wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Chapter 12 & 14 - Infection & Perioperative Care

Total questions: 165

Worksheet time: 8hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When monitoring a client with an infection, what signs correlate with the development of sepsis? Select all that apply.

a)

Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg

b)

Apical heart rate of 110 beats/min

c)

WBC count of 22,000 cells/mm3

d)

Tympanic temperature of 102F (38.9C)

e)

Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min

2.

The client tells the nurse that the doctor identified a HAI affecting the bladder and kidneys. Which of the following statements provides the best explanation of a HAI for the client?

a)

"Your infection is affecting more than one organ and may become widespread."

b)

"Your infection is related to the wound infection you came with."

c)

"This infection is confined to your urinary system."

d)

"This infection was acquired while you were hospitalized."

3.

A client with TB is in a private room on a medical unit. A diagnosis of Tb requires the use of airborne precautions. What personal protective equipment must the nurse wear when caring for this client?

a)

Face mask

b)

Isolation gown

c)

Particulate air filter respirator

d)

Nonsterile gloves

4.

What health care measure is best for preventing all types of infection?

a)

Cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing

b)

Keep immunizations updates throughout life

c)

Perform hand hygiene before and after contact with clients

d)

Implement infection control policies for contagious diseases

5.

When changing a sterile dressing, what nursing action violates the principles of surgical asepsis?

a)

The nurse cleans the wound from the outer edge toward the center

b)

The nurse puts on clean gloves to remove the soiled dressing

c)

The nurse performs handwashing before putting on sterile gloves

d)

The nurse places the soiled dressing in a moisture resistant bag

6.

A nurse is reviewing the list of clients scheduled for outpatient surgery the following day. What clients would be of most concern to the nurse?

a)

A client having a breast biopsy to rule out malignancy

b)

A client scheduled for cataract removal at an eye surgical center

c)

A client who reports a blood clotting problem having abdominal hernia repair

d)

A client with chronic knee pain having an arthroplasty procedure

7.

The nurse is caring for a 16-year-old client who requires surgery to realign the bones in a fractured tibia sustained while backpacking with a youth group. In this case, from whom is it most appropriate to obtain consent to perform the surgical procedure?

a)

The client

b)

The client's parents

c)

The client's primary provider

d)

The client's youth leader

8.

The nurse recognizes that more preoperative teaching is needed when hearing the client state which of the following statements?

a)

"I can have a small breakfast of juice and coffee the morning of surgery."

b)

"I will bathe with the special soap I was given the night before the surgery."

c)

"I do not need to bring my jewelry to the hospital the day of surgery."

d)

"I will need to empty my bladder before I receive my preoperative medications."

9.

A nurse is caring for a client scheduled for right rotator cuff repair (right shoulder). The client expresses concern about having the wrong shoulder operated on. What responses by the nurse should help to relieve the client's fears? Select all that apply.

a)

"A zero with a line through it is marked on the left shoulder to avoid surgery on that one."

b)

"The OR nurse will ask you to identify which shoulder is being operated on."

c)

"The nurses always make sure nothing like that ever happens at this hospital."

d)

"You are asked to mark your right shoulder with an X to ensure surgery is on the correct side."

e)

"Your surgeon will have to verify that the right shoulder is correct, placing their initials on the right shoulder."

10.

A nurse needs to explain to a postoperative client the importance for performing leg exercises after surgery. What is the nurse's best explanation?

a)

"Contracting and relaxing leg muscles prevent the development of varicose veins."

b)

"Contracting and relaxing leg muscles prevent the loss of muscle strength."

c)

"Contracting and relaxing leg muscles prevent the formation of blood clots."

d)

"Contracting and relaxing leg muscles prevent the swelling of the extremities."

11.

The nurse observes that a surgical client is experiencing abdominal incisional discomfort when coughing postoperatively. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for reducing the client's discomfort?

a)

Administer an analgesic soon after coughing

b)

Apply light pressure to the incision with a pillow

c)

Have the client lie supine before trying to cough

d)

Tell the client to flex both knees while coughing

12.

