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Business Analysis

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A person who is associated with starting a business is know as

a)

Merchant

b)

Entrepreneur

c)

Salesman

d)

Businessman

2.

SWOT analysis s stands for ?

a)

Success

b)

Strength

c)

Strategy

d)

Survey

3.

Which Strategy Analysis task produces the solution scope as an output?

a)

Define future state

b)

Define change strategy

c)

Analyze current state

d)

Define solution scope

4.

Strategy Analysis tasks focus on documenting what type of requirement?

a)

Stakeholder

b)

Solution

c)

Transition

d)

Business

5.

What term describes the outcome of a change that allows an enterprise to satisfy a need?

a)

Solution

b)

Opportunity

c)

Benefit

d)

Capability

6.

What defines the business problem for which the business analyst is seeking a solution?

a)

Business case

b)

Business objectives

c)

Business goals

d)

Business need

7.

What output contains the results of the business analyst assessing the capability gaps between existing and new capabilities of the organization?

a)

Business case

b)

Change strategy

c)

Solution scope

d)

Business requirements

8.

Who typically approves the change strategy and solution scope and authorizes funding for the resulting project?

a)

End user

b)

Sponsor

c)

Domain SME

d)

Customer

9.

Which business analysis technique allows the business analyst to leverage existing materials to analyze the current state of the enterprise relative to a business need?

a)

Process modeling

b)

Document analysis

c)

State diagrams

d)

SWOT analysis

10.

During Strategy Analysis, which technique allows the business analyst to break down business goals into achievable objectives and measures?

a)

Root-cause analysis

b)

Business rules analysis

c)

Functional decomposition

d)

Organization modeling

11.

The business analysis team has analyzed the current state and defined the desired future state of the enterprise. What is the team's most likely next step?

a)

Performing a gap analysis

b)

Assessing risks

c)

Defining the change strategy

d)

Engaging stakeholders

12.

What is the backbone of knowledge for the Business Analysis profession which is continuously being improved upon by industry experts?

a)

BABOK

b)

CBAP

13.

Which ones are the CORE responsibilities of a business analyst?

a)

Investigate Business Systems, Evaluate Actions, Document Business Requirements, Evaluate Business Requirements

b)

Strategy Implementation, Business Case Realization, Benefits Realization, Specification of IT Requirements

14.

Which ones are the EXTENDED responsibilities of a business analyst?

a)

Investigate Business Systems, Evaluate Actions, Document Business Requirements, Evaluate Business Requirements

b)

Strategy Implementation, Business Case Realization, Benefits Realization, Specification of IT Requirements

15.

What is the source of information when checking on what you need to do from a Business Analysis point of view in a particular scenario?

a)

BABOK

b)

CCBA

16.

PESTLE stands for

a)

Potential, Effective, Social, Technological, Legal, Environmental

b)

Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, Environmental

c)

Political, Effective, Social, Technological, Liaison, Engagement

d)

None of them

17.

What term is used to describe an investigation technique which brings together a wide range of different stakeholders and an independent facilitator?

a)

Protocol Analysis.

b)

A meeting.

c)

A workshop.

d)

An interview

18.

MECE stands for

a)

Mutually Exclusive, Completely Exhaustive

b)

Multiphase, Exclusive, Communicated, Exhaustive

c)

Mostly Exclusive, Completely Extensive

d)

Multi Elaborative, Completely Enabling

19.

BABOK stands for

a)

Business Analysis Body of Knowledge

b)

Business Analyst’s Book of Knowledge

20.
Identify the common stages of software development life cycles (SDLCs).
a)
Analysis, Design, Development, Testing, Implementation, Evaluation and Maintenance.
b)
Analysis, Design, Development, Testing, , Evaluation and Maintenance.
c)
Analysis, Design, , Testing, Implementation, Evaluation and Maintenance.
d)
, Design, Development, Testing, Implementation, Evaluation and Maintenance.
e)
Analysis, Design, Development, Testing, Implementation, Evaluation.
21.

Which requirements are related to system attributes such as reliability and response time.

a)

Non-functional requirements

b)

Functional Requirements

c)

Domain Requirements

d)

Software Requirements

22.

Identify the metrics of the non functional requirements.

a)

Size

b)

Speed

c)

Colour

d)

Standards

23.

