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CFA Investment Foundations Practice Items

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Regulation helps to reduce the risk of systemic financial market failure caused by:

a)

increasing levels of debt funding and interconnectivity among industry participants.

b)

companies failing to transfer financial risk to the buyers of corporate debt.

c)

the decreasing availability of investment-grade corporate debt traded in global financial markets.

2.

A proposed new regulation to combat unethical market behavior might not be implemented by a regulator because of the:

a)

associated opportunity costs

b)

inability to obtain public consent

c)

effect on global financial markets

3.

A person ate three chocolate bars during his lunch break. Afterward, he stated that although the first chocolate bar was most enjoyable, he found the second one less so, and the third was the least enjoyable of them all. This progressive loss of satisfaction with additional consumption is referred to in economics as the law of:

a)

demand

b)

substitution effect

c)

diminishing marginal utility

4.

The following table shows the effect of increasing the amount of fertilizer used in various fields at an agricultural test center and the resulting pounds of tomatoes produced.

Field Units of Fertilizer Used Pounds of Tomatoes Produced

1- 0 40

2- 10 80

3- 20 100

4- 30 110

5- 40 90

The effect of increasing the use of fertilizer on output levels is an example of:

a)

economies of scale

b)

operating leverage

c)

the law of diminishing returns

5.

Brian owns a restaurant and makes decisions about the wages that he offers his employees based on the local supply and demand of labour. Brenda, a policy analyst for the federal government, recommends changes in tax laws that will reduce the unemployment rate across the country. Microeconomic decision making is the primary focus of:

a)

Brian only

b)

Brenda only

c)

both Brian and Brenda

6.

A natural monopoly is most likely characterized by:

a)

many close substitutes

b)

little freedom in setting prices

c)

modest capital investment requirements

7.

Compared with GDP calculated using the expenditure approach, gross domestic income will most likely be:

a)

lower

b)

higher

c)

the same

8.

A government is attempting to reduce the level of aggregate demand through its fiscal policy. To achieve this goal, the government will most likely increase:

a)

interest rates

b)

personal income tax rates

c)

spending on infrastructure

9.

An analyst notes that the following economic conditions currently exist:

-Businesses are replacing obsolete equipment.

-Consumers who had previously postponed the purchase of household items are beginning to make those purchases.

-Interest rates and inflation are low.

The business cycle is most likely:

a)

at a peak

b)

in a trough

c)

in an expansion

10.

in a recent release of economic indicators, personal income rose for the first time in nine months. An analyst will most likely conclude that the economy in the immediate future should be:

a)

weaker

b)

stronger

c)

unaffected

11.

According to the monetarist view of inflation, there is a relationship between inflation and the:

a)

money supply

b)

cost of production

c)

level of unemployment

12.

In 2011, Germany had the second largest current account surplus in the world. Some of the countries with the largest current account deficits at that time were the United Kingdom, France, and Spain. The currency for the United Kingdom is the British pound; the currency for France, Spain, and Germany is the euro, along with 15 other European countries. The country that was most likely to experience a self-adjusting change in its exchange rate to correct its current account deficit was:

a)

Spain

b)

France

c)

The United Kingdom

13.

In a year in which there has been strong economic growth worldwide, the overall sum of the balance of payments accounts for all countries is:

a)

zero

b)

positive

c)

indeterminate

14.

Previously, the exchange rate between euros and US dollars was €0.75/$1. Now, the exchange rate is €0.80/$1. This difference means that:

a)

now €1 can be exchanged for $0.80.

b)

previously $1 could be exchanged for €0.75.

c)

the euro appreciated between the two time periods.

15.

An increase in international trade results in:

a)

access to resources that are in limited supply.

b)

reduced competition and higher domestic prices.

c)

a decrease in demand for domestic products and services.

16.

When a company sells a product on credit, the day the merchandise is shipped to the customer, the company will most likely report an increase in:

a)

revenue and cash flow

b)

profit but not cash flow.

c)

cash flow but not profit.

17.

Which of the following activities would be classified as a cash outflow from investing activities?

a)

Payment of dividends

b)

Purchase of inventory

c)

Purchase of equipment

18.

