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BB FINAL EXAM 2022

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

He successfully performed human to human transfusion from a woman suffering from a postpartum hemorrhage.

a)

Richard Lower

b)

Jean Baptiste Dennis

c)

James Blundell

d)

Karl Landsteiner

2.

The title of the book written by Karl Landsteiner is:

a)

Modern Bloodbanking

b)

The Specificity of Serological Reactions

c)

Specificty of Blood and Serum Reactions

d)

Immunohematology: An Introduction to Bloodbanking

3.

This is known as the National Blood Services Act of 1994 which promotes voluntary blood donation to provide sufficient supply of safe blood in the Philippines.

a)

RA 5527

b)

RA 1517

c)

RA 7719

d)

RA 8504

4.

All of the following are components of Rejuvenating solutions except?

a)

Phosphate

b)

Inositol

c)

Glucose

d)

Mannitol

e)

Adenine

5.

Shelf-life of a blood stored with CPDA-1 with additive solution?

a)

21 days

b)

24 hours

c)

35 days

d)

42 days

e)

36 days

6.

All of this anticoagulants can preserve the blood for 21 days except?

a)

CPDA 2

b)

CPD

c)

ACD

d)

CP2D

7.

Which of the following is not true about the physical requirement about a blood donor?

a)

Temp of 37.8 C

b)

Hct is 38%

c)

Hgb is 126

d)

Weight is 115 lbs

8.

Those who have had received Hepatitis B immuneglobulin is deferred for?

a)

5 years

b)

No deferral

c)

3 years

d)

2 years

e)

1 year

9.

Which of the following donor is a candidate for deferral?

a)

Salk polio vaccination

b)

Rubella vaccination

c)

Recipients of recombinant type growth hormone

d)

Rubeola Vaccination

10.

What is the angle of the needle when during blood from the donor?

a)

15 degree is mostly preferred then skin to vein

b)

25 degree then skin to vein

c)

20 degree then skin to vein

d)

30 degree then skin to vein

11.

This type of autologous donation involves collection then reinfusion of blood lost by a patient during the surgery.

a)

Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution

b)

Intra-operative Collection

c)

Postoperative Collection

d)

Pre-operative Collection

12.

The negativity of the red cell membrane is well maintained due to the presence of ?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Sialic Acid

d)

Spectrin

13.

The Biochemical composition of the RBC membrane is comprised of?

a)

52% -Protein

35% -Lipids

18% -Carbohydrates

b)

50% -Lipids

40% -Proteins

10% -Carbohydrates

c)

52% -Protein

40% -Lipids

8% -Carbohydrates

d)

60% -Protein

30% -Lipids

10% -Carbohydrates

14.

The RBC membrane is permeable to all of the following except?:

a)

Water

b)

Sodium

c)

Chloride

d)

Bicarbonate

15.

This is otherwise known as the aerobic pathway of RBC metabolism.

a)

Embden-Meyerhoff pathway

b)

Luebering-Rapaport Shunt

c)

Pentose Phosphate Pathway

d)

Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway

16.

The ABO gene is located on the locus of ____________.

a)

Chromosome 12

b)

Chromosome 9

c)

Chromosome 6

d)

Chromosome 3

17.

The immunodominant sugar on Blood group B patient is?

a)

L-fucose

b)

D-galactose

c)

N-acetyl-D-galactosamine

d)

Galactose

18.

The enzyme produce by H gene is called?

a)

galactosyl transferase

b)

N acetyl-L-galactosaminyl transferase

c)

D- galactosyl transferase

d)

L- fucosyl transferase

19.

The donor nucleotide involve in the formation of A antigen is?

a)

UDP-GAL

b)

GDP-FUC

c)

UDP-GALNAC

d)

GALNAC

20.

This gene/allele codes for a fucosyl transferase enzyme that adds fucose onto Type 1 chains in secretory glands.

a)

H gene

b)

A gene

c)

B gene

d)

Se gene

21.

What is backward or reverse typing?

a)

Testing patient red cells for antigen

b)

Testing known reagent red cell

c)

Testing patient serum for antibodies

d)

Testing known antibodies

22.