The nurse notes that a postoperative client is on a clear liquid diet. Which food item is most appropriate to provide?

a)

A bowl of ice cream

b)

A cup of creamed soup

c)

A dish of gelatin

d)

A glass of milk

13.

The nurse explains the purpose of the Penrose drain positioned in the postoperative client's abdomen. What is the nurse's best explanation?

a)

"An open wound drain decreases the formation of scar tissue."

b)

"An open wound drain provides a means for irrigating the wound."

c)

"An open wound drain releases accumulating intestinal gas."

d)

"Am open wound drain removes fluid from the surgical area."

14.

The nurse notes that a postoperative abdominal surgical client who is NPO is complaining of a dry mouth. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

a)

Allow the client to have a few ice chips

b)

Apply petrolatum to the inside of the client's mouth

c)

Assist the client to perform frequent oral hygiene

d)

Increase the rate of IV fluids

15.

_____ _____ _____ are physical barriers preventing microorganisms from gaining entry or expel microorganisms before they multiply

(a)  

16.

(a)   bacteria grow and multiply in an atmosphere that lacks oxygen

17.

(a)   transmit rickettsial diseases

18.

An infection that becomes widespread or systemic is called _____ _____

(a)  

19.

WBCs and other cells produce (a)   in response to viral infection and other factors. This chemical protein appears to trigger infected cells to manufacture an antiviral protein and inhibit cell production

20.

______ ______ are caused by nonpathogenic or remotely pathogenic microorganisms that take advantage of favorable situations and overwhelm the host. They commonly occur among immunocompromised clients

(a)  

21.

A(n) ____ ____ determines the presence of a specific active or inactive infection

(a)  

22.

(a)   are pleomorphic, single-celled microorganisms that lack a cell wall and primarily infect the surface linings or respiratory. genitourinary, and gastrointestinal

23.

A(n) _____ _____ identifies bacteria in a specimen taken from a person with symptoms of an infection

(a)  

24.

______ _____ are microorganisms that spread to animals and then to humans

(a)  

25.

Destroy on incapacitate microorganisms with naturally produced biologic substances. Ex: enzymes, antibody substances, and secretions. ______ _____ _____

(a)  

26.

If microorganisms gain entry, sneezing, coughing, and vomiting can forcefully expel them. _____ _____

(a)  

27.

Their primary function is phagocytosis, the ingestion of cells and foreign material, including microorganisms. (a)  

28.

The ability of some bacteria to remain unaffected by antimicrobial drugs. _____ _____

(a)  

29.

Occasionally, this type of microorganism is dormant in a living host, reactivates periodically, and causes infection to reoccur. (a)  

30.

A bactericidal enzyme, capable of splitting the cell wall of some Gram-positive bacteria. Present in tears, saliva, mucus, skin secretions, and some internal body fluids. (a)  

31.

Infections acquired in the community setting that are infectious communicable diseases. In addition to general signs of systemic infection, these infections produce clusters of signs and symptoms that reflect dysfunction of the organs or tissues that the microorganisms have invaded. ______-_____ ____

(a)  

32.

A human who is the reservoir of an infectious microorganism but does not show active evidence of infectious disease. (a)  

33.

Microorganisms lacking its own genetic components that cannot reproduce outside a living host; thus, it uses metabolic and reproductive materials of living cells or tissues to multiply. (a)  

34.

Test determining the presence of antigen and antibody reactions. ______ _____

(a)  

35.

Characteristics that must be present include the ability to move or be moved from one place to another, power to produce disease, an adequate number of agents, and the ability to invade a host

(a)  

36.

The environment in which the infectious agent can survive and reproduce. It may be human, animal, or nonliving, such as contaminated food and water

(a)  

37.

The route by which the infectious agent escapes from the reservoir. Examples include the respiratory, gastrointestinal, genitourinary tract; the skin and mucous membranes; and blood and other body fluids

(a)  

38.

How the infectious agent is transferred or moved from its reservoir to the susceptible host. The five potential means are contact, droplet, airborne, vehicle, and vector

(a)  

39.

