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Biology Study Guide

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Analogous structures among organisms, such as bird wings and insect wings, are evidence of:

a)

divergent evolution

b)

convergent evolution

c)

random changes

d)

prezygotic isolation

e)

common ancestry

2.

Which of the following is not a requirement for natural selection?

a)

catastrophic events

b)

differential reproductive success

c)

overproduction of offspring

d)

genetic variation

e)

inheritance

3.

Which of the following is a hypothesis?

a)

My computer doesn’t work.

b)

What is wrong with my computer?

c)

My computer is too old.

d)

My computer doesn’t work because it has a virus.

4.

What is the #1 reason why species go extinct?

a)

habitat loss

b)

introduced species

c)

overhunting

d)

disease

e)

pollution

5.

Joe is heterozygous for a widow’s peak and has the genotype Ww. Use this information to answer questions 5 and 6.

a)

on homologous chromosomes

b)

on the X and Y chromosomes

c)

both dominant

d)

both present in all Joe’s sperm cells

e)

on the same chromosomes, but far apart

6.

Assume now that widow’s peaks are a dominant trait and Joe marries Jane, who is also heterozygous. What is the percent chance that Joe and Jane’s children will have widow’s peaks?

a)

0%

b)

  25%

c)

50%

d)

 75%

e)

100%

7.

According to Mendel’s Principle of Segregation .

a)

each pair of alleles stays together in each gamete (egg or sperm)

b)

homologous chromosomes move to the same gamete

c)

gametes have one copy of each chromosome and thus, one copy of each allele

d)

gametes are diploid

8.

DNA differs from RNA because:

a)

DNA has a sugar-phosphate backbone and

b)

DNA has thymine and RNA has uracil

c)

RNA has a nucleotide phosphate backbone

DNAhasribosesugarandRNA

d)

DNA has guanine and RNA has adenine

9.

If adenine makes up 30% of the bases in a DNA double helix, what percentage of the bases are guanine?

a)

80%

b)

 60%

c)

40%

d)

20%

10.

Why is it dangerous to use antibiotic drugs to treat patients with viral infections in an evolutionary sense?

a)

it’s not- most people expect drugs when they go to the doctor

b)

by increasing your dependence on antibiotics, you are compromising the health of your immune system

c)

you may become immune to antibiotics

d)

antibiotics do not kill viruses and bacteria that are in your system can become resistant to antibiotics

11.

What are alleles?

a)

homologous chromosome

b)

environmental factors that affect gene expression

c)

alternate forms of a gene

d)

non-homologous chromosomes

12.

We are concerned that, sometime in the 21st century as the number of humans on Earth approaches 10 billion, that we may reach the limit of the number of people that the planet can sustain. This idea is an application of which principle?

a)

ecological equilibrium

b)

niche separation

c)

J curve

d)

carrying capacity

13.

What type of reproductive isolating mechanism is demonstrated by a situation in which female frogs will only mate with males that have a certain call?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

habitat isolation

c)

temporal isolation

d)

post-zygotic isolationp

14.

You are a farmer here in Palouse growing lentils and wheat (what else?). You remember learning about integrated pest management in Biology 102 class at “Wazzu.” Ahem, I mean WSU. Which of the following are part of an integrated pest management strategy?

a)

careful use of pesticides

b)

use of natural predators of crop pests

c)

use of natural predators of crop pests

d)

all of the above

15.

Which of the following are prokaryotes?

a)

bacteria

b)

fungi

c)

plants

d)

insects

16.

Which of the following is not evidence of descent with modification?

a)

relatedness of life forms (e.g., hierarchy)

b)

change through time (e.g., pepper moth)

c)

transitional forms in the fossil record

d)

giraffes that stretched to reach higher leaves have offspring with longer necks

17.

One reason not to cut down the tropical rainforest is because a plant species may hold a cure for cancer. This idea represents which way that biodiversity can be valued, according to lecture?

a)

economic

b)

potential

c)

aesthetic

d)

ecological

18.

Competition between two species can most likely result in:

a)

mimicry

b)

resource partitioning

c)

crypsis

d)

chemical defense

19.

The basic order of the steps of protein synthesis is:

a)

DNA->transcription->mRNA->translation-

>protein

b)

RNA->transcription->DNA->translation-

>protein

c)

DNA->translation->mRNA->transcription-

>protein

d)

DNA->transcription->tRNA->translation-

>protein

20.