The presence or absence of the ABH antigens on the red blood cell membrane is controlled by the?

a)

B gene

b)

A gene

c)

H gene

d)

O gene

e)

Se gene

23.

All of the following are characteristics of Bombay individuals except?

a)

Presence of Anti-A, Anti-B and a potent Anti-H

b)

Absence of L-fucosyltransferase in serum and H antigens in the red cells

c)

A, B, H Nonsecretor

d)

Strong reactivity with anti-I

e)

Absence of A or B enzymes in the serum

24.

Which of the following would react with Dolichos biflorus reagent?

a)

A1

b)

A2

c)

B antigen

d)

H antigen

25.

Which of the following has the least amount of H antigen?

a)

A2B

b)

B

c)

A2

d)

A1

e)

A1B

26.

ABO Discrepancies are more common in?

a)

Forward Grouping

b)

Front typing

c)

Reverse Grouping

d)

All of the above

27.

What is the resolution or remedy that a medical technologist should do when there is a presence of antibody to acriflavine?

a)

Perform antibody screening and identification.

b)

Repeat serum grouping with at least three examples of A1, A2 and O cells and autologous control

c)

Test patient rbcs with Dolichos biflorus

d)

Cold autoadsorption

e)

Wash the red cells three times with saline

28.

It occurs when there is exposure of crypt antigens due to microbial infections or in association with inherited disorders.

a)

Chimerism

b)

Polyagglutination

c)

Cis-AB

d)

Wharton’s jelly

29.

Remedy on presence of wharton’s jelly in cord blood samples.

a)

Saline replacement technique

b)

Wash cord cells six to eight times

c)

Wash the red cells three times with saline

d)

Repeat forward type using antisera with a different lot number

30.

Resolution or remedy when there is elevated levels of globulin due to multiple myeloma or Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia.

a)

Cold autoadsorption

b)

Saline replacement technique

c)

Treat red cells with 0.01 M DTT

d)

Incubate red cells at 37°C , then washed three times with saline

31.

Antibodies of group O individuals:

a)

Not immunogenic

b)

Reactive at warm temperature and can cross the placenta

c)

Not implicated on HDFN

d)

Detected in antibody screening and identification

32.

Forward ABO Grouping sample is:

a)

2-5% red cell suspension

b)

Serum

c)

Antisera

d)

Plasma

33.

Given the genotypes: AO X BO

What are the possible phenotype of their offspring?

a)

A, AB, B, O

b)

A, AB, B

c)

A, AB

d)

A, B

34.

Type I Precursor Substance is comprised of identical sugar (galactos-N- acetyl glucosamine - galactose -glucose) combined in:

a)

1-3 linkage

b)

1-4 linkage

c)

1-2 linkage

d)

None of the above

35.

H antigen

a)

ISBT 018

b)

ISBT 019

c)

ISBT 017

d)

ISBT 016

36.

ABH-soluble antigens are found on all of the following except?

a)

Saliva

b)

Amniotic fluid

c)

Tears

d)

RBCs

e)

Digestive juices

37.

Group A Secretor possible genotypes:

a)

AA/AO/BB/BO/AB; hh; sese

b)

AB; HH/Hh; SeSe/Sese

c)

BB/BO; HH/Hh; SeSe/Sese

d)

AA/AO; HH/Hh; SeSe/Sese

38.

Amount of H Antigen according to Blood Group from greatest to least.

a)

O > A1 > B > A2B > A2 > A1B

b)

O > A2 > B > A1B > A1 > A2B

c)

O > A2 > B > A2B > A1 > A1B

d)

None of the above

39.

This is due to multiple mutations in the FUT1 gene.

a)

B (A) phenotype

b)

Bombay Phenotype

c)

Cis-AB phenotype

d)

Acquired B phenotype

40.

The Rh antibody with the lowest frequency in the population is ______.

a)

D

b)

C

c)

e

d)

c

41.

This terminology describes only the presence or absence of a given antigen.

a)

ISBT

b)

Wiener

c)

Fisher-Race

d)

Rosenfield

42.

Inheritance of RH antigens:

a)

Autosomal dominant

b)

Autosomal recessive

c)

Autosomal codominant

d)

Either of the three

43.

This is the most prevalent haplotype in Asians and Whites.

a)

DCE

b)

DCe

c)

Dce

d)

DcE

44.

