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Science Final Review 2022

Total questions: 175

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The layer of the Earth that we live on is the?
a)
crust
b)
outer core
c)
inner core
d)
mantle
2.
The crust is broken into pieces of rock known as?
a)
paper plates
b)
china plates
c)
tectonic plates
d)
Richter Scale
3.
The scale that the magnitude of an earthquake is measured on is a?
a)
Seismic
b)
Richter 
c)
Weight
d)
Music
4.
The natural disaster created by a submarine earthquake is a?
a)
tsunami
b)
tornado
c)
king wave
d)
cyclone
5.
When tectonic plates slowly move into each other this can cause?
a)
tidal waves
b)
lakes
c)
rivers
d)
mountains
6.
The region of the Earth along the edge of the Pacific Plate is known as?
a)
Ring the door
b)
Ring of fire
c)
Ring the bell
d)
Volcanic Destruction
7.

The point of the Earth's surface directly above where the earthquake originated is known as?

a)

epicenter

b)

danger zone

c)

Ground Zero

d)

focus

8.

What are the three types of plate boundaries called?

a)

transform, divergent, convergent

b)

slide, pull away, push together

c)

apart, together, slide

9.

A divergent boundary at two oceanic plates can result in (a) _________

a)

earthquake

b)

ocean ridges (seafloor spreading)

c)

mountain formation

10.

What forms when one oceanic plate is forced beneath another plate?

a)

subduction zone

b)

ocean ridge

c)

ocean basin

11.

The geological theory of ________ states that pieces of the Earth's lithosphere( the rigid outer part of the earth, consisting of the crust and upper mantle) are in constant slow motion

a)

subduction

b)

continental drift

c)

plate tectonics

d)

sea floor spreading

12.

What are the two types of crust?

a)

continental and oceanic

b)

lower and upper

c)

ocean and upper

d)

pizza and subway

13.

What is Pangaea?

a)

The name of a German scientist

b)

Another name for 'Continental Drift"

c)

The name of the super continent that existed millions of years ago

d)

The name of an ancient fossil

14.

__________________ are vibrations that travel through the Earth carrying the energy released during an earthquake

a)

seismic waves

b)

plate tectonics

c)

rumbles

d)

convection currents

15.

Mountains are created when ......

a)

Two Continental Plates collide

b)

An Oceanic Plate subducts under a Continental Plate

c)

Two Oceanic Plates pull apart

d)

Two Continental Plates pull apart

16.

What are the two continents that fit together based on Alfred Wegener's theory?

a)

South America and Africa

b)

Asia and Russia

c)

Africa and Asia

d)

India and Asia

17.

What is a dormant volcano?

a)

molten rock

b)

the center of a volcano

c)

will never erupt again

d)

a volcano that is sleeping, but could erupt agian

18.
Which of the following terms are used to describe a volcano that may erupt at any time? 
a)
Dormant volcano
b)
Active volcano
c)
Extinct volcano
d)
Shield volcano
19.

An opening on the Earth's crust through which hot molten rock flows out from deep inside the Earth.

a)

Volcano

b)

Fault line

c)

Fold

d)

Crater

20.

Rank the volcanic stages from LEAST likely to MOST likely to erupt.

a)

active, dormant, extinct

b)

extinct, dormant, active

c)

dormant, extinct, active

d)

dormant, active, extinct

21.
The epicenter of an earthquake is
a)
The point below the surface where rock begins to break and the first motion occurs
b)
The seismic station closest to the earthquake
c)
The place where the greatest damage occurs
d)
The point on the surface directly above the focus
22.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of an earthquake?

a)

Collapse of Cavern

b)

Eruption of Volcano

c)

Lightning Strikes

d)

Moving Tectonic Plates

23.
Where is the point at which the first movement occurs during an earthquake?
a)
Epicenter
b)
Focus
c)
Fault
d)
Plate
24.
Earthquakes under the water can cause _________________________________.
a)
tornadoes
b)
tsunamis
c)
lightening
d)
hailstorms
25.