5. If we need to do RCA, we need to use below tools:

a)

Fishbone / Ishikawa Diagram

b)

5 Why Analysis

c)

Both answers are correct

d)

Both answers are incorrect

24.

What are the dimensions measured on a stakeholder grid?

a)

Access and availability

b)

Expertise and influence

c)

Interest and power

d)

Motive and opportunity

25.

Which of the following are items to consider during stakeholder management:

a)

Over deliver on expectations

b)

Communicate the same to every stakeholder

c)

Identify the needs of all stakeholders

d)

Avoid challenging stakeholders

26.

The most important element in project success is:

a)

Stakeholder satisfaction

b)

How the product meets the requirements

c)

Overall product quality

d)

Overall project quality

27.

Which of the following does not identify someone as a stakeholder during stakeholder analysis?

a)

Someone who proposes a solution

b)

Someone who creates a need

c)

Someone who is affected by the need

d)

Someone who would be affected by the solution

28.

Identified stakeholder needs should all be:

a)

Addressed by the project product

b)

Qualified

c)

Ranked from greatest to least

d)

Documented in the stakeholder management plan

29.

Requirement elicitation is the process of:

a)

breaking down requirements for easy understanding.

b)

gathering and discovering stakeholder requirements.

c)

developing models to understand the problem.

d)

confirming that the requirements are correct.

30.

What are Functional requirements?

a)

Statements by the customer about expected functionality of the software

b)

Statements that define the quality requirements of software

c)

Statements that define how the software should function in case of a problem

d)

Statements that define the services offered by the software

31.

What are non-functional requirements?

a)

Requirements that specify what the system will not do.

b)

Requirements in case a system fails and becomes non-functional.

c)

Criteria for operation of the system.

d)

Requirements that have not originated from clients.

32.

Which non-functional requirement is important for a real-time system such as space-craft software?

a)

Reliability

b)

Performance

c)

Usability

d)

Interoperability

33.

What represents a professional image?

a)

The way you look represents your work and your organisation well.

b)

The way you speak conveys a clear message of your values.

c)

The way you behave reflects well on your position.

d)

All of the above.

34.
The attitude you have is as important as the skills you have for being successful on the job.​
a)
True
b)
False
35.

What do you mean by the term 'Agile'?

a)

A Software Development Methodology

b)

A Process Framework with set of process prescription

c)

A philosophy; A way of working based on some principles

d)

Delivering Software frequently , Conducting standups, Demo...

36.

What is the purpose of performing a SWOT Analysis? (CRE)

a)

Identifies internal and external factors that may affect the business future performance.

b)

Access a organisations performance

c)

Evaluates whether the business venture is a good idea.

d)

Gives the management team a broader view on the potential opportunity

37.

What would be a potential threat to a business?(EVA)

a)

Changes in technology and markets e.g. The internet.

b)

Ability to prioritize

c)

Flexibility

d)

Intrusions in the market

38.

Give an example of 2 potential threats to a business?(APP)

a)

Business interruptions, electronic data breaches

b)

Liability losses, local and global events

c)

Changes in government policy, self confidence

d)

Resilience, optimistic

39.

What does the acronym SWOT stands for?(EVA)

a)

Strengths, Weaknesses, Obligations, Threats

b)

Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats

c)

Strengths, Weak points, Opportunities, Threats

d)

Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Time

40.

Why is it important for the business to evaluate managerial decisions using a SWOT analysis? (UND)

a)

It analysis strengths, weaknesses, obligations and threats

b)

It analysis strong points, weak points, opportunities and threats

c)

It analysis strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats

d)

It analysis strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and time

41.

Fill in the blank. Strategic Decisions are decisions made by top-management that affect the ________ direction of a business

a)

Short-Term

b)

Medium-Term

c)

Long-Term

42.

What decisions are made by middle management that aim to meet strategic objectives?

a)

Strategic

b)

Tactical

c)

Operational

43.

True or False. Operational Decisions are day-to-day decisions made by staff at all levels that help the business to run smoothly.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

What are decisions that involve business-wide, complex, and multi-dimensional choices of identity and direction?

a)

Strategic

b)

Tactical

c)

Operational

45.

What decisions may involve significant resources but within clearer boundaries?

a)

Strategic

b)

Tactical

c)

Operational

46.

What decisions ask these questions: how many? to what specification?

a)

Strategic

b)

Tactical

c)

Operational

47.