What is the main difference between stem cell research and cloning?

a)

Pre-embryos are “harvested” at the zygote stage in stem cell research

b)

Pre-embryos are “harvested” at the blastocyst stage in stem cell research

c)

stem cell research involves a surrogate mother

d)

cloning involves replacing nuclei of eggs, stem cell research involves replacing nuclei of sperm

21.

How did scientists tell that illegal whale meat was being sold in Japan?

a)

they aligned DNA sequences of random samples collected from Japanese markets with those collected from known species in the ocean

b)

they saw fisherman catching whales

c)

they compared VNTR loci of “fish” being sold in markets and whales and found a match with illegal species

d)

they tasted the meat of whales and those sold in Japanese markets

22.

Which of the following is a practical application of cloning?

a)

Dolly the sheep

b)

Gene therapy

c)

making crops resistant to pests

d)

Glow in the dark rabbit

e)

all of the above are applications of cloning research

23.

Why do some doctors suggest a period where no drugs should be used when treating patients with HIV?

a)

the patient’s immune system can rebound and fight off the infection

b)

HIV evolves drug resistance and susceptible strains of HIV will rebound when drugs are removed

c)

drugs mutate quickly

d)

HIV causes only the strongest T cells in the patient to survive; when drugs are removed, the patient is healthy again

24.

The age structure of humans in Mexico is as follows: 50% pre-reproductive age, 30% reproductive age, 20% post-reproductive age. What do you predict will happen to the number of people in Mexico?

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

remain stable

d)

decrease, then increase

25.

William Paley is responsible for which idea?

a)

intelligent design

b)

natural selection

c)

“conditions of existence”

d)

“Scala Naturae”

26.

Approximately how long ago did Homo sapiens

(modern humans) evolve?

a)

100,000 years

b)

500,000 years

c)

1.8 million years

d)

2.5 million years

27.

Allopatric speciation could be caused by:

a)

a volcano or other geographic barrier

b)

salmon that breed in the same stream but at different times

c)

gall flies that breed in the same field, but on different gall plants with different predators

d)

none of the above

28.

Which of the following is not a potential reason why we see so many different species on the Earth (think about angiosperms and Cambrian Explosion).

a)

plate tectonics and continental drift

b)

all life has a nucleus as a component of cells

c)

climate fluctuates regularly, causing big freezes and then the glacial recession

d)

mass extinctions

29.

Which of the following is a key characteristic of chordates?

a)

they include insects

b)

they are pseudocoelomates

c)

they have a notochord

d)

they include the gastropods

30.

Which of the following most closely resembles a population in the biological sense?

a)

the human population

b)

the Snake River fish population

c)

the Costa Rican bird population

d)

the Palouse White-Tailed Deer population

31.

Grazing animals such as horses and cows are:

a)

Quaternary consumers

b)

Secondary consumers

c)

Primary consumers

d)

Producer

32.

An organism feeding at multiple trophic levels is called a/an:

a)

Herbivore

b)

Omnivore

c)

Secondary consumer

d)

Producer

33.

How much chemical energy (stored as biomass) is available to primary consumers from 10,000 kcal of primary productivity?

a)

1000 kcal

b)

100 kcal

c)

10 kcal

d)

1 kcal

34.

The Gulf Stream and Japan currents both move clockwise from a southerly point of origin in the northern hemisphere. What is the result of these currents?

a)

Warming at northern latitudes

b)

Warming at southern latitudes

c)

Stabilization at all latitudes

d)

Cooling at northern latitudes

35.

The Humbolt current might most directly be associated with:

a)

Warming Western Australi

b)

Cooling Eastern Africa

c)

Warming the British Isles

d)

Cooling western South America

36.

Which of the following is/are not directly associated with ascending (rising) moist air in the tropics:

a)

Release of moisture into the tropics

b)

An area of calm called the “doldrums

c)

Polar ice caps

d)

Descending dry air over the tropics

37.

Seasons are a direct result of:

a)

The angle of the sun relative to the equator

b)

The orientation of the nine planets of solar system

c)

The tilt of the planet as it orbits the sun

d)

The distance between Earth and the sun

38.

According to lecture, of the following abiotic factors, which has the most significant impact on producers?

a)

Disturbance

b)

Sunlight

c)

Temperature

d)

Wind

39.

