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WorksheetsPharmacodynam
Total questions: 10
Worksheet time: 5mins
Which of the following best describes how a drug that
acts as an agonist at the A subtype of GABA receptors
affects signal transduction in a neuron
Activation of this receptor subtype alters transcription
of DNA in the nucleus of the neuron.
Activation of this receptor subtype opens ion channels
that allow sodium to enter cells and increases
the chance of generating an action potential
Activation of this receptor subtype opens ion channels
that allow chloride to enter cells and decreases
the chance of generating an action potential.
Activation of this receptor subtype results in G protein
activation and increased intracellular second messenger
levels.
If 1 mg of lorazepam produces the same anxiolytic
response as 10 mg of diazepam, which is correct
Lorazepam is more potent than is diazepam.
Lorazepam is more efficacious than is diazepam
Lorazepam is a full agonist, and diazepam is a partial
agonist.
Lorazepam is a better drug to take for anxiety than is
diazepam
If 1 0 mg of oxycodone produces a greater analgesic
response than does aspirin at any dose, which is correct
Oxycodone is more efficacious than is aspirin
Oxycodone is less potent than is aspirin
Aspirin is a full agonist, and oxycodone is a partial
agonist
Oxycodone and aspirin act on the same drug target
In the presence of propranolol, a higher concentration of
epinephrine is required to elicit full antiasthmatic activity.
Propranolol has no effect on asthma symptoms. Which is
correct regarding these medications
Epinephrine is less efficacious than is propranolol.
Epinephrine is a full agonist, and propranolol is a partial
agonist.
Epinephrine is an agonist, and propranolol is a competitive
antagonist.
Epinephrine is an agonist, and propranolol is a noncompetitive
antagonist
In the presence of picrotoxin, diazepam is less efficacious
at causing sedation, regardless of the dose. Picrotoxin
has no sedative effect, even at the highest dose. Which
of the following is correct regarding these agents
Picrotoxin is a competitive antagonist
Picrotoxin is a noncompetitive antagonist
Diazepam is less efficacious than is picrotoxin
Diazepam is less potent than is picrotoxin
Haloperidol, chlorpromazine, and clozapine are antipsychotic
medications that bind to the D2 subtype of dopamine
receptors, with a binding affinity of haloperidol >
chlorpromazine > clozapine. Which statement would
have to be correct to conclude that the mechanism of
antipsychotic effects for these drugs is via binding to D2
receptors
Haloperidol should have the lowest potency of the
three antipsychotic drugs.
D2 receptor binding should also be related to the
potency of these drugs in causing Parkinson's-like
adverse effects.
A positive correlation should exist between the affinity
of these drugs to bind to D2 receptors and their
potency for antipsychotic actions.
Clozapine would have to be more potent than chlorpromazine
for decreasing psychosis
If there were spare fl1-adrenergic receptors on cardiac
muscle cells, which statement would be correct
The number of spare fl1-adrenergic receptors determines
the size of the maximum effect of the agonist
epinephrine.
Spare fl1 adrenergic receptors make the cardiac tissue
less sensitive to epinephrine.
A maximal effect of epinephrine is seen when only a
portion of fl1 adrenergic receptors are occupied.
Spare receptors are active even in the absence of
epinephrine.
Which of the following up-regulates postsynaptic a1-
adrenergic receptors
Daily use of amphetamine that causes release of
norepinephrine
A disease that causes an increase in the activity of
norepinephrine neurons
Daily use of phenylephrine, an a1 receptor agonist
Daily use of prazosin, an a1 receptor antagonist
Methylphenidate helps patients with attention deficit
hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) maintain attention and
perform better at school or work, with an EDso of 10 mg.
However, methylphenidate can also cause significant
nausea at higher doses (TD50 "' 30 mg). Which is correct
regarding methylphenidate
The therapeutic index of methylphenidate is 3
The therapeutic index of methylphenidate is 0.3
Methylphenidate is more potent at causing nausea
than treating ADHD
Methylphenidate is more efficacious at causing nausea
than treating ADHD
Which is correct concerning the safety of using warfarin
(with a small therapeutic index) versus penicillin (with a
large therapeutic index)
Warfarin is a safer drug because it has a low therapeutic
index.
Warfarin treatment has a high chance of resulting in
dangerous adverse effects if bioavailability is altered
The high therapeutic index makes penicillin a safe
drug for all patients.
Penicillin treatment has a high chance of causing
dangerous adverse effects if bioavailability is altered
