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Ch. 10, 12, 13, 15- Antepartum (Summer II)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does antepartum mean?

a)

before childbirth

b)

before pregnancy

c)

after childbirth

d)

time period between two different pregnancies

2.

Directions for cellular function are provided by the ______.

a)

genes

b)

cells

c)

chromosomes

d)

brain

3.

How many chromosomes are in each somatic cell?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

10

d)

460

4.

Too much or too little genetic material can result in which of the following?

a)

abnormal structure

b)

abnormal function

c)

abnormal appearance, but not abnormal function

d)

abnormal function, but not appeeance

5.

What are alleles?

a)

genes that code for the same trait

b)

a gene that alters or harms functions

c)

genes organized into pairs

6.

Which of the following are genes that alters or harms functions?

a)

mutations

b)

alleles

c)

chromosomes

d)

autosomes

7.

Genes are organized into 46 paired chromosomes. How many of these pairs are autosomes? How many are sex chromosomes?

a)

22 pairs are autosome

b)

1 pair is autosome

c)

1 pair is sex

d)

22 pairs are sex

8.

Mature gametes (reproductive cells) are ______.

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

9.

Requirements for chromosome analysis?

a)

cells in analysis must have nucleus and be living

b)

can be studied using any type of cells

c)

can only be studied using cells from blood samples

d)

cells in analysis do not have to be living

10.

A karyotype test looks at the size, shape, and number of your chromosomes. Photographing or using computer imaging allows chromosomes to be displayed from ____ to ____.

a)

smallest to largest pairs

b)

largest to smallest pairs

11.

Are homozygous alleles identical or different from one another?

a)

identical

b)

different

12.

The dominant trait is shown by the phenotype. What is a phenotype?

a)

the observable characteristic

b)

the function

13.

How many autosomal dominant genes are needed to produce the trait?

How many autosomal recessive genes are needed to produce the trait?

a)

1 dominant

b)

2 dominant

c)

1 recessive

d)

2 recessive

14.

X-Linked recessive characteristics: Why is a male at a disadvantage for having a recessive x-linked gene disorder, while females are often not?

a)

The male does not have a 2nd X chromosome to compensate to retain normal function

b)

The male only have a single Y chromosome

c)

Females are not as susceptible to X-linked recessive genes due to having 2 X chromosomes

d)

Females are not susceptible to x-linked recessive genes for unknown reasons

15.

Please choose "Single-Gene Abnormalities" to see the answer explanation photo that explains them.

a)

Single-Gene Abnormalities

b)

Not Single-Gene Abnormalities

16.

Chromosomal abnormalities are either numeric or structural. Which abnormality does this describe?

Involving added or missing single chromosomes and those with multiple sets of chromosomes.

a)

numeric

b)

structural

17.

What key words should be used to remember the difference between numeric chromosomal abnormalities and structural chromosomal abnormalities?

a)

numerical- ENTIRE

structural- PART

b)

numerical- PART

structural- ENTIRE

18.

Multifactorial defects are:

a)

present and detectable at birth

b)

an isolated defect

c)

May cause secondary defect

d)

Result from an interaction of genetic material and environmental factors

e)

Result from genetic material only, usually.

19.

Select the risk factors for multifactorial defects.

a)

# of affected close relatives

b)

severity of disorder

c)

sex of person

d)

geographic location

e)

seasonal variations

20.

Teratogens are agents in the fetal environment that either cause a birth defect or increase the likelihood that a birth defect will occur. Select some common teratogens.

a)

maternal infectious agents (viruses or bacterial infections)

b)

drugs and other substances used by mother

c)

pollutants, chemicals, or other substances the mother is exposed to regularly

d)

ionizing radiation

e)

maternal disorders (example: diabetes)

21.

One mechanical disruption to fetal development could be oligohydramnios. This is an abnormally small volume of amniotic fluid. What issues could this condition cause in the fetus?

a)

clubfoot

b)

abnormal development of alveoli in lungs

c)

cleft lip

d)

brain underdevelopment

22.

One mechanical disruption to fetal development could be amniotic bands. Which of the following is correct about amniotic bands?

a)

may result from tears in the inner sac (amnion) of the fetal membranes

b)

can result in fetal deformations or limb amputation

c)

not associated with chromosomal defects

d)

Kate's right hand malformation was caused by this

e)

often associated with chromosomal defects

23.