Which of the following is a secondary consumer?

a)

A detritivore

b)

A seed eating bird

c)

A carnivorous plant

d)

An insect eating bird (insectivore)

40.

The by-products of cellular respiration are:

a)

ATP and glucose

b)

Carbon dioxide and water

c)

ADP and ATP

d)

Glucose and oxygen

41.

The principle known as ‘Conservation of Energy’ states that:

a)

Energy cycles and chemicals flow

b)

Energy is either created or destroyed

c)

25% use of alternative energy sources must be achieved by 2013

d)

Energy can neither be created nor destroyed

42.

Which of the following would not be a potential result of increasing temperature in an aquatic biosystem?

a)

Reduce available oxygen

b)

Increase the rate of evaporation

c)

Increase the metabolism of phytoplankton

d)

Reduce salinity in the system

43.

Which of the following is/are true of cellular respiration?

a)

Cells use oxygen to help harvest the energy potential of organic food molecules

b)

Light generation from cellular metabolism accounts for about 60% of the energy released

c)

Heat generated from fuel consumption in cells is rarely used by terrestrial mammals

d)

This process builds organic fuel molecules from inorganic materials.

44.

An aerobic process (such as cellular respiration…):

a)

Requires oxygen

b)

Requires light

c)

Requires carbon dioxide

d)

Requires nitrogen

45.

Which statement is not correct?

a)

The metabolic pathway for cellular respiration includes Glycolysis, the Krebs Cycle, and electron transport

b)

Cellular respiration is responsible for the conversion of energy used to do cellular work

c)

Cellular respiration is a single reaction

d)

Cellular respiration requires the intake of protein

46.

Energy is made directly available for cellular work when:

a)

ATP loses a phosphate group

b)

ATP is energized by ligh

c)

ATP gains a phosphate group

d)

ATP is released by fatty acids

47.

Of the foods humans consume, which group can be used as fuel for cellular respiration?

a)

Only carbohydrates

b)

Sugar, starch, and iodine

c)

The micronutrients; zinc, calcium, and phosphorus

d)

The macronutriens; Fat, carbohydrates, and protein

48.

Cellular reproduction is most closely associated with which of the following?

a)

Replacing lost or damaged cells

b)

Insuring genetic variability in the next generation

c)

Fertilization of oocytes

49.

The Cell Cycle, which includes interphase and mitosis, is found in:

a)

Eukaryotes only

b)

Prokaryotes only

c)

Prokaryotes only

d)

Eukaryotes and prokaryotes

50.

Disruption during interphase will most directly affect:

a)

Formation of the cell wall

b)

Spindle formation

c)

Duplication of DNA

d)

Cytokinesis

51.

Carcinomas and melanomas include:

a)

Cancers of the skin and pigment

b)

Cancers of the connective tissue

c)

Cancers of the blood-forming tissues

d)

Cancers of the non-neural brain cells

52.

Epithelial cancers are the most common malignancies and are called:

a)

Gliomas

b)

Sarcomas

c)

Melanomas

d)

Carcinomas

53.

The temperate deciduous forest is characterized by

a)

Dense stands of deciduous trees

b)

Permafrost and the presence of tall trees

c)

The strong influence of trade winds

d)

Its presence near the poles

54.

Which of the following biomes are heavily influenced by, or dependent on fire?

a)

Chaparral, Desert, and tundra

b)

Temperate grasslands, chaparral and Savanna

c)

Tropical forest, Chaparral, and temperate grasslands

d)

Savanna, Chaparral, and desert

55.

Chaparral, Desert, and tundra

a)

All bacteria

b)

All animals

c)

All protists

d)

All plants

56.

Which of the following results in an interruption to electron transport?

a)

Cyanide and Carbon Monoxide poisoning

b)

Food poisoning

c)

Trisomy 21

d)

Non-hodgkins lymphoma

57.

Grain plants such as soybeans, oats, and wheat:

a)

Have adaptive enzymes that allow collection of CO2 from air spaces in leaves

b)

Open stomata to decrease water loss

c)

Increase sugar production at night

d)

Take CO2 directly from the air

58.

Plants located in the desert are likely to:

a)

Have decreased productivity in dry weather

b)

Collect CO2 from air spaces in the leaves by way of specialized enzymes

c)

Bank CO2 by night

d)

Take CO2 directly from the air during day and night

59.