How and infectious agent gains entrance into a susceptible host. Staphylococci, for example, can cause disease via the respiratory tract (pneumonia), skin (boils), blood (internal abscesses), or GI tract (food poisoning)

(a)  

40.

The person on or in whom the infectious agent will reside. Whether infection occurs depends on the duration of exposure to the infectious agent and the person's ability to be compromised by or infected with disease

(a)  

41.

What is the best explanation by a nurse for the fact that death from infections with multidrug-resistant microorganism is increased?

a)

Many pathogenic microorganisms are unaffected by antimicrobial drugs

b)

Many pathogenic microorganisms react adversely with antimicrobial drugs

c)

Antimicrobial drugs used for treating pathogens cause severe adverse effects

d)

Antimicrobial drugs used for treating pathogens are still being developed

42.

What is the best nursing response when a client describes having periodic outbreaks of cold sores long after the initial infection of herpes simplex virus?

a)

Your particular viral strain is immune resistant

b)

You never received proper antiviral therapy

c)

Herpes virus remains dormant and reappears periodically

d)

Recurrent outbreaks are caused by a different viral strain

43.

What is the best nursing answer when someone asks about examples of community-acquired infections? Select all that apply.

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Cystitis

c)

Meningitis

d)

Cholecystitis

e)

Influenza

44.

When a nurse collects a stool specimen for ova and parasite examination, which action is most correct?

a)

The nurse places the entire specimen of feces in a cardboard container

b)

The nurse takes a small amount of stool from the toilet bowl

c)

The nurse takes a portion of stool to the laboratory while it is warm

d)

The nurse refrigerates the specimen until the laboratory receives it

45.

What is the most effective method for preventing the transmission of infectious microorganisms?

a)

Covering the mouth when coughing

b)

Wiping the rectum well after toileting

c)

Eating nutritious meals each day

d)

Performing hand hygiene frequently

46.

A primary provider orders penicillin G 300,000 U intramuscularly every 6 hours. A multidose vial containing 1,000,000 U of powdered penicillin G has been reconstituted to contain 250,000 U/mL. Calculate the volume the nurse should administer per dose. Report the answer to the nearest tenth.

(a)  

47.

After administering an injection of penicillin in a primary provider's office for a confirmed case of streptococcal pharyngitis, how long should the nurse require the client to wait?

a)

10 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

45 minutes

d)

60 minutes

48.

Which type of precautions is the nurse correct in using to prevent the transmission of pathogens from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection?

a)

Contact precautions

b)

Droplet precautions

c)

Standard precautions

d)

Airborne precautions

49.

Which of the following are situations in which the nurse should perform hand hygiene? Select all that apply.

a)

Before contact with every client

b)

After removing gloves

c)

When arriving home after work

d)

Before feeding clients

e)

Before preparing medications

50.

Which of the following is an appropriate action when the nurse cares for a client on airborne precautions?

a)

Wear a gown when entering the room

b)

Don gloves after gowning

c)

Wear a mask within 3 feet of client

d)

Wear a mask or use a particulate air-filter respirator

51.

The ____ ____ begins with admission to the recovery area and continues until the client receives a follow-up evaluation at home or is discharged to a rehabilitation unit

(a)  

52.

The (a)   is a primary provider who has completed 2 years of residency in anesthesia

53.

Healing by _____ _____ occurs when the wound layers are sutured together, so that wound edges are well approximated. This type of incision usually heals in 8 to 10 days, with minimal scarring

(a)  

54.

Interruption of blood supply secondary to prolonged pressure, nerve injury related to prolonged pressure, postoperative hypotension, dependent edema, and joint injury may result from ____ ____ _______ in the operating room

(a)  

55.

Postoperative pain reaches its peak between ___ and ___ hours after surgery

(a)  

56.

______ ______ occurs when the wound completely separates and organs protrude

(a)  

57.

The ____ ____ assists the surgical team by handing instruments to the surgeon and assistants, preparing sutures, receiving specimens for laboratory examination, and counting sponges and needles

(a)  

58.

______ ______ uses local anesthesia to block the conduction of nerve impulses in a specific area to create a loss of sensation and decreased mobility in the anesthetized area

(a)  

59.

