Schizoid Personality Disorder

c)

Antisocial Personality Disorder

d)

Schizotypal Personality Disorder

89.

Instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image and affects, and marked impulsivity.

a)

Borderline Personality Disorder

b)

Histrionic Personality Disorder

c)

Antisocial Personality Disorder

d)

Narcissistic Personality Disorder

90.

Excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behaviour.

a)

Borderline Personality Disorder

b)

Histrionic Personality Disorder

c)

Antisocial Personality Disorder

d)

Narcissistic Personality Disorder

91.

A pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration and lack of empathy.

a)

Borderline Personality Disorder

b)

Histrionic Personality Disorder

c)

Antisocial Personality Disorder

d)

Narcissistic Personality Disorder

92.

Social Inhibition, feelings of inadequacy and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation.

a)

Borderline Personality Disorder

b)

Avoidant Personality Disorder

c)

Dependent Personality Disorder

d)

Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder

93.

Submissive and clinging behaviour related to an excessive need to be taken care of.

a)

Borderline Personality Disorder

b)

Avoidant Personality Disorder

c)

Dependent Personality Disorder

d)

Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder

94.

Preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism and control.

a)

Borderline Personality Disorder

b)

Avoidant Personality Disorder

c)

Dependent Personality Disorder

d)

Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder

95.

Co-morbidity for Personality Disorders is _____ within clusters than among clusters.

a)

Higher

b)

Equal

c)

Lower

96.

Personality Disorders can be _____ with Mental Disorders, (e.g. a Dependent Personality Disorder can be manifested into a Major Depressive Disorder)

a)

Co-Morbid

b)

Concurrent

c)

Synchronised

d)

Regulated

97.

The _____ of Personality Disorders derive from patterns of thought and behaviour that are hard wired into the CNS in childhood

a)

Aetiology

b)

Frequency

c)

Co-Morbidity

d)

Treatment

98.

Personality Disorder treatment is focused on what?

a)

Adaptation

b)

Medication

c)

ECT

d)

Psychoanalysis

99.

What are the Ego's functions within a personality?

a)

Cognition

b)

Defence Mechanisms

c)

Affect Regulation

d)

Reality Testing

e)

Identity Integration

100.

In Freud's Tripartite theory, Cognition, Defence Mechanisms, Affect Regulation, Reality Testing and Identity Integration are all functions of what?

a)

Id

b)

Ego

c)

Superego

d)

Ultra-mega-superego

101.

In Kernberg's view, the healthiest level of Ego functioning is called the _____ level of organization.

a)

Neurotic

b)

Psychotic

c)

Borderline

102.

In Kernberg's view, the middle level of Ego functioning is called the _____ level of organization.

a)

Neurotic

b)

Psychotic

c)

Borderline

103.

In Kernberg's view, the most disorganised level of Ego functioning is called the _____ level of organization.

a)

Neurotic

b)

Psychotic

c)

Borderline

104.

Each level of Ego functioning (1. Neurotic, 2. Borderline, 3. Psychotic) is determined by what?

a)

Type of defence mechanism employed

b)

Whether or not there is reality testing

c)

Identity integration or identity diffusion

d)

Level of cognitive abilites

105.

What are Vaillant's Mature defence mechanisms?

a)

Altruism

b)

Sublimation

c)

Humour

d)

Displacement

106.

What are Vaillant's Neurotic defence mechanisms?

a)

Altruism

b)

Repression

c)

Reaction-Formation

d)

Displacement

107.

What are Vaillant's Immature defence mechanisms?

a)

Projection

b)

Repression

c)

Hypochondriasis

d)

Acting out

108.

What are Vaillant's Psychotic defence mechanisms?

a)

Hypochondriasis

b)

Delusional projection

c)

Denial

d)

Distortion

109.

Older adults use more A.) _____ defence mechanisms, young adults use more B.) _____ defence mechanisms.

a)

a.) Mature

b)

a.) Primitive

c)

b.) Mature

d)

b.) Primitive

110.