The purpose of genetic counseling is to provide services to help understand genetic disorders and risk of occurrence. Please read page 183-184 in our book to understand availability, focusing on the family, the process, and supplemental services.

a)

Okay, I will do that.

b)

I am not going to do that.

24.

Look at the photo in the answer explanation for some diagnostic methods that may be used in genetic counseling.

a)

okay

b)

no

25.

Gametogenesis is the creation of reproductive cells. Through meiosis, each gamete receives how many chromosomes and autosomes from each parent?

a)

22 autosomes

1 sex chromosome

b)

23 autosomes

1 sex chromosome

c)

46 chromosomes

d)

46 autosomes

2 sex chromosomes

26.

During (possible) conception, the ovum can be fertilized no longer than ____ after ovulation.

a)

24 hours

b)

48 hours

c)

1 week

d)

12 hours

27.

How long do most sperm survive?

How long does sperm remain in the female tract?

a)

1-2 days

80 hours

b)

2-4 days

72 hours

c)

1-2 days

48 hours

d)

4-6 days

24 hours

28.

During fertilization, what two things must happen?

a)

entry of one spermatozoon into the ovum

b)

fusion of the nuclei of sperm and ovum

c)

chromosomal fusion

29.

The pre-embryotic period is the first ____ weeks after conception.

a)

2

b)

3

c)

1

d)

4

30.

When the conceptus (fetilizted ovum) has divided into about 12-16 cells and resembles a mulberry, what is this called?

a)

morula

b)

blastocyst

c)

embryo

d)

fetus

31.

The outer cells of the morula, secrete fluid, creating a sac of cells that has an inner cell mass within the sac. What is this sac of cells called?

a)

blastocyst

b)

morulanocyte

c)

embryotic sac

d)

decidua

32.

How long after conception is the the zygote lingering in the uterus until implantation? During this time, the zygote is approximately 100 cells.

a)

3-4 days

b)

1 day

c)

1 week

d)

5-7 days

33.

Which important events happen in the pre-embryotic period?

a)

cell division

b)

entry of zygote in to uterus

c)

implantation of zygote into decidua (previously the endometrium)

d)

fetal heart development

34.

Where is the "normal" place of implantation?

a)

the upper uterus

b)

the lower uterus

c)

the fallopian tube

d)

the lateral part of the uterus

35.

In the pre-embryotic phase, the zygote secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). What does this secretion signal?

a)

pregnancy has begun

b)

implantation

c)

regression of estrogen and progesterone production

d)

the ovum has been released from the ovary

36.

The embryotic period extends from the beginning of the 3rd week to the 8th week after conception. By the end of the 8th week, what has occurred?

a)

all major organ systems are in place

b)

cells are just beginning to differentiate

37.

During the embryotic period (week 3-8), _________ may cause major structural and function to developing organs.

a)

teratogens

b)

low blood supply

c)

fetal cell development

d)

mother eating too much ice cream

38.

Please briefly review Table 12.3 in the answer explanation regarding the 3 germ layers.

I tried to come up with an easy way to distinguish between the 3 layers based on whats included in them, but no luck yet.

a)

Okay

b)

No

39.

The ______ period begins 9 weeks after conception until birth.

a)

fetal

b)

embryonic

c)

pre-embryotic

d)

pregnancy

40.

Which system is vulnerable to damaging agents through the entire pregnancy?

a)

central nervous system

b)

peripheral nervous system

c)

sympathetic nervous system

d)

parasympathetic nervous system

41.

Select the 3 axillary structures.

a)

placenta

b)

umbilical cord

c)

fetal membranes

d)

cervix

42.

The placenta is a thick, disk-shaped organ. What are the 3 major functions of this organ?

a)

metabolic

b)

transfer of substances between mother and fetus

c)

endocrine

d)

division of cells

43.

Where is the umbilical cord attached to the placenta?

a)

fetal side; near center

b)

fetal side; upper

c)

mother's side; center

d)

mother's side; upper

44.

The two fetal membranes, amnion (inner membrane) and chorion (outer membrane), together are often called what?

a)

bag of waters

b)

fetal hammock

c)

blood pair

d)

nutrition trails

45.

What is amniotic fluid derived from?