Danger of aspiration from saliva, mucus, vomitus, or blood exists until the client is fully awake and can swallow without difficulty. This equipment must be kept at the client's bedside until the danger of aspiration no longer exists. ______ ______

(a)  

60.

This phase begins with the decision to perform surgery and continues until the client reaches the operating area ______ ______

(a)  

61.

This member of the surgical team may be an registered nurse (RN), a licensed practical or vocational nurse (LPN/LVN), or a surgical technologist who assists the surgeon and first assistant

(a)  

62.

The approximation of wound edges is delayed secondary to infection. When the wound is drained in cleaned of infection, the wound edges are sutured together. The resulting scar is wider than that with primary intention. _____ ______

(a)  

63.

Separation of wound edges without the protrusion of organs. ____ ______

(a)  

64.

This member of the surgical team assists in the surgical procedure and may be involved with the client's preoperative and postoperative care. They may be another primary provider, a surgical resident, or an RN who has appropriate approval and endorsement from the American Operating Room Nurses (AORN) and the American College of Surgeons

(a)  

65.

Used for ulcers and infected wounds, this method of wound healing is slow as granulating tissue fills in the wound

(a)  

66.

Decrease respiratory tract secretions, dry mucous membranes, and interrupt vagal stimulation

(a)  

67.

Reduce nausea, prevent emesis, and enhance postoperative sedation

(a)  

68.

Decrease gastric acidity and volume

(a)  

69.

Decrease the amount of anesthesia needed, help reduce anxiety and pain, and promote sleep

(a)  

70.

Promote sleep, decrease anxiety, and reduce the amount of anesthesia needed

(a)  

71.

Reduce preoperative anxiety, slow motor activity, and promote induction of anesthesia

(a)  

72.

A client is hospitalized for a surgical procedure. During the assessment, the nurse notes that the client has not carried out a specific portion of the preoperative instructions. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform?

a)

Suggest an alternative recommendation to the instruction

b)

Notify the surgeon

c)

Document on the client's chart

d)

Ask the client to implement the instructions and appear for surgery later

73.

A nurse applying for a position in the local hospital asks the interviewing nurse what the responsibilities of a circulating nurse would be. What would be the interviewing nurse's most appropriate response?

a)

The circulating nurse obtains and opens wrapped sterile equipment

b)

The circulating nurse prepares sutures for the surgeon

c)

The circulating nurse hands instruments to the surgeon and assistants

d)

The circulating nurse assists with putting the client to sleep

74.

The nurse explains to the student nurse the factors that may promote anxiety for a client undergoing a surgical procedure. Which factors would the nurse be most likely to include? Select all that apply.

a)

Decreased mobility

b)

Unfamiliar environment

c)

Unclear expectations

d)

Decreased alertness

e)

Postoperative pain

75.

A nurse needs to care for a client during the immediate postoperative period. Which of the following factors predisposes the client to hypoxia?

a)

Pooling of secretions in the lungs

b)

Fluid and electrolyte loss

c)

Physical and psychological trauma

d)

Increased mobility

76.

A nurse explains to a client who underwent surgery the rationale for using caution when changing the wound dressings. What would be the nurse's most appropriate explanations?

a)

Caution is needed to prevent damaging new tissue

b)

Caution is needed to minimize causing pain to the client

c)

Caution is needed to promote faster wound healing

d)

Caution is needed to avoid wound infection

77.

What does weight gain during the postoperative period signify?

a)

Urine retention

b)

Fluid accumulation

c)

Healthy recovery

d)

Paralytic ileus

78.

Which of the following postoperative medications causes decreased respiratory tract secretions, dry mucous membranes, and interrupts vaginal stimulation?

a)

Histamine-2 receptor antagonists

b)

Antianxiety drugs

c)

Anticholinergics

d)

Sedatives

79.

Which type of anesthesia describes a state in which the client is free of pain, fear, and anxiety; can tolerate unpleasant procedures while maintaining independent cardiorespiratory function; and the ability to respond to verbal commands and tactile stimulation?

a)

General anesthesia

b)

Regional anesthesia

c)

Epidural block

d)

Procedural sedation

80.