The following information is available about the return on assets (ROA) for a company and the industry in which it operates:

Company IndustryNet profit margin(Net income/Revenues) 10.00% 12.00%

Asset turnover(Revenues/Total assets) 1.5 times 1.2 times ROA 15.00% 14.40%

An investor can conclude that compared with the industry, the company:

a)

is riskier

b)

uses it assets more effectively

c)

generates more earnings per dollar of revenue earned

19.

Three parents are discussing the allowances that they give to their 10-year-old sons. Although each child receives a total of $520 per year, the manner in which the payments are made differs:

Jack gives his son $10 per week.

Bill gives his son $400 on January 1 and the remaining $120 on December 31.

Brian gives his son half ($260) on January 1 and the other half on July 1.

The parent(s) whose payment system can be described as an annuity is (are):

a)

only Jack

b)

both Jack and Brian

c)

all three, because all provide the same annual amount

20.

The underlying assumption of simple interest is that:

a)

interest is paid only annually

b)

interest accrued is not reinvested

c)

the investor has chosen the highest interest earning alternative

21.

The winner of a government-sponsored lottery is given the choice of receiving her government-guaranteed £10,000 prize now or in one year. Because the winner is certain of getting paid in either case, she should:

a)

elect to receive the funds immediately

b)

be indifferent between the two alternatives

c)

elect to delay the receipt of the funds for one year

22.

In an amortising mortgage, which of the following portions of the fixed payment decreases with the passage of time?

a)

Interest only

b)

Principal only

c)

Both interest and principal

23.

A Treasury security is most likely issued by:

a)

the US government

b)

any central government

c)

the treasury function of large corporations

24.

The coupon rate for a fixed-rate bond that a company issued five years ago most likely represents:

a)

current market interest rates.

b)

the periodic interest the company is obligated to pay.

c)

the interest rate earned adjusted for the bond's current market price.

25.

Debt securities that have maturities of less than one year are referred to as:

a)

bills

b)

gilts

c)

notes

26.

The risk that coupon payments might have to be invested at a rate that reflects current market conditions is called:

a)

liquidity risk

b)

interest rate risk

c)

reinvestment risk

27.

The way in which an investor is protected from higher inflation in an inflation-linked bond is through:

a)

an adjustment to the coupon rate.

b)

an adjustment to the principal.

c)

an adjustment to the principal and coupon.

28.

Debt securities that mature in 12 years are referred to as:

a)

bills

b)

bonds

c)

notes

29.

When compared with common stock, preferred stock most likely has:

a)

greater risk

b)

lower seniority

c)

a lower potential return

30.

Which of these is most likely a characteristic of preferred stock but not of common stock? Preferred stock typically:

a)

has voting rights

b)

pays a fixed dividend

c)

does not have a maturity date

31.

Which of these actions will most likely reduce the number of a company's shares outstanding?

a)

A spinoff

b)

A reverse stock split

c)

A seasoned equity offering

32.

Typically, the security issued by a foreign firm that is purchased by a bank for the purpose of issuing a global depositary receipt (GDR) is:

a)

bonds

b)

common stock

c)

preferred stock

33.

Generally, using a price-to-earnings ratio to value common stock is most likely a(n):

a)

relative valuation approach

b)

asset-based valuation approach

c)

discounted cash flow valuation approach

34.

Based on risk, which of the following securities is most likely to produce the highest long-run return?

a)

Common shares

b)

Corporate bonds

c)

Preferred shares

35.

When used as a risk management tool, the use of derivatives contracts most likely results in a(n):

a)

increase of risk

b)

reduction of risk

c)

elimination of risk

36.

In forward and futures contracts, the risk of non-fulfilment of contract terms is most likely borne by:

a)

both parties to the contract.

b)

the party that has the long side of the contract.

c)

the party that has the short side of the contract.

37.

When the buyer of a call option on a stock exercises the option, the seller of the call option most likely must:

a)

deliver the stock to the buyer.

b)

take delivery of the stock from the buyer.

c)

deliver the cash value of the stock to the buyer.

38.

The buyer of a credit default swap (CDS):

a)

protects the seller of the CDS from losses in the event of default.

b)

protects the issuer of the reference debt instrument from losses.

c)

receives protection from the seller of the CDS in the event of a default.

39.

In a private equity structure, the party that raises the capital and makes decisions is:

a)

the general partner

b)

the limited partner

c)

both the general and limited partners

40.