What is the primary function of amniotic fluid?

a)

Derived from:

fetal urine and maternal blood cells

b)

Derived from:

water and other fluids from mother early and throughout pregnancy

c)

Function:

protect fetus and promote development

d)

Function:

protection from teratrogens

46.

The umbilical cord is made up of what?

a)

2 arteries

b)

1 vein

c)

1 artery

d)

2 veins

47.

What is the course of fetal blood circulation?

a)

from the fetal heart to the placenta

b)

from the placenta to the fetal heart

48.

Which organ is cushioned with Wharton's Jelly?

a)

umbilical cord

b)

placenta

c)

fetal membranes

d)

the fetus itself

49.

There are 3 fetal circulatory shunts that partially bypass the fetal liver and lungs: the ductus venosis, foramen ovale, & ductus arteriosis.

When do these structures close functionally?

Do they ever close permanently?

a)

Closing: Yes

b)

Closing: No

c)

Functionally: after birth

d)

Functionally: between 30-36 weeks gestation

50.

Monozygotic twins are which type of twins?

a)

identical

b)

fraternal

51.

Fraternal twins are also known as ______ twins.

a)

dizygotic

b)

monozygotic

52.

During pregnancy, there are changes in many body systems and organs. Which of the following does this describe:

Before conception, this organ is small, pear-shaped, and contained in pelvic cavity. It begins with a capacity of about 10mL. By full-term, the capacity is about 500mL. Growth can be predicted for each trimester (one of the three 13 week periods).

a)

uterus

b)

cervix

c)

placenta

d)

endometrium

53.

Estrogen causes hyperemia (congestion of blood) of the cervix, resulting in a bluish-purple color of the vagina and labia. This is one of the earliest signs of pregnancy. What is this discoloration called?

a)

Chadwick's Sign

b)

Goodell's Sign

54.

Before pregnancy, the cervix has the consistency similar to the tip of the nose. After conception, the cervix softens and feels more like the lips or earlobe. What is this cervical softening referred to as?

a)

Chadwick's Sign

b)

Goodell's Sign

55.

During pregnancy, _________ _________ causes the vagina walls, as well as the cervix to appear bluish purple in color.

a)

increased vascularity

b)

decreased blood flow

c)

increased pressure

d)

decreased nerve activity

56.

After conception, the major function of the ovaries is to secrete ________ from the corpus luteum for the first 6-7 weeks of pregnancy. Ovaries secrete this hormone.

a)

progesterone

b)

estrogen

c)

androgen

d)

testosterone

57.

During pregnancy, the breasts change in size and appearance. _______ stimulates the growth of mammary ductal tissue. ________ promotes the growth of the lobes, lobules, and alveoli.

a)

Estrogen; Progesterone

b)

Progesterone; Estrogen

58.

During pregnancy, if the increase in breast size is extensive, lineal tears in the connective tissue striae gravidarum may develop. What is the common term for striae gravidarum?

a)

stretch marks

b)

zebra stripes

c)

tiger scratches

d)

growth wounds

59.

How early in the pregnancy is colostrum present? Which trimester can it be readily expressed?

a)

Present at: 12-16 weeks

b)

Present at: 20-22 weeks

c)

Expressed: 3rd trimester

d)

Expressed: 2nd trimester

60.

During pregnancy, which is the following increases?

a)

cardiac output

b)

blood pressure

c)

total blood volume

d)

oxygen consumption

61.

Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs because the gravid uterus partially occludes the vena cava and aorta when the mother is _______?

a)

supine

b)

lateral

c)

prone

d)

Fowler's

62.

Please refer to the answer explanation to review the 5 major changes in blood flow during pregnancy.

a)

Okay

b)

No

63.

Which of the following allow for the oxygen needs to be met during pregnancy?

a)

decreased airway resistance

b)

slight hyperventilation

c)

decreased oxygen needs due to hormone levels

d)

increased airway resistance

64.

During pregnancy, the GI system experiences changes. Which of the following are some of those changes?

a)

excessive salivation (ptyalism)

b)

heartburn (pyrosis)

c)

increased intestinal emptying time

d)

liver and gallbladder functional changes

e)

changed consistency in bowel movements

65.

During pregnancy, how does the urinary system change?

a)

frequency of urination

b)

kidneys change in shape and size

c)

increased risk of UTI

d)

mild proteinuria

e)

renal blood flow increase of 25%

66.