A decision to relocate headquarters would be what type of decision?

a)

Strategic

b)

Tactical

c)

Operational

48.

What decisions involve how to manage performance to achieve strategy?

a)

Strategic

b)

Tactical

c)

Operational

49.

How much stock to order would be an example of what type of decision?

a)

Strategic

b)

Tactical

c)

Operational

50.

What decisions are made by middle managers?

a)

Strategic

b)

Tactical

c)

Operational

51.

What decisions ask these questions: who are we? where are we heading?

a)

Strategic

b)

Tactical

c)

Operational

52.

What decisions ask these questions: what resources are needed? what is the timescale?

a)

Strategic

b)

Tactical

c)

Operational

53.

What decisions are made by top management and senior managers?

a)

Strategic

b)

Tactical

c)

Operational

54.

Fill in the blank. The three types of business decisions are strategic, __________, and operational.

a)

Marketing

b)

Financial

c)

Tactical

55.

The waterfall method is......

a)

pouring water on your keyboard and hoping it makes software

b)

a linear approach to software development

c)

a way to develop software quickly

d)

unorganized

56.

The waterfall method is suitable for making...

a)

software for small companies

b)

a purchase method for a large company like amazon

c)

software that needs to be completed in a few weeks

d)

systems with constantly changing user requirements

57.

Select words which can be used to describe the waterfall method. [2 Words Max]

a)

Rigid

b)

Dynamic

c)

Thorough

d)

Fluid

e)

Partial

58.

What is the idea behind incremental development in Agile?

a)

Big parts of the software are developed an integrated each month (increments)

b)

Software is developed in parts or increments. In each increment contains an exhaustif user guide is provided

c)

Software is developed in parts or increments. In each increment, a portion of the complete requirement is delivered

d)

Software is developed in parts or increments. In each increment contain, at least, 5 functionalities

59.

What could be the reasons to move to an Agile methodology?

a)

Empower team and free management of responsibilities

b)

Have more adaptability and team rotation

c)

Have more flexibility and team rotation

d)

Have more flexibility and adaptability

60.

The Operating System is a program that allows different ____________ and various pieces of hardware to _________with each other.

a)

application, software

b)

software , application

c)

application , communicate

d)

software, communicate

61.

A database is an organized collection of _______________.

a)

a. data

b)

b. Attributes

c)

c. Record

d)

d. None of the above

62.

RDBMS stands for

a)

Relational Database Manegement system

b)

Rational Database Manegement system

c)

Relative Database Manegement system

d)

Related Database Management System

63.

What does mean the acronym "SOA"?

a)

Services-Online Applications

b)

Service-Opcional Architecture

c)

Service-Oriented Architecture

d)

Web Services

64.

There are two major roles within Service-oriented Architecture:

a)

Service-Provider & Service Consumer

b)

Web Applications & Web Services

c)

Soa & Mashup

65.

It allows several processes to be run and communicate with one another as well as data to be passed across a network.

a)

Logical MiddleWare

b)

Middleware

c)

Link applications

d)

Application integration

66.

Anything a user may interact with

to use a digital product or service

a)

Usability Honeycomb

b)

User Experience

c)

Credible

d)

User Interface

67.

This covers all aspects of the end-user’s interaction with the product / services

a)

Usability Honeycomb

b)

User Experience

c)

Accessibility

d)

User Interface

68.

The focus of which is on how a product surfaces look and function

a)

Accessibility

b)

User Experience

c)

Usability

d)

User Interface

69.

The focus of which is on User’s Journey to solve a problem

a)

Accessibility

b)

User Experience

c)

Usability

d)

User Interface

70.

_____________ is the person working on tangible elements

a)

Front-end developer

b)

UI Designer

c)

Business Analyst

d)

UX Designer

71.

_____________ is the person focusing on conceptual aspects of the design process

a)

Front-end developer

b)

UI Designer

c)

Business Analyst

d)

UX Designer

72.

It is like Client-Server architecture, where communication takes place between client and server.

a)

1 Tier

b)

2 Tier

c)

3 Tier

d)

N Tier

73.

What is the process where value is extracted from big data known as?

a)

Data creation

b)

Data science

c)

Data analytics

d)

Data extraction

74.