Organisation, ambition and self-discipline are traits of...

a)

Conscientiousness

b)

Extraversion

c)

Agreeableness

d)

Neuroticism

e)

Openness to experience

111.

Receptiveness to new ideas, approaches, and experiences...

a)

Conscientiousness

b)

Extraversion

c)

Agreeableness

d)

Neuroticism

e)

Openness to experience

112.

Preference for social interaction and lively activity...

a)

Conscientiousness

b)

Extraversion

c)

Agreeableness

d)

Neuroticism

e)

Openness to experience

113.

Selfless concern for others, trust, and generosity...

a)

Conscientiousness

b)

Extraversion

c)

Agreeableness

d)

Neuroticism

e)

Openness to experience

114.

According to Five-Factor theory...

a)

Outward changes may occur but traits do not change

b)

Inward changes may occur as traits often change

c)

Identity may change while personality remains stable

d)

Personality reflects inherited dispositions

115.

Data from men and women aged 21 to 96 years showed evidence of small declines in _____ that might be attributed to maturation

a)

Activity

b)

Positive emotions

c)

Openness to actions

d)

Depression

116.

Which of the facets of Conscientiousness shows the most marked decrease?

a)

Self discipline

b)

Order

c)

Competence

d)

Dutifulness

117.

Personalities that are more competitive, highly organised, ambitious, impatient, highly aware of time management and/or aggressive are known as...

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

118.

Which personality type is more associated with depression, coronary disease and other stress related ailments?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

119.

Those with high _____ are at risk of developing Cardiovascular Disease.

a)

Neuroticism

b)

Conscientiusness

c)

Openness to experience

d)

Agreableness

120.

Those with low _____ are at risk of higher BMI, weight gain and smoking.

a)

Neuroticism

b)

Conscientiusness

c)

Openness to experience

d)

Agreableness

121.

High _____ is linked to longevity due to engagement in more preventive behaviours.

a)

Neuroticism

b)

Conscientiusness

c)

Openness to experience

d)

Agreableness

122.

Low _____ is linked to lower mortality rates.

a)

Neuroticism

b)

Conscientiusness

c)

Openness to experience

d)

Agreableness

123.

A.) _____ and B.) _____ are linked to lower mortality rates.

a)

a.) Low Neuroticism

b)

a.) Low Conscientiousness

c)

b.) High Conscientiousness

d)

b.) High Neuroticism

124.

Risk of Alzheimer's disease is related to...

a)

Concientiousness

b)

Neuroticism

c)

Openness

d)

Agreeableness

125.

Data purporting to show that hypochondriasis increases in the elderly are confounded by _____

a)

Real health changes with age

b)

People lying on their tests

c)

Personal bias

d)

Experimenter bias

126.

_____ which propose that people regard events in their lives from the standpoint of how relevant these are to their own sense of self.

a)

Cognitive Self Theories

b)

Five Factor Theory

c)

Tripartite Theory

d)

Intricate Indexing Theories

127.

Unlike Minor or Major Neurocognitive disorder, Delirium is...

a)

Transient

b)

Chronic

128.

Delirium occurs as a result of disruption in metabolism or neurotransmitters due to...H

a)

Medication poisoning

b)

Alcohol or drug abuse

c)

Head injury

d)

Malnutrition

e)

Infection

129.

What is the most common cause of Neurocognitive Disorder?

a)

Alzheimer's Disease

b)

Lewy Body degenaration

c)

Parkinson's Disease

d)

Huntington's Disease

130.

Alzheimer's is caused by problems in which chromosomes?

a)

19

b)

21

c)

28

d)

42

131.

Beta-amyloid plaques are caused by which genes?

a)

Presenilin genes 1 and 2

b)

Not me

c)

Not me either

d)

Don't look at me!

132.

Alzheimer's medication targets what?

a)

Acetylcholinesterase

b)

Serotonin

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Adrenaline

133.

Alzheimer's causes damage in which brain areas?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Parietal lobe

d)

Thalamus

134.

80% of Parkinson patients also develop...

a)

Lewy Body disease

b)

Huntington's disease

c)

Vascular disease

d)

Alzheimer's disease

135.