A ______ _______ is the darkened line that marks the longitudinal division of the midline of the abdomen.

a)

linea nigra

b)

linea alba

67.

Which are some names for the areas of pigmentation (including brownish patches) over the forehead, cheeks, and nose?

a)

melasma

b)

cholasma

c)

"mask of pregnancy"

d)

linea nigra

68.

During pregnancy circulation to the skin increases causing increased activity of________?

a)

sweat glands

b)

platelets

c)

cutis anserine

d)

sebaceous glands

69.

Cutaneous vascular changes during pregnancy include the blood vessels dilating, an effect of estrogen. Changes in surface blood vessels are obvious during pregnancy, especially in women with fair skin. Which of the following are some examples of this?

a)

spider angiomas

b)

palmar erythmea

c)

cholasma

d)

pyrosis

70.

T or F: Hair grows more rapidly during pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

During pregnancy, fetal demands for calcium increase, especially in the 3rd trimester. Calcium is stored in the woman's body beginning in the 1st trimester to meet later needs of the fetus. The amount of calcium transferred to the fetus is _______ in comparison to how much the mother stores.

a)

equal

b)

small

c)

large

d)

sometimes none

72.

Postural changes:

Musculoskeletal changes are progressive. Because of estrogen and progesterone allow for increased mobility of the __________, which allow for pelvic joint relaxation and therefore pelvic instability, the mother may assume a wide gait to compensate for a changing _______.

a)

pelvic ligaments;

center of gravity

b)

pelvic bone; center balance

c)

cervix; balance

d)

cervix; center of gravity

73.

During the 3rd trimester, the abdominal muscles may become so stretched that the rectus abdominus muscle _______.

a)

separate

b)

tear

c)

roll

d)

build

74.

1. ______ prepares breasts for milk production.

2. Hyperplaia and vascularity cause the ______ to enlarge during pregnancy.

3. Changes in the _______ causes fluctuations in insulin production and alterations in maternal blood glucose.

4. _______ cause significant changes in hormone levels.

a)

1. prolactin

2. thyroid gland

3. pancreas

4. adrenal glands

b)

1. thyroid gland

2. pancreas

3.adrenal glands

4. prolactin

c)

1. prolactin

2. adrenal glands

3. thyroid gland

4. pancreas

d)

1. adrenal gland

2. prolactin

3. thyroid gland

4. pancreas

75.

hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) is the hormone that stimulates production of estrogen and progesterone until the placenta is developed enough to assume function (approx. 10-12 weeks after conception). This hormone can cause which 2 things?

a)

positive pregnancy test

b)

nausea and vomiting

c)

false negative pregnancy test

d)

abnormal food cravings

76.

Select the 3 main functions of estrogen.

a)

stimulates uterine growth and increases blood supply to uterine vessels

b)

aids in development of ductual system in the breasts

c)

is associated with hyperpigmentation, vascular changes in the skin, increased activity of salivary glands, and hyperemia of gums and nasal mucous membranes

d)

maintain of endometrial layer for implantation of fertilized ovum

77.

Which are some of the main functions of progesterone during pregnancy?

a)

preventing tissue rejection of the fetus

b)

maintaining the endometrial layer for implantation of the fertilized ovum

c)

preventing spontaneous abortion by relaxing smooth muscles of the uterus

d)

aids in developing ductal system in breasts to prepare for lactation

78.

hCS (human chorionic somatomammotropin) increases the avalibility of _____ to the fetus.

a)

glucose

b)

blood oxygen

c)

insulin

d)

white blood cells

79.

Which changes in metabolism are seen during pregnancy?

a)

weight gain

b)

water metabolism

c)

dependent edema

d)

carpal tunnel syndrome

e)

carbohydrate metabolism

80.

During pregnancy, the immune system function is altered to allow for the fetus to grow _______.

a)

undisturbed

b)

quickly

c)

strong

d)

consistently

81.

During pregnancy, which of the following are impacted?

a)

eyes

b)

ears

c)

both

d)

neither

82.

Select some indications of pregnancy.

a)

amenorrhea (absense of menstruation)

b)

fatigue

c)

vaginal and cervical color changes (Chadwick's sign)

d)

urinary frequency

e)

temperamental changes

83.