What can Ai do that humans can't?

a)

Make no mistakes

b)

Sleep

c)

Think quickly

d)

Everything

e)

Do the same thing for a long time without getting tired/bored

75.

The purpose of Digital Marketing is ...

a)

To encourage users to use mobile devices like mobile phones and mobile tablets

b)

To save time and effort in marketing

c)

Leverage on digital platform to promote and sell goods and services

d)

To protect the environment as print media is bad for the environment

76.

Business case refers to the reasons, or justification, for a proposal. It should be comprehensive yet easy to understand. It should ___ .

a)

describe the project clearly

b)

provide the justification to proceed

c)

estimate the project’s financial impact

d)

describe the project obscurely

e)

provide the reason to delay

77.

'It is a comprehensive document prepared to assist the entrepreneur in analysing the market and planning the business strategy'. This statement best describes

a)

an operational plan

b)

a business plan

c)

an organization plan

d)

a financial plan

78.

The purpose of a feasibilitystudy of the businessis:

a)

to perfect the good or service to be offered

b)

to compile a list of potential investors

c)

to identify potential barriers to success

d)

to demonstrate compliance with applicable laws and regulations

79.

The combined stages of a project are known as what?

a)

Lifecycle

b)

Lifetime

c)

Life long

d)

Life sentence

80.

Mission statements usually focus on ___ .

a)

long-term challenges and goals

b)

short-term challenges and goals

c)

the importance of the firm’s stakeholders

d)

the urgency of the firm’s stakeholders

e)

a commitment to the firm’s role as a corporate citizen

81.

Process model used to document the scope of a system is referred to as :

a)

Control flow diagram

b)

Process flow diagram

c)

Top flow diagram

d)

Decomposition diagram

82.

Act of breaking a system into sub-components. Each level of abstraction reveals more or less detail

a)

Generalization

b)

Composition

c)

Normalization

d)

Decomposition

83.

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Waterfall approach:

a)

Attempts to Define Detailed Requirements Upfront Prior to the Start of the Project

b)

May be Broken Up into Phases with Phase Gates to Approve Phase Transitions

c)

Requires breaking up the project into iterations

84.

The Waterfall approach was called "Waterfall" because the outputs of one phase flowed into the

next phase as inputs like a "Waterfall"

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Reduced overhead and faster time to market are generally characteristics of an Agile approach

a)

True

b)

False

86.

An Agile project is more likely to result in maximizing the business value the customer receives

from the project

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Which projects suits waterfall approach?

a)

Building the pyramids

b)

Projects with high certainty

c)

Building Bridges

d)

Software

e)

R & D

88.

An Agile approach will ALWAYS result in fastest time to market.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

The Project Management model separates the project development lifecycle into sprints.

a)

Agile

b)

Waterfall

90.

The Project Management model can sometimes make it difficult for the test to initiate any change in requirements.

a)

Agile

b)

Waterfall

91.

The Project Management model team coordination/synchronization is very limited.

a)

Agile

b)

Waterfall

92.

The Project Management model is ideal for projects which have definite requirements and changes not at all expected.

a)

Agile

b)

Waterfall

93.

Which of these are limitations for the WATERFALL model?

a)

Not an ideal model for a large size project

b)

The project can easily go off track if the project manager is not clear what outcome he/she wants.

c)

Difficult to move back to makes changes in the previous phases

d)

Not easy to manage, not sequential, nor rigid method.

94.

Which of these is true about the WATERFALL project management model?

a)

It works well for smaller size projects where requirements are easily understandable.

b)

Methodology is known for its flexibility.

c)

Process is divided into distinct phases.

d)

A process in which the requirements are expected to change and evolve.

95.

Which of these is true about the AGILE project management model?

a)

The client is continuously involved during every stage.

b)

Useful method for small development projects.

c)

Assures that quality of the development is maintained

d)

Allows for more flexibility

e)

The method is ideal for projects which have definite requirements and changes not at all expected.

96.

Which of these are limitations for the WATERFALL model?

a)

Not an ideal model for a large size project

b)

The project can easily go off track if the project manager is not clear what outcome he/she wants.

c)

Difficult to move back to makes changes in the previous phases

d)

Not easy to manage, not sequential, nor rigid method.

97.

