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CLINICAL PHARMACY PART 1

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Involved in the initiation and maintenance of bleeding in menstruation by promoting vasodilation

a)

Estrogen

b)

Lutein

c)

Nitric Oxide

d)

Progesterone

2.

Symptoms that may start 14 days before menstruation affecting both young & older women

a)

PMDD

b)

PMS

c)

Endometriosis

d)

Dysmenorrhea

3.

Menstrual disorder aka as spasmodic dysmenorrhea, which is a uterine problem for young women

a)

Primary Dysmenorrheal

b)

Secondary Dysmenorrheal

c)

PMDD

d)

PMS

4.

NSAID frequently used to managed dysmenorrheal pain

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

ASA

c)

Mefenamic Acid

d)

Celecoxib

5.

Excessive blood loss >80mL per period

a)

Menarche

b)

Dysmenorrheal

c)

Menorrhagia

d)

Endometriosis

6.

A condition in which endometrial tissue is found outside the uterus

a)

Menarche

b)

Dysmenorrheal

c)

Menorrhagia

d)

Endometriosis

7.

The permanent cessation of menstruation in women averaging 51 y/o

a)

Menopause

b)

Dysmenorrheal

c)

Menorrhagia

d)

Endometriosis

8.

Post-menopausal stage levels of these hormone is/are negative

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Androgen

d)

AOTA

9.

Effects of estrogen therapy, EXCEPT

a)

Raised BP

b)

VTE

c)

Undesirable Lipid Profile

d)

NOTA

10.

An alternative medical treatment to HRT, EXCEPT

a)

Acupuncture

b)

SNRI

c)

Yoga

d)

Aromatherapy

11.

. The best route for drug administration in pre term infants

a)

IM

b)

IV-Scalp

c)

Topical

d)

SQ

12.

. if an infant is born after 42 completed weeks & onwards

a)

Term

b)

Pre Term

c)

Post Term

d)

Neonatal Period

13.

An IV ante-natal treatment to improve neonatal lung surfactant

a)

Betamethasone

b)

Prednisolone

c)

Dexamethasone

d)

Hydrocortisone

14.

If a child only weighs 990g after birth it is classified as

a)

Normal Birth Weigh

b)

Low BW

c)

Very Low BW

d)

Extremely Low BW

15.

The best anti convulsant used in infants for its long half life would be

a)

Diazepam

b)

Midazolam

c)

Phenobarbital

d)

Paraldehyde

16.

All of the following can be administered via rectal route EXCEPT for

a)

Paraldehyde

b)

Glucose

c)

Diazepam

d)

Paracetamol

17.

opiate that might likely lead to respiratory depression in neonates

a)

Pethidine

b)

Demerol

c)

Morphine

d)

Naloxone

18.

Antidote for opiate toxicity

a)

Pethidine

b)

Demerol

c)

Morphine

d)

Naloxone

19.

Which of the following statement is TRUE for neonates

a)

Faster elimination rate

b)

Slower metabolism

c)

Distribution rate is same as in an adult

d)

Metabolism is the same as in an adult

20.

The route for phytomenadione administration

a)

SQ

b)

Oral

c)

IV

d)

IM

21.

A paralyzing agent to facilitate intubation

a)

Pancuronium

b)

Morphine

c)

Atracurium

d)

Midazolam

22.

The result/ADR of hyperoxia in RDS of infants

a)

Otitis Media

b)

Retinopathy

c)

Hypoxia

d)

Ototoxicity

23.

Medical treatment for patent ductus arteriosus

a)

Indomethacin

b)

Oral ASA

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Theophylline

24.

Diuretic used to prevent loss of potassium in bronchopulmonary dysplasia

a)

Loop

b)

CAI

c)

Thiazides

d)

Mannitol

25.

A cephalosporin less toxic than aminoglycosides

a)

Amikacin

b)

Gentamicin

c)

Penicillin

d)

Cefotaxime

26.

the reversible ADR of aminoglycoside

a)

Nephrotoxicity

b)

Hepatotoxicity

c)

Ototoxicity

d)

Cardiotoxicity

27.