The focus of an earthquake is

a)

The point (below Earth's surface) where rock breaks

b)

The closest seismic station

c)

The place where the greatest damage occurs

d)

A fault

26.

Earthquakes happen every day. Most are too small for humans to notice.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Forms in the middle of a oceanic plate, can cause islands to form

a)

Hot Spot

b)

Quiet Eruption

c)

Volcano

d)

Viscosity

28.

June, July, and August are what season in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

Spring

b)

Summer

c)

Fall

d)

Winter

29.

December, January, and February are what season in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

Spring

b)

Summer

c)

Fall

d)

Winter

30.

September, October, and November are what season in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

Spring

b)

Summer

c)

Fall

d)

Winter

31.

March, April, and May are what season in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

Spring

b)

Summer

c)

Fall

d)

Winter

32.

The spinning of the earth on its axis is called

a)

Revolution

b)

Orbit

c)

Rotation

d)

Tilt

33.

The yearly orbit of Earth around the Sun is called the

a)

rotation

b)

ellipse

c)

revolution

d)

tilt

34.

Summer occurs on the hemisphere of Earth that is

a)

turned away from the Sun

b)

tilted toward the Sun

c)

tilted away from the Sun

d)

turned toward the Sun

35.

When would the Northern Hemisphere have the most daylight hours?

a)

Spring

b)

Summer

c)

Fall

d)

Winter

36.

The line on which an object rotates is defined as

a)

revolution axis

b)

rotation axis

c)

tilt axis

d)

spin axis

37.

Not only is the summer solstice the longest day of the year, it is also the day on which

a)

the Sun is lowest in the sky

b)

sunset comes earliest

c)

the Sun appears to be highest in the sky

d)

sunrise comes latest

38.

How do we characterize an air mass that forms over the ocean?

a)

dry

b)

cold

c)

wet

d)

warm

39.

What's the humidity and temperature of a continental tropical air mass?

a)

wet and cold

b)

dry and warm

c)

wet and warm

d)

dry and cold

40.

Which type of front is displayed?

a)

cold

b)

stationary

c)

warm

d)

occluded

41.

Which type of front is displayed?

a)

cold

b)

stationary

c)

warm

d)

occluded

42.

When two different air masses collide...

a)

a front forms

b)

a new planet eveolves

c)

they usually become one

d)

dinosaurs became extinct

43.

When a cold front is approaching, what happens?

a)

warm air is pushing under cold air causing humid weather and lower temperatures

b)

warm air is pushing under cold air causing humid weather and higher temperatures

c)

warm air rises, cools, and causes rain and thunderstorms

d)

cold air is pushed over warm air causing rain and thunderstorms

44.

What direction is the cold front moving on the map?

a)

Southwest

b)

Southeast

c)

Northwest

d)

Northeast

45.

What direction is the warm front moving on the map?

a)

North

b)

South

c)

East

d)

West

46.

One of the factors that are used to help predict weather includes measuring the amount of water vapor in the air. What does this describe?

a)

wind speed

b)

air pressure

c)

temperature

d)

humidity

47.

What type of precipitation is formed when water falls from the clouds and lands on the ground as liquid water?

a)

hail

b)

rain

c)

sleet

d)

snow

48.

What is precipitation?

a)

solids falling from the sky

b)

precipitation

c)

any form of water that falls from clouds and reaches earth's surface

d)

liquids falling from the sky

49.

What is wind?

a)

The movement of water due to pressure differences

b)

The movement of air due to pressure differences

c)

The movement of air due to pollution differences

d)

The movement of water deep in the ocean

50.

Cold air is _______ dense than warm air.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

the same as

51.

Warm air ______ and cold air _____.

a)

sinks, rises

b)

rises, sinks

52.

Winds that blow steadily from specific directions over long distances are called

a)

Sea breezes

b)

Jet Streams

c)

Land Breezes

d)

Global Winds

53.