This is the most prevalent haplotype in blacks.

a)

DCE

b)

DCe

c)

Dce

d)

DcE

45.

Rh1/Rh2 is equivalent to _______ in Fisher Race

a)

DCe/DcE

b)

DCE/DcE

c)

dCe/dcE

d)

Dce/Dce

46.

Arrangement of Rh antigens according to immunogenecity

a)

DCEce

b)

DcECe

c)

DEceC

d)

DCecE

47.

Patient with previous sensitization must be given what Rh type?

a)

Rh positive

b)

Rh negative

c)

Rh null

d)

Weak D

48.

It occurs when one or more parts of the D Ag are missing.

a)

D mosaic

b)

C trans

c)

Position effect

d)

WeaK D

49.

RHAG gene is found in chromosome no. __?

a)

1

b)

6

c)

9

d)

3

50.

It is a phenotype occurring in individuals whose red blood cells possess an extremely low number of D antigen sites that most reagent anti-D are unable to detect.

a)

D mosaic

b)

C trans

c)

Partial D

d)

Del

e)

WeaK D

51.

Individuals with this phenotype have a partial suppression of RH gene expression caused by mutations in the RHAG gene.

a)

Rhnull

b)

Rhmod

c)

Cw

d)

rhi

52.

Should an A-negative woman who has just had a miscarriage receive RhIg?

a)

Yes, but only if she does not have evidence of active Anti-D

b)

No, the type of the baby is unknown

c)

Yes, but only a minidose regardless of trimester

d)

No, RhIg is given for term pregnancies only

53.

Blood component usually use in intrauterine transfusion.

a)

O negative blood

b)

O positive blood

c)

A negative blood

d)

B negative

e)

A positive blood

54.

All of the following are candidate for Rhogam administration except?

a)

When Mother is Rh negative (and is negative for allo anti-D) and Baby is Rh positive.

b)

Rh negative pregnant women who is 28-32 weeks pregnant and positive with Anti-D

c)

Pregnant woman who is Rh negative and undergone amniocentesis at 18 weeks of gestation

d)

A woman who had miscarriage during 6 weeks of her pregnancy

55.

Which listed transfusion reaction may result from an anamnestic response following a secondary exposure to donor RBCs?

a)

IHTR

b)

Alloimmunization

c)

Anaphylactoid reaction

d)

TACO

e)

TA-GVHD

56.

From the reactions given, it appears that there is(are)

a)

One antibody reacting

b)

One antibody reacting that shows dosage

c)

Cold" and "warm" antibodies reacting

d)

Two "warm" antibodies reacting

57.

The antibody that reacts at immediate spin is most likely

a)

Anti-D

b)

Anti-P1

c)

Anti-Lea

d)

Anti-Leb

58.

The antibody that reacts at 37°C and with AHG is

a)

Anti-C

b)

Anti-D

c)

Anti-CD

d)

Anti-K

59.

False negative results at the antiglobulin phase of an antibody screening test are most likely due to

a)

Excessive washing of the red cells

b)

Inadequate washing of the red cells

c)

Warm autoantibody present in the patient's serum

d)

Failure to allow the blood to clot properly

60.

What is the process of removing an antibody from the red blood cell membrane called?

a)

Absorption

b)

Adsorption

c)

Elution

d)

Immunization

61.

At the end of an antiglobulin test, IgG-coated control cells (coombs check cells) are added to the negative tests and centrifuged. What does it mean if no agglutination occurs?

a)

Test is valid

b)

Antiglobulin reagent was working properly

c)

Cells were not washed thoroughly.

d)

Control cells are contaminated.

62.

The crossmatch is performed using

a)

Donor's serum and recipient's red cells

b)

Donor's red cells and recipient's serum

c)

Donor's serum and reagent red cells

d)

Recipient's serum and reagent red cell

63.

Which of the following will the crossmatch do?

a)

Prevent immunization

b)

Prevent delayed transfusion reactions

c)

Guarantee normal survival of the red blood cells

d)

Frequently verify donor ABO compatibility

64.