A rare case of vitamin K malabsorption more common in breast fed infants

a)

PDA

b)

BPD

c)

Necrotizing enterocolitis

d)

Hemorrhagic disease

28.

An adjunct treatment for apnea

a)

Caffeine

b)

Theophylline

c)

Doxapram

d)

Aminophylline

29.

If two loading doses of Phenobarbital is ineffective for seizure treatment use

a)

. Sodium valproate

b)

. Carbamazepine

c)

Amobarbital

d)

Phenytoin

30.

A non-sedating short acting anti-seizure drug excreted via exhalation

a)

Paraldehyde

b)

Diazepam

c)

Sodium Valproate

d)

Carbamazepine

31.

The branch of medicine dealing with the development, diseases & disorders of children

a)

Neonatology

b)

Pediatrics

c)

Geriatrics

d)

Ophthalmology

32.

If the age is from 4 weeks to 1 year old it is termed

a)

Neonate

b)

Toddler

c)

Infant

d)

Child

33.

Neural tube defects can be prevented with the supplementation of

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Calcium

c)

Folic Acid

d)

Iron

34.

Excess toes or fingers is termed

a)

Hypospadia

b)

Polydactyly

c)

Cleft Palate

d)

Downs Syndrome

35.

Drug distribution is affected by all the following factors EXCEPT

a)

Vascular Perfusion

b)

Liver Size

c)

Tissue-Binding

d)

Plasma Protein Binding

36.

Age with the highest percentage of body water is:

a)

Preterm Neonates

b)

Term Neonates

c)

3 Month Infant

d)

Adult

37.

All of the following are possible IV route problems EXCEPT for

a)

Rate of Infusion

b)

Displacement Volume

c)

Dead Space

d)

NOTA

38.

Drug administered intranasally for diabetes insipidus

a)

Desmopressin

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Diamorphine

d)

Insulin

39.

A drug that when administered to pediatric patients might cause adrenal suppression

a)

Corticosteroid

b)

Opiates

c)

Benzodiazepines

d)

Insulin

40.

The best route for cardiorespiratory arrest in pediatric patients for fast effect

a)

IV

b)

Intracardiac

c)

Intraosseous

d)

IM

41.

Non pharmacologic prevention therapy for osteoporotic patients includes all EXCEPT

a)

Stop Smoking

b)

Exercise

c)

Healthy Diet

d)

Hip Replacement

42.

All of the following physiologic factors are reduced in the elderly EXCEPT

a)

Liver Size

b)

Gi Motility

c)

Body Fat

d)

Splanchnic Blood Flow

43.

Chronic use in pain management leads to gastroduodenal ulceration or GI bleeding

a)

Paracetamol

b)

Donepezil

c)

Finasteride

d)

Tolterodine

44.

Drug/s that act as acetylcholinesterase inhibitors that improve cognitive fx in alzheimer’s dse

a)

Donepezil

b)

Galantamine

c)

Rivastigmine

d)

AOTA

45.

Which of the following factor affects the distribution of drugs in the elderly?

a)

Lower Serum Albumin

b)

Reduce GFR

c)

Reduced Bile Flow

d)

Slower Gi Motility

46.

Which of the following drug would like cause hypotension in the elderly?

a)

Cetirizine

b)

Mefenamic Acid

c)

Celecoxib

d)

Co-Amoxiclav

47.

H2 antagonist, hypnotics, anti cholinergics & beta blockers will cause ____ in the elderly

a)

Constipation

b)

Confusion

c)

Hypotension

d)

Neuropathy

48.

In elderly with Parkinson’s disease, this drug should be avoided to prevent peripheral ischemia

a)

Levodopa

b)

Bromocriptine

c)

Phenytoin

d)

Phenobarbita

49.

Warfarin toxicity can be observed if the INR of the patient is

a)

1.5

b)

2.0

c)

5.0

d)

2.7

50.