Which of these describes the difference between the Waterfall and Agile approach to project management.

a)

Waterfall model is ideal for projects which have defined requirements, and no changes are expected. On the other hand, Agile is best suited where there is a higher chance of frequent requirement changes.

b)

Waterfall is better for larger projects, while agile is better for smaller projects.

c)

Agile is very flexible and it possible to make changes in any phase, while waterfall is a sequential and rigid method.

d)

Waterfall requires a client meetings, while agile does not.

e)

Waterfall uses tools like Gantt Charts, while Agile utilizes tools like the Kanban table

98.

Stakeholders are:

a)

The project engineers who design and construct the project.

b)

The people, groups,or organizations that could impact or be impacted by a decision,activity,or outcome of the project.

c)

The organization's corporate attorneys.

d)

The individuals or agencies that control contingency funds and their disbursement through the project management office (PMO).

99.

Which of the following is NOT a process in Project Stakeholder Management?

a)

Identify Stakeholders.

b)

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

c)

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement.

d)

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

100.

You are developing management strategies to effectively engage stakeholders throughout the project life cycle, based on the analysis of their needs, interests, and potential impact on project success. This is known as:

a)

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

b)

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement.

c)

Plan Stakeholder Engagement.

d)

Plan Stakeholder Management.

101.

In developing a stakeholder register, you need to include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Identification information

b)

Assessment information

c)

Stakeholder classification

d)

Project risk information

102.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement involves all of the following activities EXCEPT:

a)

Clarifying and resolving issues that have been identified.

b)

Avoiding potential concerns that have not yet become issues.

c)

Anticipating future problems that may be raised by stakeholders.

d)

Managing stakeholders'expectations through negotiation and communication.

103.

The power/interest grid classification model for stakeholders analysis suggests:

a)

Keeping high-power/high-interest stakeholders informed.

b)

Keeping high-power/low-interest stakeholders satisfied.

c)

Monitoring low-power/high-interest stakeholders.

d)

Managing low-power/low-interest stakeholders closely.

104.

RACI stands for

a)

Reasonable Accountable Considered Informal

b)

Responsible Accountable Consulted Informed

c)

Responsive Argumentative Considerate Insulting

d)

Responsible Accurate Communication Informative

105.

Select typical challenges of the requirements elicitation

a)

The stakeholders don't know exactly what they need

b)

The stakeholders intentionally hide some important information from the analyst

c)

The analyst is lazy

d)

The requirements may frequently change

106.

Why is traceability important? (Multiple answers)

a)

Identifies all materials at all parts of the process

b)

Ensures that products can be recalled in case of an incident

c)

Customers require traceability

d)

No thanks

107.

Processes involved in the production and distribution of a commodity.

a)

supply chain

b)

authorities

c)

marketplaces

d)

traceability

108.

Which task uses the business need as input in the Strategy Analysis knowledge area?

a)

Analyze Current State

b)

Prioritize Requirements

c)

Define Future States

d)

Verify Requirements

109.

What is the purpose of “Assess Risks” task?

a)

To identify new risks within the organization that can be exploited.

b)

To understand the undesirable consequences of internal and external forces on the enterprise during a transition to, or once in, the future state.

c)

Review the enterprise architecture for knowledge transfer gaps.

d)

Determine the solution risks.

110.

Which of the following statements BEST describes a common test for assessing goals and objectives?

a)

Specific, Achievable, Tangible, Measurable, Realistic.

b)

Time-bound, Relevant, Analytical, Measurable, Specific.

c)

Achievable, Specific, Measurable, Time-bound, Relevant.

d)

Manageable, Solid, Actionable, Relevant, Time-bound.

111.

Before a Define Change Strategy, which of the following have to be done?

a)

Identify Business Analysis Performance Improvements

b)

Risk Assessment

c)

Prepare for Elicitation

d)

Manage Stakeholder Collaboration

112.

Requirements discovery is also called ___________________________.

a)

Requirements elicitation

b)

Requirements analysis

c)

Requirements validation

d)

Requirements management

113.

Select all valid problem analysis techniques, which can be used in BA projects.

a)

Functional composition

b)

The Five Whys

c)

The fishbone diagram

d)

Individual performance analysis

114.

Eliciting requirements while working with a group of stakeholders can...

(Select all relevant answers)

a)

be an efficient way to do it

b)

present the various perspectives on the problem and possible solutions

c)

be challenging because of contradicting opinions within the group