Air masses are named by these 2 factors

a)

temperature

b)

density

c)

speed

d)

moisture

54.

Which of these is an example of precipitation?

a)

snow

b)

clouds

c)

air

d)

vapor

55.

Which best explains why runoff is important?

a)

it returns water to other locations on Earth

b)

it increases the chance of flooding

c)

it makes evaporation occur faster

d)

it increases condensation

56.

What is it called when water is changed from a liquid to a gas?

a)

evaporation

b)

condensation

c)

precipitation

d)

runoff

57.

What does groundwater do?

a)

It sends water to our building, houses, and water transplant places

b)

to the sky

c)

to the sun

d)

to the Earth's surface

58.

During which stage do clouds form?

a)

evaporation

b)

condensation

c)

precipitation

d)

runoff

59.

The _______ is the driving force of the Earth's water cycle.

a)

sun

b)

moon

c)

stars

d)

core

60.

The amount of water on Earth

a)

increases when it rains

b)

always remains the same

c)

decreases when it evaporates

61.

Air masses that influence weather generally have

a)

same precipitation, humidity, and dew point

b)

different temperature, pressure, and humidity

c)

same temperature, pressure and humidity

62.

Climate refers to

a)

weather in a region over a long period of time

b)

conditions of the atmosphere at a particular place and time

63.

Why do regions near the equator have warmer climates?

a)

Those areas receive no rays of sun

b)

Those areas receive indirect rays of sun

c)

Those areas receive direct rays of sun

64.
Name the moon phase
a)
waning crescent
b)
waxing crescent
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waxing gibbous
65.
Name the moon phase
a)
waning crescent
b)
waxing crescent
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waxing gibbous
66.
Name the moon phase
a)
First Quarter
b)
Last Quarter
c)
New Moon
d)
Full Moon
67.
Name the moon phase
a)
First Quarter
b)
Last Quarter
c)
New Moon
d)
Full Moon
68.
Name the moon phase
a)
First Quarter
b)
Last Quarter
c)
New Moon
d)
Full Moon
69.
Name the phase of the moon for letter a
a)
First Quarter
b)
Last Quarter
c)
Waxing Gibbous
d)
Waning Gibbous
70.
Name the phase of the moon for letter f
a)
Waning Gibbous
b)
Waxing Gibbous
c)
Waning Crescent
d)
Waxing Crescent
71.
What is illuminating the Moon?
a)
Nuclear Fusion
b)
Sunlight
c)
Mirrors
d)
Flood Lights
72.
Name the moon phase
a)
waning crescent
b)
waxing crescent
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waxing gibbous
73.
Which moon phase is when you can't see the moon at all?
a)
Waning crescent
b)
Full moon
c)
Waxing gibbous
d)
New moon
74.
The cycle of the moon lasts about a _.
a)
day
b)
year
c)
week
d)
month
75.
What is the difference between a gibbous moon and a crescent moon?
a)
The gibbous shows more than half of the bright side of the moon.
b)
The crescent shows more than half of the bright side of the moon.
c)
The gibbous shows less than half of the bright side of the moon. 
76.
Changes in the moon's appearance are
a)
phases
b)
eclipses
c)
stages
d)
cycle
77.
Define Gibbous
a)
Less than half of moon visible
b)
More than half of moon visible
c)
All of moon visible
d)
None of moon visible
78.
Name the moon phase
a)
Waning Crescent
b)
Waxing Crescent
c)
Waning Gibbous
d)
Waxing Gibbous
79.

The condition of the atmosphere at a particular time and place is called

a)

convection

b)

climate

c)

weather

d)

radiation

80.

Air masses are classified according to temperature and humidity. What name would be given to a cool, moist air mass?

a)

maritime polar

b)

maritime tropical

c)

continental polar

d)

continental tropical

81.

Air masses are classified according to temperature and humidity. What name would be given to a warm, dry air mass?

a)

maritime polar

b)

maritime tropical

c)

continental polar

d)

continental tropical

82.