Which of the following postoperative complications results from saliva, mucus, vomitus, or blood, making its way into the lungs as a result of difficulty in swallowing or a client's inability to expectorate oral secretions?

a)

Aspiration

b)

Hypoxia

c)

Shock

d)

Hemorrhage

81.

A client asks the nurse about the healing of the surgical wound. The nurse explains the stages of healing, with one stage lasting 21 days to at least several months, allowing for increased wound strength through physiologic processes. What stage is the nurse referring to?

a)

The inflammatory stage

b)

The proliferative stage

c)

The maturation phase

d)

The approximation phase

82.

A client who has undergone treatment for a foot infection is being discharged. Which of the following should a nurse include in a teaching plan to prevent the spread of infection? Select all that apply.

a)

Importance of adequate fluid, food intake, and exercise

b)

Aseptic techniques for self-care activities

c)

Methods for handling and disposing of contaminated material

d)

Methods of washing daily wear

e)

Referral to journals that provide sanitation procedures

83.

Which handwashing technique should the nurse adopt when performing invasive procedures?

a)

Wash hands with soap or detergent

b)

Use hand antisepsis

c)

Use surgical hand scrub

d)

Avoid washing hands with warm water

84.

A nurse is caring for a client who is infected with Neisseria species endogenous microorganisms. For which infection should the nurse monitor the client?

a)

Moniliasis

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Meningitis

d)

Impetigo

85.

A nurse is caring for a client with an infection. What precautions should the nurse take after leaving the client's room? Select all that apply.

a)

Scrub the hands at least twice thoroughly, with attention to nails

b)

Use a wet towel to turn off the faucets

c)

Avoid touching any part of the sink or the faucets

d)

Discard the paper towels appropriately after drying hands

e)

Apply hand sanitizer to keep the hands free from odor

86.

A nurse at a healthcare facility is accustomed to using latex gloves when caring for clients. For which client should the nurse be careful when using latex gloves?

a)

Clients with a history of spina bifida

b)

Clients with a history of skin reactions

c)

Clients receiving chemotherapy

d)

Clients receiving radiation therapy

87.

What kind of eye protection should the nurse wear in an operating room for her safety?

a)

Chemical splash goggles

b)

Goggles with side and forehead shields

c)

Full-face shields

d)

Disposable goggles

88.

A nurse is caring for a client with an infection at a healthcare facility. Which measure should the nurse follow to prevent the transmission of pathogens between people?

a)

Carefully dispose of soiled dressings

b)

Suggest that the client takes a bath twice a day

c)

Sterilize the curtains of the client's room

d)

Carefully dispose of the client's daily wear

89.

A nurse is explaining the different procedures used to break the chain of infection to a nursing student. In which link in the chain of infection a nurse provide special attention to the respiratory and GI tracts?

a)

Portal of exit

b)

Vehicle of transmission

c)

Portal of entry

d)

Susceptible host

90.

While caring for a client in an operating room, the nurse notices that one of his gloves is punctured. What should a nurse do in such a situation?

a)

Remove the gloves and then finish the procedure

b)

Wear another pair of gloves over the ripped pair

c)

Continue and then wash hands after completion

d)

Discard the gloves, wash hands, and wear a new pair

91.

A nurse is caring for a client with TB. What intervention should the nurse take to protect themself from the risk of infection?

a)

Use appropriate antibiotics

b)

Get regular checkups done

c)

Obtain appropriate immunizations

d)

Avoid parenteral administration of the drug to the client

92.

A nurse caring for a client needs to take droplet precautions when transporting the client to an area outside the client's room. Which precaution should the nurse take?

a)

Ask the client to wear a mask

b)

Drap the wheelchair with a clean sheet

c)

Drap the client with a bath blanket

d)

Disinfect the wheelchair or stretcher after use

93.

A healthcare facility is expected to adopt infection control methods. What should the plan to control infection include? Select all that apply.

a)

An infection control committee

b)

Procedures for irradiation

c)

Surveillance of nosocomial infection

d)

Procedures for acid treatment

e)

Procedures for environmental sanitation

94.