Given that a patient's antibody screening test is negative, which of the following may cause a false positive result in a compatibility test?

a)

Incorrect ABO typing of the donor or patient

b)

An alloantibody against a low-frequency antigen on the donor cells

c)

Prior coating of IgG antibody on the donor cells

d)

All of the given options

65.

If 98% of the red blood cells are viable in a unit of RBC at the time of transfusion, what percentage of red cells will remain viable 28 days posttransfusion?

a)

10%

b)

30%

c)

50%

d)

70%

66.

What is the component of choice for someone who needs a RBC transfusion when there is a history of febrile transfusion reactions?

a)

RBCs less than 5 days old

b)

Leukocyte-reduced RBCs

c)

RBCs 30 to 35 days old

d)

Frozen RBCs that have been thawed and deglycerolized

67.

Which of the following is the component of choice when a physician is concerned about restoring or maintaining oxygen carrying capacity?

a)

Albumin

b)

Cryoprecipitate

c)

Whole blood

d)

Red blood cells

68.

Which of the following is acceptable to be given intravenously with a blood transfusion?

a)

5% dextrose in water

b)

Physiologic saline

c)

Ringer's solution

d)

Potassium chloride in saline

69.

Hemolytic transfusion reactions are the most serious type of reactions to blood transfusion. The majority of hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by_______________errors

a)

Blood typing

b)

Antibody identification

c)

Clerical

d)

Crossmatching

70.

A transfusion of which of the following is least likely to transmit HIV, HCV, or HBV?

a)

Pooled plasma, solvent/detergent treated

b)

Cryoprecipitate

c)

Leukocyte-reduced RBCs

d)

Platelets

71.

In which of the following blood group systems may the red blood cell typing change during pregnancy?

a)

P

b)

MNS

c)

Lewis

d)

Duffy

72.

Which of the following is not considered a useful predictor of hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) during the gestational period?

a)

Anti-A

b)

Anti-D

c)

Anti-Fya

d)

Anti-U

73.

A newborn is group O, D-positive and has a 3+ DAT. The mother's antibody screening test is negative. Assuming the antibody detection test is valid, one should consider HDN due to an antibody directed against

a)

Fyb antigen

b)

K antigen

c)

Low-incidence antigen

d)

A or B antigen

74.

Which two of the following conditions are the most serious immediate consequences of HDN?

a)

Anemia and a positive DAT

b)

Hyperbilirubinemia and anemia

c)

Hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice

d)

Hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus

75.

Which of the following is not true of an exchange transfusion when an infant is suffering from HDN?

a)

Removes unconjugated bilirubin

b)

Reduces the amount of incompatible antibody in the baby's circulation

c)

Removes antibody-coated red blood cells

d)

Provides red blood cells of the baby's type

76.

Donors who have received blood or blood products within 12 months of when they desire to donate are deferred to protect the recipient because the

a)

Blood could have transmitted hepatitis (HBVorHCV) or HIV

b)

Blood may have two cell populations

c)

Donor may not be able to tolerate the blood loss

d)

Donor red cell hemoglobin level may be too low

77.

Which of the following conditions would contraindicate autologous pre-surgical donation?

a)

Weight of 100 pounds

b)

Age of 14 years

c)

Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL

d)

Mild bacteremia

78.

Which of the following viruses resides exclusively in leukocytes?

a)

CMV

b)

HIV

c)

HBV

d)

HCV

79.

Which of the following antibodies would require additional testing in order to be ruled out?

a)

Anti-E, -K, -Kpa, -Jsa, -Jkb

b)

Anti-E, -S, -Leb, -K, -Kpa, -Fya

c)

Anti-E, -S, -Lea, -K, -Kpa, -Jsa, -Fya, -Jka

d)

Anti-E, -Lea, -K, -Kpa, -Jsa, -Fyb, -Jka, -Jkb

80.

Which of the following antibodies does not match the others in terms of optimal reactive temperature?

a)

Anti-Fya

b)

Anti-Jkb

c)

Anti-N

d)

Anti-U

81.

Which set of antibodies could you possibly find in a patient with no history of transfusion or pregnancy?

a)

Anti-I, anti-s, anti-P1

b)

Anti-Leb, anti-A1 anti-D

c)

Anti-M, anti-c, anti-B

d)

Anti-P1 anti-Lea, anti-I

82.