A natural resource is...

a)

something from space

b)

something from Earth that living things need to meet their needs

c)

a resource only humans need

d)

something only found in nature

83.

The cutting of large areas of forests for human activities is called what?

a)

reforestation

b)

afforestation

c)

deforestation

d)

forest

84.

Urbanization is...

a)

the development of land for houses and other buildings near a city

b)

a city

c)

flatland

d)

the growth in animal habitats

85.

The contamination of the environment with substances that are harmful to life is called what?

a)

Chemicals

b)

Trash

c)

Landfills

d)

Pollution

86.

The careful use of Earth's materials to reduce damage to the environment is called what?

a)

Reduce

b)

Conservation

c)

Cautious

d)

Reuse

87.

Using an item for a new purpose is called what?

a)

reusing

b)

reducing

c)

recycling

d)

conservation

88.

Using fewer resources is called what?

a)

reusing

b)

reducing

c)

recycling

d)

conserving

89.

Making a new product from a used product is called what?

a)

reusing

b)

reducing

c)

recycling

d)

conserving

90.

Reforestation ...

a)

involves planting trees to replace ones that have been removed

b)

involves cutting down trees in a select area

c)

involves monitoring the trees in an area

d)

involves control over trees in an endangered animal's habitat

91.

Reclamation is ...

a)

the process of getting rid of pollution in an area

b)

the process of replanting trees

c)

the process of restoring land disturbed by mining

d)

the process of changing an areas vegetation

92.

Choose all that apply. What do we use land for?

a)

Agriculture

b)

Urbanization

c)

Resources

d)

Breathing

93.

What is compost?

a)

recycled plastic and aluminum

b)

a mixture of decaying organic matter

c)

dirt

d)

material found in the ground

94.

What are some EFFECTS of urbanization? Choose all that apply.

a)

flooding

b)

development of buildings

c)

growth in population

d)

disappearance of land

95.

What are some positive actions of human activity? Choose all that apply.

a)

reducing, reusing, recycling, and composting

b)

creation of green spaces

c)

pollute the land

d)

reforestation and reclamation

96.

How does pollution from human activities effect the land, specifically soil and water sources?

a)

it keeps the Earth safe and not changing

b)

runoff that contains chemicals can destroy plants and animals

c)

keeps the land clear

d)

produces more biodiversity in an area

97.

_____________________ is the movement of soil and rock by wind, water, ice, and gravity.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

98.

______________________ occurs when eroded materials stop moving and begin to build up.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

99.

_______________ moves material from one place to another.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

100.

_____________________ changes the identity of rocks and it involves a chemical reaction or change.

a)

Physical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering

c)

Deposition

101.

This is an example of _____________________________.

a)

physical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

102.

Which process describes water getting into cracks, freezing, and breaking the rocks or pavement apart?

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

103.

Which process describes a mudslide flowing down a steep hill?

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

104.

Which process describes wind blasting sand at rock and carving out arches?

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

105.

What is it called when layers pile up and press down on the material below?

a)

Compaction

b)

Layering

c)

Cementation

d)

Concentration

106.
___________ rocks are formed when magma cools.
a)
Sedimentry
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
d)
Mineral
107.
When igneous rock breaks apart (weathers), it forms ___________.
a)
sedimentry rocks
b)
metamorphic rocks
c)
sediments
d)
crystals
108.
The __________ describes the process by which rocks change forms.
a)
rock cycle
b)
water cycle
c)
igneous cycle
d)
metamorphic process
109.
A rock formed from fragments of other rocks is a(n)
a)
Metamorphic Rock
b)
Sedimentary Rock
c)
Extrusive Rock
d)
Igneous Rock
110.

Metamorphic rocks are classified by the arrangement of their __.

a)

sediments

b)

clasts

c)

grains

d)

minerals

111.
Metamorphic rocks form from ___.
a)
igneous rocks
b)
other metamorphic rocks
c)
sedimentary rocks
d)
all types of rocks
112.
How do metamorphic rocks form? 
a)
Heat and Pressure
b)
Compaction & Cementation
c)
Cooling of Magma
d)
Sediments & Glue
113.