A nurse is caring for a client with TB. What kind of personal protective cover should the nurse use while in the vicinity of the client?

a)

Double layer of gloves

b)

Gown

c)

High-filtration particulate respirator

d)

Protective eyewear

95.

A nurse is caring for a client with scabies. What precautions should the nurse take when caring for this client? Select all that apply.

a)

Wear gloves when entering the room and remove them before leaving

b)

Change gloves after contact with a client's infective material

c)

Wash hands with an antimicrobial agent or waterless antiseptic agent

d)

Wear a mask when working within 3 feet of the client

e)

Make the client wear a mask during transportation

96.

A nurse caring for a client with typhoid collects a urine specimen from the client in his room. What procedure should the nurse follow when sending the urine specimen to the laboratory?

a)

Place the specimen in a "double bagging"

b)

Carefully scrub the urine container outside the room

c)

Expose the specimen to sunlight if possible

d)

Use disposable medication cups

97.

Which procedure should the nurse follow when caring for a client in protective isolation?

a)

Recap or break needles immediately after use

b)

Administer enema to the client periodically

c)

Ensure handwashing for those coming into contact with the client

d)

Give fresh fruit and vegetables to the client

98.

Which types of clients are most likely to be placed in protective isolation? Select all that apply.

a)

Clients undergoing bone marrow transplantation

b)

Clients undergoing chemotherapy for cancer

c)

Clients with agammaglobulinemia

d)

Clients with diabetes

e)

Clients with cardiovascular diseases

99.

What information should the nurse give the client and family while setting up a client's room for isolation?

a)

Teach the client the isolation procedures

b)

Teach the client OSHA regulations

c)

Educated the client about BBP standards

d)

Explain the reasons for isolation precautions

100.

A nurse is caring for a client with a stab wound in the back. What should be the appropriate nursing intervention when caring for this client?

a)

Place the client on contact precautions

b)

Place the client on airborne precautions

c)

Place the client on droplet precautions

d)

Place the client in an open and airy room

101.

Healthcare facilities have stringent procedures in place for preventing infection. What is the main purpose of designing standard precautions for infection control?

a)

To reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms

b)

To ensure the cleanliness of the healthcare facility premises

c)

To instill a sense of safety in the client and relatives

d)

To speed the recovery of clients and increase their sense of well-being

102.

An 18-year-old client wants to have minor plastic surgery done on her nose. Which can make the client feel more comfortable while in the operating room?

a)

The procedure is performed under general anesthesia

b)

The anesthesiologist or nurse anesthetist visits the client before surgery

c)

The client's vitals are recorded before the surgery is started

d)

Breathing exercises are taught to the client before surgery

103.

A nurse is preparing a client for gastric bypass surgery under general anesthesia. The client has been prescribed certain presedation medications before being moved to the operation room. Which must the nurse ensure before giving any presedation medications to the client?

a)

The client has signed the consent to surgery

b)

The client has had a healthy diet

c)

The oxygen saturation has been checked

d)

The client has provided transportation details

104.

An 18-year-old client needs periodontal flap surgery due to a gum disorder. Which type of anesthesia will be used during the surgery?

a)

General anesthesia

b)

Local anesthesia

c)

Spinal anesthesia

d)

Conduction block

105.

A client who underwent an abdominal surgery under general anesthesia is transported from the post-anesthesia unit to the recovery unit in a semiconscious state. What nursing procedure must the attending nurse perform after receiving the client from the post-anesthesia care unit?

a)

Position the client with legs slightly raised

b)

Provide complete privacy to the client and family members

c)

Check the client's temperature at least once every 8 hours

d)

Reinforce the client's dressing without changing it

106.

A client is undergoing thoracic surgery under general anesthesia. Which healthcare individual is responsible for assisting the surgeon with suturing the incision?

a)

Circulating nurse

b)

Registered nurse first assistant

c)

Sterile assistant

d)

Vocational nurse

107.