RBANS, MoCA and MMSE are used to measure what disorder?

a)

Major Depressive Disorder

b)

Bi-Polar Disorder

c)

Neurocognitive Disorder

d)

Szhizophrenia

136.

A Dementia Intervention Team consists of what?

a)

Dementia Care Co-Ordinatior

b)

Practice Nurse

c)

Occupational Therapist

d)

Larry who makes really good paella

137.

Reality Orientation, Cognitive Stimulation, Reminiscence Therapy, Validation Therapy are used for which disorder?

a)

Neurocognitive Disorder

b)

MDD

c)

Bi-Polar Disorder

d)

Schizophrenia

138.

Who is the invincible second patient of NCD patients?

a)

Family caregivers

b)

Nurses

c)

Doctors

d)

Neurologists

139.

NCD (Neurocognitive Disorder) patient's family members may be referred to as what?

a)

Invisible second patients

b)

Family heroes

c)

Loved ones

d)

Substitute medical staff

140.

"Depression without sadness" is more common in _____ adults with MDD.

a)

Older

b)

Younger

c)

Middle aged

d)

Adolescent

141.

Pseudo-dementia is a possible symptom in older adults with what?

a)

MDD

b)

Bi-Polar Disorder

c)

Schizophrenia

d)

NCD

142.

What are the possible mood episodes in Bi-Polar patients?

a)

Mania

b)

Depression

c)

Mixed episodes

d)

Hypomania

143.

Lithium is a frequent medication in patients with what?

a)

MDD

b)

NCD

c)

Schizophrenia

d)

Bi-Polar disorder

144.

Panic disorder, agoraphobia, generalised anxiety disorder and social anxiety disorder may occur in patients with what?

a)

Anxiety Disorder

b)

NCD

c)

Bi-Polar Disorder

d)

MDD

145.

Beck Anxiety Inventory and State-Trait Anxiety Inventory are measurements of what?

a)

Anxiety Disorder

b)

NCD

c)

Bi-Polar Disorder

d)

MDD

146.

Psychosis may occur in what disorders?

a)

Schizophrenia

b)

Bi-Polar Disorder

c)

Delusional Disorder

d)

MDD

147.

_____ may be Erotomanic, Grandiose, Persecutory, Somatic or Nihilistic.

a)

Delusions

b)

Mania

c)

Mixed episodes

d)

Hallucinations

148.

People with psychosis often have disturbed, confused and disrupted patterns of thought. This is known as what?

a)

Disorganised Thinking

b)

Depression

c)

Hallucination

d)

Mania

149.

Formal Thought Disorder is another term for what?

a)

Mania

b)

Depression

c)

Hallucination

d)

Thought disorder

150.

Up to 75% of older adults who die by suicide visited a physician within _____ before death

a)

1 year

b)

5 years

c)

6 months

d)

1 month

151.

What is the highest group of suicide in Malta?

a)

14-29

b)

30-49

c)

50-69

d)

70-98

152.

_____ is a structured psychotherapy in which the patient is supported by the therapist in learning about and applying a structured approach to address problems that are causing symptoms

a)

Problem Solving Therapy

b)

Interpersonal Therapy

c)

Cognitive Therapy

d)

Cognitive Behaviour Therapy

153.

The therapeutic focus in _____ is limited to current interpersonal relationships in four broad areas: abnormal grief, role transition, role dispute, and interpersonal deficits

a)

Problem Solving Therapy

b)

Interpersonal Therapy

c)

Cognitive Therapy

d)

Cognitive Behaviour Therapy

154.

The therapeutic focus in _____ emphasises changing dysfunctional thoughts, rather than attempting to alter depressed mood directly

a)

Problem Solving Therapy

b)

Interpersonal Therapy

c)

Cognitive Therapy

d)

Cognitive Behaviour Therapy

155.

The behavioural component of _____ aims to break a depressive cycle through graded task assignments that are enjoyable and goal directed, resulting in an increased sense of achievement and

a)

Problem Solving Therapy

b)

Interpersonal Therapy

c)

Cognitive Therapy

d)

Cognitive Behaviour Therapy