Relative to traditional assets, it would be accurate to describe alternative investments as being:

a)

easy to value and liquid

b)

heavily regulated and illiquid

c)

lightly regulated and not as transparent

41.

An investor looking to gain equity exposure to real estate in the public market would invest in real estate:

a)

equity funds

b)

limited partnerships

c)

investment trusts (REITs)

42.

Which of the following is correct with regard to investing in commodities?

a)

They offer an inflation hedge

b)

Commodity exposure requires purchase of physical commodity.

c)

Derivative instruments cannot be used to gain commodity exposure.

43.

Reports from investment research providers are valuable to investors because they:

a)

are based solely on facts.

b)

save investors time by compiling data from multiple sources.

c)

contain substantial information that is not publicly available.

44.

The position most likely responsible for cash management within a firm is the:

a)

treasurer

b)

chief accountant

c)

chief operation officer

45.

One reason the investment industry provides mostly standardized services to retail investors is because retail investors:

a)

have the lowest level of knowledge.

b)

outnumber institutional investors.

c)

generate the most revenue per investor.

46.

The person or position most likely to deal with constraints created by laws and regulations is the:

a)

head trader

b)

chief audit executive

c)

chief compliance officer

47.

The sales and client relations department most likely exists:

a)

only in a buy-side firm

b)

only in a sell-side firm

c)

in both sell-side and buy-side firms

48.

If the contributions to a tax-advantaged retirement account are tax deductible, it means that the contributions:

a)

can usually be made in any amount.

b)

will reduce the income on which taxes are paid.

c)

are made with funds available after all personal taxes have been paid.

49.

in a capitalized-weighted security market index, the weight assigned to each security is based on the market price of the security:

a)

multiplied by the number of shares outstanding.

b)

divided by the sum of all the prices of the securities.

c)

divided by the book value per share of its equity capital.

50.

Which of the following is an example of an indirect investment?

a)

The purchase of real estate

b)

The purchase of company shares

c)

The purchase of shares in a mutual fund

51.

For a hedge fund, the high-water mark is the:

a)

target rate of return for the hedge fund manager.

b)

maximum amount of assets the hedge fund can hold.

c)

maximum level of the fund on which performance fees were paid in the past

52.

An account in which the capital of two or more investors are pooled together and jointly managed is a:

a)

wrap account

b)

commingled account

c)

fund-of-funds account

53.

A security market index in which higher-priced securities have a larger effect on the value of the index is a:

a)

price-weighted index

b)

equal-weighted index

c)

capitalisation-weighted index

54.

A pooled investment is most likely managed by a(n):

a)

investment club

b)

professional manager

c)

wealthy individual investor

55.

A manager whose mandate is to build a well-diversified portfolio of funds in order to attain a specific active investment strategy will most likely invest in:

a)

hedge funds

b)

commingled funds

c)

market index funds

56.

A secondary offering of shares most likely is issued in the:

a)

secondary market

b)

contract market

c)

primary market

57.

At which stage in the trading process is cash exchanged for securities between parties in a given security trade?

a)

Confirmation

b)

Clearing

c)

Settlement

58.

A market in which investors trade with dealers at the prices quoted by dealers is called a(n):

a)

brokered market

b)

order-driven market

c)

price-driven market

59.

Which of the following act as an agent when filling orders for clients?

a)

Brokers

b)

Dealers

c)

Transfer agents

60.

In which of the following situations does a company receive additional capital? When the company's shares are sold:

a)

to a brokerage firm

b)

in a seasoned offering

c)

in the secondary market

61.

One of the main differences between an exchange and an alternative trading system is that an alternative trading system:

a)

operates electronic trading systems.

b)

does not allow institutional investors to trade.

c)

does not exercise regulatory authority over its subscribers.

62.

Economies that use resources where they are most valuable are said to be:

a)

operationally efficient

b)

allocationally efficient

c)

informationally efficient

63.

Investors who take a total-return perspective:

a)

prefer capital gains to dividends.

b)

make no distinction between income and capital gains.

c)

seek income for current spending and capital gains for long-term needs.

64.

A shortfall in investment returns will most likely be of highest concern to:

a)

an elderly client with modest resources.

b)

a young client with substantial resources.

c)

an elderly client with substantial resources.

65.

Who bears the risk of the investment portfolio in a defined benefit plan?

a)

Sponsoring employer

b)

Beneficiary employee

c)

Firm managing the portfolio

66.