Which of the following statement is TRUE for acute liver failure?

a)

Acute liver failure is common in males

b)

Idiosyncratic effects are the most common source of ALF

c)

All new drugs have the possibility of causing acute liver disease

d)

. Acute liver disease does not depend on the dose of the drug

51.

An anti-convulsant that may cause fatal toxicity if used on a child less than 3y.o

a)

Aspirin

b)

Halothane

c)

Chlorpromazine

d)

Sodium Valproate

52.

An inhaled anesthesia that causes hepatitis like jaundice common in women

a)

Halothane

b)

Isoniazid

c)

Diazepam

d)

Methotrexate

53.

Which of the following causes cholestatic jaundice in males rather than in females?

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Co-Amoxiclav

c)

Nitrofurantoin

d)

Clindamycin

54.

Which of the following enzyme inducer potentiates the effect of paracetamol, INH & halothane?

a)

Metronidazole

b)

O.C.

c)

Alcohol

d)

Mebendazole

55.

Which of the following drug causes hepatocellular necrosis?

a)

Propylthiouracil

b)

Metronidazole

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

HCTZ

56.

Drug commonly associated to have caused steatosis is

a)

Iron Salts

b)

MDMA

c)

Paracetamol

d)

Amiodarone

57.

The most common finding in cholestasis is

a)

Prolonged PT Time

b)

Prolonged PTT Time

c)

Inc. Bilirubin

d)

Inc. INR

58.

The best indicator for acute hepatitis is

a)

Prolonged PT Time

b)

Prolonged PTT Time

c)

Inc. Bilirubin

d)

Inc. INR

59.

A vitamin that may cause dose related fibrosis and cirrhosis of the liver

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin B

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin D

60.

All of the following can be used for management of coagulation disorders EXCEPT

a)

Fresh Frozen Plasma

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Acetylcysteine

d)

Vit. ADEK

61.

Leading cause/s of acute liver disease

a)

Paracetamol Overdose

b)

Viral Hepatitis

c)

Both

d)

NOTA

62.

The drug of choice to promote urinary excretion of copper in Wilsons’s disease

a)

D-Penicillamine

b)

BAL

c)

EDTA

d)

Dimercaprol

63.

Yellow plaque formation around the eye due to liver disease is known as

a)

Spider Naevi

b)

Xanthelasma

c)

Ascites

d)

Leukonychia

64.

A genetic induced liver disease is due to deficiency in

a)

Glycogen

b)

A1-Antitrypsin

c)

Serum Ferritin

d)

Bilirubin

65.

The best time in applying a once-a-day eye drop for glaucoma is at the maximum time of IOP

a)

8am

b)

12am

c)

12pm

d)

3pm

66.

All the following statement are true for primary angle closure glaucoma, EXCEPT

a)

. It is aka close angle glaucoma

b)

. It is a medical emergency that might lead to blindness

c)

It increases IOP

d)

It decreases IOP

67.

A type of glaucoma that arises from inflammation, congenital anomalies & raised episcleral pressure

a)

PACG

b)

COAG

c)

Secondary Glaucoma

d)

Closed Angle Glaucoma

68.

Ocular prostanoid is to be used by the patients to increase aqueous outflow, which drug should be given

a)

Timolol

b)

Travoprost

c)

Betaxolol

d)

Brimonidine

69.

A beta-adrenergic antagonist with the greatest beta blocking activity and the highest ISA (intrinsic sympathetic activity)

a)

Timolol

b)

Propranolol

c)

Pilocarpine

d)

Carteolol

70.

It has greater vasodilator effect, dec of IOP, least lipophilic so it has low SE in the CNS

a)

Timolol

b)

Propranolol

c)

Pilocarpine

d)

Carteolol

71.

Inflammation of the eyelids is also known as

a)

Uveitis

b)

Blepharitis

c)

Conjunctivitis

d)

Iritis

72.

Patient was prescribed with this sympathomimetic medication derived from clonidine with less effect on BP and Heart rate

a)

Apraclonidine

b)

Brimonidine

c)

Pilocarpine

d)

Acetazolamide

73.