Select some probable signs of pregnancy.

a)

Hegar's sign

b)

ballottement

c)

uterine souffle

d)

Goodell's sign

e)

Visualization of fetus

84.

Calculate the following woman's GTPAL:

A woman is 6 months pregnant with. She previously had one spontaneous abortion, and one elected abortion in the 1st trimester. She has a son who was born at 40 weeks gestation, and a daughter who was born at 34 weeks.

What is her GTPAL?

a)

5-1-1-2-2

b)

5-2-2-1-1

c)

5

d)

2.5

85.

Calculate the following woman's GTPAL:

A woman is 2 months pregnant. She has a child who was born with a chromosomal disorder at 34 weeks, and another daughter who was born at 39 weeks. The mother also has had a miscarriage previously at 25 years of age.

What is her GTPAL?

a)

4-1-1-1-2

b)

2-1-1-1-4

c)

4-2

d)

2-4

86.

A complete menstrual history is necessary to establish an EDD (established due date). What is often used to do this?

a)

Nagele's Rule

b)

EDD division

c)

Gravida's rule

d)

LNMP addition

87.

Pre-eclampsia is a common complication of pregnancy that can result in the baby needing to be delivered early (sometimes). What are some s/s of this?

a)

swelling of fingers, puffiness of face and around eyes

b)

continuous pounding headache

c)

visual disturbances (blurry, dimness, spots)

d)

persistent vomiting

88.

Please review the photo of the book in the answer explanation for the complete list of s/s of pregnancy complications.

a)

Okay

b)

No

89.

Amniocentesis is aspiration of amniotic fluid from the sac for examination. Why is this procedure done in the 2nd trimester?

a)

to identify chromosomal abnormalities or biochemical abnormalities

b)

to determine fetal lung maturity or hemolytic disease

90.

Amniocentesis is aspiration of amniotic fluid from the sac for examination. Why is this procedure done in the 3rd trimester?

a)

to determine fetal lung maturity or hemolytic disease

b)

to identify chromosomal abnormalities or biochemical abnormalities

91.

Why is ultrasound used as a prenatal test?

a)

determine variety of fetal and placental conditions

b)

determining multifetal gestation

c)

gestational age

d)

fetal abnormalities

e)

Always a tool for finding out fetal sex

92.

A doppler ultrasound blood flow assessment is used in pregnancies complicated by which of the following?

a)

hypertension

b)

fetal growth restriction

c)

placental insufficiency

d)

cervical abnormalities

93.

Alpha-Fetoprotein Screening is ideally preformed at 16-18 weeks of gestation. What does this test identify?

a)

chromosomal abnormalities

b)

open body wall defects (neural tube defects)

c)

DNA abnormalities

94.

If the multiple marker screening is positive, what is recommended?

a)

vaginal ultrasound

b)

amniocentesis

c)

doppler blood flow ultrasound

d)

Alpha-Fetoproein Screening

95.

Chrionic Villus Sampling is a test done by using trancervical or transabdominal sampling to obtain villi.

What information can Chrionic Villus Sampling provide?

a)

chromosomal abnormalities

b)

DNA abnormalities

c)

metabolic abnormalities

d)

possible immune system abnormalities

96.

Percutaneous Umbilical Blood Sampling (PUBS or condrosentesis) involves aspirating fetal blood from the umbilical cord near the placenta. What can this test detect?

a)

blood disorders

b)

acid-base imbalance

c)

infection

d)

fetal genetic disease

e)

DNA abnormalties

97.

Maternal assessment of fetal movement is also known as ______.

a)

"kick count"

b)

"movement measurement"

c)

"wiggle watch"

98.

Antepartum Fetal Surveillance:

The ______ stress test evaluates fetal heart reat (FTR) with or without fetal movement. FHR reactivity with accelerations is a reassuring sign.

a)

Non

b)

Contraction

99.

Antepartum Fetal Surveillance:

The _______ stress test is also known as the Oxytocin Challenge test. This is used to determine if the fetal heart responds to uterine contractions that temporarily decrease fetal blood flow.

a)

Contraction

b)

Non

100.

A Biophysical Profile (BPP) provides info on which parameters?

a)

nonstress test

b)

fetal breathing movments

c)

gross fetal movements

d)

fetal tone

e)

amniotic fluid volume