Passive investment management is closely associated with:

a)

tactical asset allocation

b)

risk-free investment

c)

minimizing costs

67.

Rebalancing a portfolio is the process of:

a)

moving it to a tactical asset allocation.

b)

returning it to its strategic asset allocation.

c)

changing its asset allocation to reflect changes in market momentum.

68.

A company's risk management team identifies a particular risk as having a low expected frequency and a low expected severity. The best risk response strategy for such risks is to:

a)

tolerate them

b)

transfer them

c)

terminate them

69.

A bank is facing the possibility of not having sufficient capital reserves to meet the requirements of its national banking regulatory authority. Such a possibility is an example of a(n):

a)

compliance risk

b)

investment risk

c)

operational risk

70.

As part of the risk management function of a company, best practice suggests that internal auditors should report:

a)

to the chief risk officer.

b)

to the chief financial officer.

c)

to a designated committee established by the board of directors.

71.

Risk for an investment firm is defined as the:

a)

evolution of the competitive landscape.

b)

likelihood that the values of investments fluctuate.

c)

effect of uncertain future events on organizational outcomes.

72.

A limitation to a value at risk (VaR) model regarding its inputs is that the model:

a)

requires the user to estimate future returns.

b)

uses historical data to forecast future losses.

c)

uses previous black swan events to forecast future losses.

73.

Compliance policies and procedures that address corruption should:

a)

extend to agents and other third parties.

b)

vary by country, depending on local practices.

c)

not require separate training for dealing with government officials.

74.

Liquidity risk in the investment industry:

a)

is not greater than for the manufacturing industry.

b)

does not include the inability to source adequate financing.

c)

refers to an inability to buy and sell quickly without incurring a loss.

75.

Transactions contracted through central counterparties, such as clearinghouses, margin requirements, and standardized agreements, are mechanisms that reduce:

a)

liquidity risk

b)

business risk

c)

settlement risk

76.

How do client cash inflows and outflows affect the calculation of holding-period returns when using the time-weighted rate of return method?

a)

More frequent cash flows will result in fewer sub-periods.

b)

Less frequent cash flows will result in fewer sub-periods.

c)

The frequency of cash flows has no impact on the number of sub-periods.

77.

For an investor whose portfolio consists solely of domestic risk-free government bonds, benchmarking against an investment-grade corporate bond index is most likely not appropriate because it violates the benchmark selection criterion of:

a)

investability

b)

compatibility

c)

pre-specification

78.

An investor will prefer investments with high:

a)

standard deviations

b)

downside deviations

c)

reward-to-risk ratios

79.

If an active fund manager is told that she will be "benchmarked against" a particular stock index, she will:

a)

replicate the index exactly.

b)

take less risk than that found in the index.

c)

seek out investments that differ from the index.

80.

Which of these statements regarding the information ratio is true?

a)

An information ratio value is always positive.

b)

The information ratio is a reward-to-risk ratio.

c)

Investors prefer smaller information ratio values.

81.

In which of the following circumstances would it be appropriate to calculate a time-weighted rate of return on an investment, rather than a simple holding-period return? If during the holding period:

a)

the market return has been highly variable.

b)

the risk of the investment has varied considerably.

c)

there have been additional investments or withdrawals.

82.

Which of the following is used to decompose a fund manager's performance into its various sources of return?

a)

The fund's alpha

b)

The fund's Sharpe ratio

c)

The fund's asset allocation

83.

An organization's travel policy document is an example of a(n):

a)

derived document

b)

associated document

c)

original document

84.

A hedge fund manager sends out a monthly newsletter to her clients that contains summaries of various investments she manages, including historical performance of risk-adjusted returns and returns relative to other comparable hedge funds. This documentation is an example of:

a)

fact sheets

b)

presentation materials

c)

offering documentation

85.

Which of the following is not one of the keys to good policy documentation for internal use?

a)

Simplicity and transparency

b)

Specific and clear-cut directions

c)

Clearly set out the delegation of authority

86.

A statement that all employees will refrain from trading based on non-public information concerning the firm and its clients is an example of a:

a)

policy

b)

process

c)

procedure

87.

Which of the following is considered to be part of document management?

a)

Document creation

b)

Document retention

c)

Recovery of disposed documents