A client who underwent surgery 2 days earlier arrives at the healthcare facility with complaints of continuous fever and severe pain over the incision area, along with redness and swelling around it. On further examination, the client's WBC count is high. Which symptom does the client's WBC count represent?

a)

Infection

b)

Dehiscence

c)

Evisceration

d)

Embolism

108.

After an extensive surgical procedure under general anesthesia, a client complains of severe pain the calves of her legs. On further examination, the client is diagnosed with thrombophlebitis. Which should the nurse do when caring for such a client?

a)

Raise the head end of the client's bed

b)

Assist the client in exercising the leg

c)

Apply cold compression and gently rub the area

d)

Check for progress with a positive Homan's sign

109.

An elderly client is being prepared to undergo abdominal surgery under general anesthesia. Which nursing measure must the nurse perform when providing preoperative nursing care to the client?

a)

Ensure that the client has recently eaten a nutritious meal

b)

Ensure that the client has used a cathartic solution before the surgical procedure

c)

Check the preoperative checklist as soon as the client is moved to the operating room

d)

Request that family members converse with the client after sedative administration

110.

A 14-year-old client is admitted to the healthcare facility to undergo and appendectomy. Which should the nurse ensure when assisting in the preoperative nursing care of the client?

a)

Ensure that the client is able to participate in his or her own care as much as possible

b)

Ensure that needs for water, oxygen, sleep, food, and elimination are met, in that order

c)

Ensure that the client understands the procedure but does not necessarily vocalize it

d)

Ensure that the client has had adequate food and fluids before the surgery

111.

A 45-year-old client who is about to undergo a surgical procedure is administered general anesthesia. The client gradually exhibits lack of reflexes, weak and thready pulse, flaccid respiration, lowered blood pressure, and widely dilated pupils. Which stage of general anesthesia should the nurse document this as?

a)

Analgesia and amnesia stage

b)

Dreams and excitement stage

c)

Surgical anesthesia stage

d)

Toxic or danger stage

112.

Round bacteria

(a)  

113.

Round bacteria that grow in clusters

(a)  

114.

Round bacteria that grow in chains

(a)  

115.

Round bacteria that grow in pairs

(a)  

116.

Rod-shaped bacteria

(a)  

117.

Spiral-shaped bacteria

(a)  

118.

Very small microorganism that can pass through barriers

(a)  

119.

Resemble but are different from bacteria. Invade living cells and cannot survive outside a living organism or host. Transmitted by arthropods (fleas, lice, mosquitoes)

(a)  

120.

Single-celled organisms classified according to their motility

(a)  

121.

Extend their cell walls and their intracellular contents flow foward

a)

cilia

b)

flagella

c)

amoeboid motion

122.

Hair like projections

a)

cilia

b)

amoeboid motion

c)

flagella

123.

Whip like appendages

a)

amoeboid motion

b)

cilia

c)

flagella

124.

Single-celled fungi that lack a cell wall (they assume many shapes) difficult to identify

(a)  

125.

Infectious worms

(a)  

126.

Microorganisms made entirely of protein; alzheimer's disease

(a)  

127.

Characteristics of sepsis. Select all that apply.

a)

Temperature

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Heart rate

d)

Respiratory rate

e)

WBC count

128.

Severe sepsis. Select all that apply.

a)

Hypoperfusion

b)

Organ dysfunction

c)

Hypotension

d)

Hyperperfusion

e)

Increased BP

129.

Manifestation of sepsis. Select all that apply.

a)

Altered mental status

b)

Anuria

c)

Lactic acidosis

d)

Hypoxia

e)

Oliguria

130.

Treatments of sepsis. Select all that apply.

a)

Increasing BP w/IV fluids

b)

Antihypertensives

c)

Anticholinergics

d)

Vasopressors

e)

Antibiotics

131.

Benzodiazepines: Diazepam (Valium), Lorazepam (Ativan), Midazolam, Nonbenzodiazepines: Hydroxyzine (Vistaril), Propofol (Diprivan) Classification (______/______)

(a)  

132.