A mineral always contains certain elements in definite proportions. This is referring to its

a)

streak

b)

definite chemical composition

c)

luster

d)

inorganic

114.

The repeating pattern of a mineral's particles in a solid is known as

a)

crystal structure

b)

streak

c)

fracture

d)

luster

115.

The property of a mineral splitting evenly along a flat surface is

a)

luster

b)

streak

c)

cleavage

d)

fracture

116.

The color of a mineral's powder left behind after it is scratched on a piece of unglazed tile is its

a)

color

b)

cleavage

c)

luster

d)

streak

117.

Because a mineral has a definite volume and shape, it is known as a

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

luster

118.

What term means that a mineral CANNOT form from materials that were once part of a living thing?

a)

solid

b)

naturally occuring

c)

inorganic

d)

luster

119.

How does a streak test help identify different minerals?

a)

minerals that leave a clear streak are usually gold

b)

if a mineral scratches a piece of tile, it is harder than the tile

c)

the streak left behind by a mineral helps classify the luster

d)

sometimes the streak can be a different color than the mineral's surface color

120.

Earthy, shiny, waxy, metallic, and pearly are terms used to describe a mineral's luster. What might a scientist observe about a mineral that would help the scientist classify the luster as metallic?

a)

the mineral does not get scratched by any minerals and it is high on the hardness scale

b)

the mineral is very shiny and reflects a lot of light

c)

the mineral is very dull and does not reflect much light

d)

the mineral is transparent and looks like glass

121.

A substance that is formed by processes that occur in the natural world is

a)

solid

b)

definite chemical composition

c)

fracture

d)

naturally occuring

122.

How a mineral breaks apart when it does NOT split evenly is known as

a)

cleavage

b)

fracture

c)

luster

d)

solid

123.

How a mineral reflects light from its surface is known as

a)

streak

b)

element

c)

fracture

d)

luster

124.
This rock was another type of rock that was heated and compressed over time. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
125.

This rock started as molten magma but transformed after a volcano erupted. What type of rock is this?

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

126.
This rock was formed by smaller pieces of rock that settled at the bottom of a lake millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
127.
The process when rocks break into smaller pieces due to exposure to natural elements is called
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
c)
sediments
128.
What are the 3 major types of rocks?
a)
Igneous, Metamorphic, Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic, Igneous, Cementation
c)
magma, lava, crystals
129.
The process by which metamorphic rocks are formed...
a)
heat and pressure
b)
erosion and deposition
c)
melting and cooling
130.

What do we call the material that comes from rocks that have been broken down into smaller pieces. This usually results from weathering.

a)

texture

b)

weathering

c)

sediment

d)

erosion

131.

Name of the impression of a plant or animal, in the soil, that existed in the past

a)

diamond

b)

hardness

c)

fossil

132.

Geologists can find ______ in old rocks.

a)

fossils

b)

toys

c)

sofas

d)

people

133.

The theory of continental drift states that all the continents were once part of one big landmass called Pangaea. Who was the scientist that came up with this theory?

a)

Harry Hess

b)

Bill Nye

c)

Alfred Wegener

d)

Albert Einstein

134.

Which of the following evidence was used to support theory of continental drift?

a)

A) Continents fit together like a puzzle

b)

B) Similar fossils were found on separate continents

c)

C) Different types of rock, mountain structures, landforms are found all over the world.

d)

D) All of the above

e)

E) Only A and B

135.

Why was Alfred Wegener unable to explain his theory?

a)

He couldn't explain how the continents drifted.

b)

He couldn't explain why similar fossils on different continents were separated

c)

He couldn't explain why similar geological structures found were found on different continents.

d)

He couldn't explain why the continents fit together like a puzzle.

136.