Which of the following is/are directly related to wind as an abiotic factor?

a)

Dispersal of pollen and seeds

b)

Ground level competition

c)

Concentration of urine in kidneys

d)

Slowing metabolism in plants

60.

Wind results most directly from:

a)

Ocean currents

b)

Uneven heating of water

c)

Uneven heating of air masses

d)

Global warming

61.

Winds in the temperate region of the northern hemisphere blow

a)

More weakly at night than by day

b)

More strongly in the summer than in the winter

c)

West to East

d)

East to West

62.

Which abiotic factor has the most limiting effect in lakes?

a)

Wind

b)

Temperature

c)

Wind

d)

Sunlight

63.

Salivary glands release enzymes important to the digestion of

a)

Pasta

b)

Butter

c)

Peanuts

d)

Beef

64.

Energy pyramids represent:

a)

The recommended balance of foods in the human diet

b)

The level of biomass storage at each trophic level

c)

The rate of biomass production

d)

The amount of digestible protein

65.

Phytoplankton and rooted plants are most likely to be found:

a)

As a result of artifical input of fertilizers

b)

In marine systems that are subject to seasonal turnover

c)

In the photic zone of freshwater biomes

d)

In the absence of phosphorus

66.

The benthic zone of a freshwater system

a)

Is dominated by motile animals and passive drifters

b)

Is dominated by detritovores

c)

Represents a transitional zone between salty and fresh extremes

d)

Is rich with algae eating insects such as mayfly larvae

67.

Animals found in the slower, wider downstream portion of a stream with a high-mountain source are generally:

a)

More dependent on taste and smell than organisms in the clear water upstream

b)

Those that can burrow in mud

c)

At the producer level of this ecosystem

d)

More dependent on vision than those upstream

68.

Which of the following is not considered a human impact on the environment?

a)

Depletion of atmospheric ozone

b)

Increased global warming since the industrial revolution

c)

Loss of biodiversity

d)

Natural levels of greenhouse gases

69.

Seasonal mixing in freshwater biomes serves to:

a)

Replenish dissolved oxygen in the benthic zone

b)

Increase solute concentrations throughout the water column

c)

Increase the amount of available light in the photic zone

d)

Replenish dissolved nutrients in the benthic zone

70.

The open ocean or pelagic zone…

a)

Provides a rich food source of rooted plants

b)

Is dependent on mixing with freshwater

c)

Supports mainly detritivores

d)

Supports mainly motile animals

71.

The biggest abiotic reservoir for carbon is:

a)

Fossil fuels

b)

Soil

c)

Plants

d)

The atmosphere

72.

Pregnancy is most likely to occur:

a)

Near the end of the cycle (Days 21-28)

b)

Only with female orgasm

c)

At the beginning of the menstrual cycle (Days 1-7)

d)

At the middle of menstrual cycle (Days 12-17)

73.

The recommended food intake for most people includes:

a)

No more than 50% carbohydrates

b)

At least 12% fat

c)

About 40% protein

d)

About 60% grains

74.

The Body Mass Index:

a)

Establishes a guide for weight relative to height

b)

Is measured in a doctor’s office by using calipers

c)

ncludes a factor for athletic ability

d)

Is a direct measure of your percentage of lean muscle to fat

75.

What factor has the most significant contribution to the nutrient richness of a temperate deciduous forest?

a)

Direct input of nutrients from rainfall

b)

Decaying leaves

c)

Wastes from grazing animals

d)

The burning of grasses

76.

Desert animals may demonstrate which adaptive strategy?

a)

All of the above are possible

b)

Physiological adaptation

c)

Behavioral adaptation

d)

Acclimation

77.

According to lecture and our text, the most fertile soil is associated with

a)

Tundra

b)

Grasslands

c)

Deciduous Forests

d)

Deserts

78.

Where would I find a Chaparral biome?

a)

In mid-latitude coastal areas

b)

Near the equator

c)

At southern-most latitudes

d)

At northern-most latitudes

79.

Select the correct pair:

a)

June solstice and the northern hemisphere tilting away from the sun

b)

December solstice and the equator facing the sun directly

c)

March equinox and the northern hemisphere tilting toward the sun

d)

March equinox and equator facing the sun directly

80.

What would you expect to be the effect on primary consumers if large numbers of secondary consumers disappeared?

a)

Migration to a more stable ecosystem

b)

A decrease due to loss of production

c)

No change, the system would immediately rebalance

d)

An increase due to loss of predators