H2 receptor agonists: Cimetidine (Tagamet), ranitidine (Zantac), famotidine (Pepcid); Protein Pump inhibitors: Omeprazole (Prilosec), Lansoprazole (Prevacid)

(a)  

133.

Atropine, Glycopyrrolate (Robinul), Scopalamine

(a)  

134.

Succinylcholine (Anectine)

(a)  

135.

Opioid: Fentanyl (Sublimaze); NSAID: Ketorolac (Toradol)

(a)  

136.

Ondansentron (Zofran), Promethazine (Phenergan)

(a)  

137.

This sedative/antianxiety also works as an antiemetic.

(a)  

138.

Reduces preoperative anxiety and promotes induction of anesthesia

(a)  

139.

Reduce GI acidity and gastric volume

(a)  

140.

Decreases oral, respiratory, and gastric secretions, prevent laryngospasm and reflex bradycardia

(a)  

141.

Promote skeletal relaxation during procedure; allow for rapid intubation

(a)  

142.

Sedate and decrease the amount of anesthesia needed, control post-op shivers

(a)  

143.

Reduce nausea, prevent emesis, and enhance preoperative sedation

(a)  

144.

Common med side effects:

Dry mouth, drowsiness

(a)  

145.

Common med side effects:

HA, dizziness, drowsiness, nausea, gas

(a)  

146.

Common med side effects:

Dry mouth, tachycardia, urinary retention

(a)  

147.

Common med side effects:

Respiratory depression

(a)  

148.

Sedation, hypotension, vertigo, euphoria, nausea, vomiting, urinary retention, constipation

(a)  

149.

Lightheadedness, dry mouth, urinary retention, hypotension

(a)  

150.

Depressed breathing, monitor if given with opiate. Increased fall risk due to sedative side effects.

a)

Anticholinergics

b)

Anticonvulsant

c)

Antianxiety/sedative

d)

Antiemetics

151.

Can cause mental confusion in the older adult

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Cimetidine

c)

Ondansetron

d)

Midazolam

152.

Increased fall risk due to sedative side effects

a)

antiarrhythmic

b)

antihypertensive

c)

antiemetics

d)

anticholinergics

153.

When taking neuromuscular blocking agents monitor for

a)

hyperkalemia

b)

hypertension

c)

hypotension

d)

hypokalemia

154.

______ can cause abnormal cardiac electrical acitivity

a)

promethazine

b)

reglan

c)

ondansetron

d)

scopalamine

155.

_____ has extravasation potential if it leaks into soft tissue

a)

promethazine

b)

phenergan

c)

percocet

d)

fentanyl

156.

Dexmedetomidine (Precedex), Etomidate (Amidate), Ketamine (Ketalar), Propofol (Diprivan)

(a)  

157.

Alters consciousness with ability to follow directions, and reduces memory of procedure

(a)  

158.

Common med side effects:

Increased oropharyngeal secretions, with propofol, there is pain upon injection

(a)  

159.

Flumazenil, Naloxone (Narcan)

(a)  

160.

Select the correct sequence of general anesthesia.

1. Medullary depression

2. Surgical anesthesia

3. Induction

4. Excitement

a)

1234

b)

3412

c)

3421

d)

3124

161.

Postoperative nursing management:

Assess for s/s of shock, inspect dressings, blood transfusions, reinforce dressings, wound drains

a)

aspiration

b)

shock

c)

hemorrhage

d)

hypoxia

162.

Postoperative nursing management:

Fluid and electrolyte loss, trauma, anesthetics, medications; assess for shock

a)

shock

b)

aspiration

c)

hemorrhage

d)

hypoxia

163.

Postoperative nursing management:

Oxygen and suction equipment available; assess for signs of cyanosis and dyspnea

a)

hemorrhage

b)

aspiration

c)

shock

d)

hypoxia

164.

Postoperative nursing management:

Suction equipment at bedside; assess for difficulty swallowing, side-lying position

a)

hypoxia

b)

aspiration

c)

shock

d)

hemorrhage

165.

Pain peaks __-__ hours after surgery

a)

24-36

b)

24-48

c)

12-36

d)

12-24