If you took rock samples from the Mid-Atlantic Ridge, the youngest rock would be

a)

located where the plates collide

b)

located at the place where rocks are furthest from the rift valley

c)

Located at the center of the ridge (rift valley), where oceanic crust is formed

d)

none of the above; all the rocks would be the same age

137.

Seafloor Spreading occurs at a

a)

convergent boundary

b)

divergent boundary

c)

transform boundary

d)

continental boundary

138.

Tectonic plates float on top of the

a)

crust

b)

asthenosphere

c)

lower mantle

d)

outer core

139.
The deepest part of the ocean; long, narrow ditches
a)
Tectonic plates
b)
Trenches
c)
Divergent boundary
d)
Continental shelves
140.
The OLDEST seafloor is located? 
a)
Closest to the mid-ocean ridge
b)
Farthest from the mid-ocean ridge
141.
True or False : Sea-floor Spreading adds new material to the ocean floor?
a)
True
b)
False
142.
What did scientists use to map the oceans floor?
a)
Echo-location
b)
Sonar
c)
Space Shuttles
d)
Animals
143.
What are Mid-Ocean Ridges?
a)
A chain of underwater waterfalls 
b)
A chain of underwater volcanos
c)
A chain of underwater mountains
d)
A chain of underwater rocks
144.

Alfred Wegener thought South America and Africa have similar coastlines because...

a)

the mesosaurus fossils were found on both continents

b)

He noticed that similar rocks were found on both continents

c)

he thought that the continents used be be joined together

d)

Pangaea was 250 million years ago

145.

What geologic feature was evidence to support the theory that the continents used to be joined?

a)

Same rocks were found on different continents

b)

Glacial grooves were found on different continents

c)

Fossilized evidence of the same organism found on different continents

d)

Africa and South America look like puzzle pieces that fit together

146.

What evidence of an ancient organism was used to support the theory that the continents used to be joined?

a)

Same rocks were found on different continents

b)

Glacial grooves were found on different continents

c)

Fossilized evidence of the same organism found on different continents

d)

Africa and South America look like puzzle pieces that fit together

147.

What was Pangaea?

a)

It was a supercontinent, made of all of the landmasses on Earth.

b)

It was 2 separate landmasses, one on the Northern Hemisphere and one on the Southern Hemisphere.

c)

It was a supercontinent made of 3 landmasses

d)

It was the name of an ancient organism

148.

What are two pieces of evidence used to support the theory of continental drift?

a)

Fossils and Pangaea

b)

South America and Rocks

c)

Rocks and Fossils

d)

Fossils and Africa

149.
What are the puzzle pieces of the Earth's surface called?
a)
Tectonic plates
b)
Puzzles
c)
Earthquakes
150.

What is the force that moves the continents?

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Conveyor belts

151.

Originally the Continental drift theory was not well received by other scientist. Why?

a)

There was a competing theory at the time that was more believable.

b)

There was no data showing the continents ever moved.

c)

The scientists did not know the force responsible for moving the continents.

d)

The scientist presenting the data was unreliable.

152.

The yearly orbit of Earth around the Sun is called the

a)

rotation

b)

ellipse

c)

revolution

d)

tilt

153.

The line on which an object rotates is defined as

a)

revolution axis

b)

rotation axis

c)

tilt axis

d)

spin axis

154.

Not only is the summer solstice the longest day of the year, it is also the day on which

a)

the Sun is lowest in the sky

b)

sunset comes earliest

c)

the Sun appears to be highest in the sky

d)

sunrise comes latest

155.

What is the type of water that moves underground?

a)

surface water

b)

watershed

c)

groundwater

d)

water table

156.

Which BEST describes something you could do to reduce water pollution when disposing of household chemicals?

a)

make sure they get into landfills

b)

make sure they don't enter storm drains

c)

make sure to put them out with other trash

d)

make sure to pour them down the sink

157.

Which is NOT a positive impact on Earth's water?

a)

increasing recycling

b)

increasing fertilizer runoff

c)

disposing of chemicals properly

d)

fixing a dripping faucet

158.