The patient was injected with a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor via IV prior to surgery, what drug was given?

a)

Glucose

b)

Glucose

c)

Acetazolamide

d)

Dorzolamide

74.

The most common ADR of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors experienced by all patients but disappears after initial treatment.

a)

Paresthesia

b)

Keratitis

c)

Lid Retraction

d)

Distichiasis

75.

An ADR of prostanoids where there is an increase growth of eyelashes

a)

Paresthesia

b)

Keratitis

c)

Lid Retraction

d)

Distichiasis

76.

Group of drugs that directly acts on muscarinic receptors by opening channels in the trabecular meshwork and increase outflow of aqueous humor

a)

Beta Blockers

b)

Prostanoids

c)

CAI

d)

Miotics

77.

A group of drugs that inhibits the formation of bicarbonate in the posterior eye chamber by blocking CA-II

a)

Beta Blockers

b)

Prostanoids

c)

CAI

d)

Miotics

78.

An osmotic & strong diuretic that may lead to cerebral dehydration; initial treatment for PACG

a)

Glucose

b)

Mannitol

c)

Acetazolamide

d)

Dorzolamide

79.

In patient care all patients must be reminded on

a)

technique for eye instillation

b)

COAG cannot be treated

c)

emphasis on the number of drops

d)

AOTA

80.

A technique important in children with atopic eczema to avoid scratching

a)

Application of emollient

b)

Application of coal tar

c)

Bandaging

d)

Phototherapy

81.

Precipitating factors for psoriasis include all, EXCEPT

a)

Smoking

b)

Alcohol

c)

HIV Infection

d)

NOTA

82.

It refers to psoriatic lesions occurring in sites of skin injury, cuts, burns or surgical scars

a)

. Kopliks Spots

b)

Koebner’s Phenomenon

c)

Kaposi’s Sarcoma

d)

Argyria

83.

A type of psoriasis normally found on the soles of the feet & on the palms of a pts hands

a)

Guttate

b)

Flexural

c)

Palmoplantar

d)

Psoriasis Vulgaris

84.

A type of psoriasis common in children & young adults characterized by scaly ’tear-drop’ like plaques

a)

Guttate

b)

Flexural

c)

Palmoplantar

d)

Psoriasis Vulgaris

85.

A topical vitamin most significant in the management/treatment of psoriasis

a)

Vit. C

b)

Vit. D

c)

Vit. B Complex

d)

Vit. A

86.

Treatment useful in reducing hyperkeratosis in psoriatic lesions especially in the palms & soles

a)

Salicylic Acid

b)

Methyl Salicylate

c)

Retinoids

d)

Coal Tar

87.

A patient with psoriasis associated with RA-like symptoms is suffering from

a)

Erythrodermic Psoriasis

b)

Psoriatic Arthropathy

c)

Generalized Pustular Psoriasis

d)

Flexural Psoriasis

88.

Its mild form is topically applied to reduce inflammation in psoriasis

a)

Steroids

b)

Retinoids

c)

Dithranol

d)

Phototherapy

89.

Vitamin A derivative used to inhibit epidermal proliferation, effective for keratinization in chronic plaque

a)

Acitretin

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Cyclosporine

d)

Hydroxyurea

90.

A TNF-alpha antagonist

a)

MTX

b)

Cyclosporine

c)

Hydroxyurea

d)

Etanercept

91.

A systemic preparation, purine analog that inhibits DNA synthesis effective against adult eczema

a)

Ciclosporin

b)

MTX

c)

Azathioprine

d)

Mycophenolate Mofetil

92.

An immunomodulator that inhibit calcineurin phosphatase which is important in T-lymphocyte activation

a)

Tacrolimus

b)

Ketoconazole

c)

Diphenhydramine

d)

Coal Tar

93.

A mainstay on eczema management/therapy

a)

Coal Tar

b)

Emollients

c)

Steroids

d)

Calcineurin Inhibitors

94.

The most common form of occupational dermatitis

a)

Allergic Contact Dermatitis

b)

Seborrheic Dermatitis

c)

Irritant Contact Dermatitis

d)

Discoid Eczema