Lymphocytotoxicity testing can be used to detect the presence of antibodies to

a)

Wra andWrb

b)

HLA antigens

c)

Bga,Bgb,and Bgc

d)

JMH antigen

83.

Which of the following is generally detected at the antiglobulin phase of testing?

a)

Anti-Jka

b)

Anti-M

c)

Anti-P1

d)

Anti-I

84.

Some antigens that are primarily found on white blood cells can occur on erythrocytes. Which of the following are the red blood cell equivalents of human leukocyte antigens (HLAs)?

a)

Lea, Leb

b)

Bga, Bgb, Bgc

c)

Kpa, Kpb, Kpc

d)

Doa,Dob

85.

An antigen-antibody reaction alone does not cause hemolysis. Which of the following is required for red blood cell lysis

a)

Albumin

b)

Complement

c)

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)

d)

Antihuman globulin (AHG)

86.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the Xga blood group system?

a)

The Xga antigen has a higher frequency in women than in men

b)

The Xga antigen has a higher frequency in men than in women

c)

The Xga antigen is enhanced by enzymes

d)

Anti-Xga is usually a saline-reacting antibody.

87.

Which of the following is a characteristic of Kidd system antibodies?

a)

Usually IgM antibodies

b)

Corresponding antigens are destroyed by enzymes

c)

Usually strong and stable during storage

d)

Often implicated in delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions

88.

Which of the following statements is not true of anti-Fya and anti-Fyb?

a)

Are clinically significant

b)

React well with enzyme-treated panel cells

c)

Cause hemolytic transfusion reactions

d)

Cause a generally mild hemolytic disease of the newborn

89.

Which of the following antibodies can be neutralized with pooled human plasma?

a)

Anti-Hy and anti-Ge: 1

b)

Anti-Cha and anti-Rga

c)

Anti-Coa and anti-Cob

d)

Anti-Doa and anti-Jsb

90.

Which of the following statements is not true about anti-U?

a)

Is clinically significant

b)

Is only found in black individuals

c)

Only occurs in S-s- individuals

d)

Only occurs in Fy(a-b-) individuals

91.

A group A, D-negative obstetric patient with anti-D (titer 256) is carrying a fetus who needs an intrauterine transfusion. Which of the following units should be chosen?

a)

Group A, D-negative RBC

b)

Group A, D-negative whole blood

c)

Group O, D-negative RBC

d)

Group O, D-negative whole blood

92.

Which of the following has been associated with causing severe immediate HTRs?

a)

Anti-JMH

b)

Anti-Lub

c)

Anti-Vel

d)

Anti-Sda

93.

Which of the following antibodies would more likely be found in a black patient?

a)

Anti-Cra

b)

Anti-Ata

c)

Anti-Hy

d)

All of the given options

94.

Which of the following antigens is not in a blood group system?

a)

Doa

b)

Vel

c)

JMH

d)

Kx

95.

A weakly reactive antibody with a titer of 128 is neutralized by plasma. Which of the following could be the specificity?

a)

Anti-JMH

b)

Anti-Ch

c)

Anti-Kna

d)

Anti-Kpa

96.

For the following items (95-100), select the answer that most closely corresponds to the description.

96. Found predominantly in whites

97.Associated with weak Kell system antigenic expression

98. Associated with the presence of chronic granulomatous disease

99. Linked with MN

100. A rare allele of M and N


A. McLeod phenotype

B. MS

C. Kpa

D. Ss

(a)  

97.

Identify the blood component/s that is appropriate given the following purpose/indication:

101. To prevent graft-vs-host-disease, for newborns and patients with marrow transplant.

102. Treatment of patients with von Willebrand’s disease

103. To prolong time between transfusions in chronically transfusion-dependent patients

104. Prevention of non-hemolytic febrile transfusion reactions

105. Symptomatic anemia on patients with severe allergic or anaphylactic conditions.

106. Symptomatic anemia with large volume deficit

107. Prevents febrile transfusion reaction caused by antibodies against WBC’s, to reduce CMV transmission

108. To replace plasma proteins and all coagulation factors in in patient who are bleeding and with multiple coagulation factor deficiency

109. Hemophilia A

110. Hemophilia B

(a)  

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