Which correctly describes something that can have both a positive and negative impact on the environment?

a)

building a dam

b)

picking up litter

c)

decreasing the use of chemical fertilizers

d)

using less water at home

159.

The Great Pacific Garbage Patch is a large area of floating trash in the Pacific Ocean that is caused, in part, by ocean currents. Which is a step people can take to minimize its effect on Earth's water?

a)

use satellites to measure its size

b)

measure ocean currents to predict where it will go

c)

design new and better ways to recycle

d)

work harder to prevent oil spills.

160.

A student notices that, after a rainstorm, muddy water washes through her backyard and into a pond. Which describes something that most likely caused this problem?

a)

Some shrubs and trees were removed from the yard.

b)

Less chemical fertilizer was used in the yard.

c)

A neighbor did not dispose of household chemicals correctly

d)

A new aquifer was drilled in the neighborhood.

161.

How does plastic effect sea life?

a)

Microplastics create dead zones in the oceans.

b)

Plastics provide habitats for marine life.

c)

Wildlife such as dolphins, seals and seabirds often eat plastic, mistaking it for food.

d)

None of the above

162.

What is one of the positive impacts that humans have on Earth’s water?

a)

Changing the flow of water by damming streams

b)

Dumping large amounts of pollution in the oceans

c)

Conserving water

163.

How is ocean pollution harmful to both fish and animals that eat the fish?

a)

Animals will starve because they won’t eat the poisoned fish.

b)

Chemicals poison the fish, then when animals eat the fish, they get poisoned too

c)

Fish and animals are not affected by ocean pollution

164.

We can prevent water pollution by:

a)

Reduce the use of plastic.

b)

Properly dispose of chemicals

c)

Clean up after your animals.

d)

All of the above

165.

Trash in the ocean tends to travel to this area of the Pacific called what?

a)

Pacific Trash Area

b)

Great Pacific Garbage Patch

c)

Pacific Vacuum

d)

Pacific Garbage Area

166.

How can we stop the garbage from growing?

a)

Take care of your trash and throw it out the right way

b)

Remember that land and sea are both connected.

c)

Reduce the garbage you produce and recycle plastics.

d)

All of the above

167.

Approximately 75 percent of the Earth's surface is covered in water. So why is water considered such a precious resource?

a)

The greenhouse effect is causing most of the world's freshwater to be trapped in the atmosphere

b)

Each year, more freshwater is being trapped in icecaps located at the North and South Poles

c)

Global warming caused by greenhouse gas emissions will likely cause Earth's oceans to evaporate

d)

Only a small fraction of the Earth's water is freshwater available for drinking and irrigation

168.

Which of the following are greenhouse gases?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Methane

c)

Water vapor

d)

All answers are correct

169.

What happens to the temperature if more greenhouse gases are released into the atmosphere?

a)

Temperature goes up

b)

Temperature goes down

170.

What is the greenhouse effect?

a)

The warming of a planet due to trapped radiation.

b)

The cooling of Earth due to air pollution.

c)

The heating of a solid, such as a rock.

171.
The greenhouse gas having the greatest role in human-caused global warming is
a)
methane
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons)
d)
ozone
172.

A type of pollution found both indoors and outdoors, which includes pollen, dander, soot, carbon, and dust.

a)

Water droplets

b)

Allergens

c)

Particulate matter

d)

Combustibles

173.
Select the natural form of air pollution.
a)
CFC's
b)
Burning Fossil Fuels
c)
Forest Fires
d)
Paints and Solvents
174.

Which of the following are the sources of primary air pollutants in the USA?

a)

automobiles, industry, oil drilling

b)

power plants, furniture repair shops, oil refineries

c)

industry, power generation, transportation

d)

chemicals in carpets, building materials, paints

175.

What are the two types of air pollution?

a)

Natural

b)

Automobile

c)

Man-made

d)

Volcano