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Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

  Organism that have a cell wall containing large amounts of lipid material belong to the genus:

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Mycobacterium

c)

Mycoplasma

d)

Leptospira

2.

A fastidious gram-negative bacillus was isolated from a case of periodontal disease, which upon dark-field examination was noted to have a gliding motility. The most likely identification of this etiologic agent would be:

a)

  Capnocytophaga

b)

Kingella

c)

Plesiomonas

d)

Chromobacterium

3.

Growth in a 48-hour gelatin stab culture that shows lateral filamentous growth resembling a test tube brush. This is mostly characteristic of which organism?

a)

Streptobacillus moniliformis

b)

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

c)

Legionella pneumophila

d)

Gardnerella vaginalis

4.

Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of :

a)

     Y.enterocolitica

b)

Y. pestis

c)

C. perfringens

d)

C. difficile

5.

Which single test best separates Klebsiella pneumoniae?

a)

Urease

b)

Lactose

c)

Citrate

d)

Indole

6.

Which of the following test would be appropriate in the diagnosis of mycobacterial infection?

a)

Anton test

b)

Frei test

c)

Elek test

d)

PPD test

7.

Which spore type and location is found on Clostridium tetani?

a)

Round,subterminal spores

b)

Oval, terminal spores

c)

Oval,subterminal spores

d)

Round, terminal spores

8.

A gram-negative bacillus was recovered from the urine of a child with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. The organism was oxidase negative, lactose negative, urease positive, and motile. The most likely identification of this agent would be:

a)

Proteus mirabilis

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

Klebsiella pneumonia

9.

Haemophilus influenzae biogroup aegypticus, with cases of acute conjunctivitis, is characterized by all of the following reactions except:

a)

indole negative

b)

X factor negative

c)

Ornithine negative

d)

V factor positive

10.

Which of the following disease process involves erythrogenic toxin?

a)

Syphilis

b)

Leprosy

c)

Cutaneous anthrax

d)

Scarlet fever

11.

Special culture medium for isolation and identification of Cryptococcus neoformans:

a)

Czapek-Dox agar

b)

SDA with cycloheximide

c)

Niger seed agar

d)

Cornmeal agar-Tween 80

12.

Thick-walled structure containing spores that is a characteristic feature of Coccidiodes immitis:

a)

Cleistothecium

b)

Perithecium

c)

Vesicle

d)

Spherule

13.

The ELEK Test is for the detection of :

a)

Corynebacterium diphteria toxin, in vivo

b)

Corynebacterium diphteria toxin, in vitro

c)

Clostridium botulinum toxin, in vivo

d)

Clostridium botulinum toxin, in vitro

14.

A mucoid, lactose positive colony type on MacConkey Agar that is indole-negative and citrate positive is

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Klebsiella pneumonia

c)

Proteus vulgaris

d)

Serratia marcescens

15.

The smallest amount of test anti-microbial that will inhibit visible growth of microbe is the definition of

a)

Minimal antimicrobial concentration

b)

Minimal inhibitory concentration

c)

Minimal bactericidal concentration

d)

Sensitivity test concentration

16.

BHIB stands for:

a)

Brain Heart Infusion Broth

b)

Brain Heart Infusion Brew

c)

Brain Heart Infusion Bro

d)

Bacillus, Haemophillus, and Intestinal Bacili

17.

Panton-Valentine Leukocidin is also known as ________

a)

Alpha hemolysin

b)

Beta hemolysin

c)

Gamma hemolysin

d)

Delta hemolysin

18.

Which among the following exotoxins of S. aureus is capable of necrotizing tissue?

a)

Leucocidin

b)

Hyalurinidase

c)

Proteolysin

d)

Lipase

19.

Which among the following is a function of Protein A present in the cell wall of Staphylococcus aureus?

a)

It causes inhibition of phagocytosis by competing with opsonins

b)

It causes Staphylococcal food poisoning

c)

It causes TSS

d)

It causes inhibition of phagocytosis by inhibiting chemotaxis

20.

The number 1 cause of food poisoning in the US is ________.

a)

S.aureus

b)

B. cereus

c)

S.agalactiae

d)

B. anthracis

21.

Population of the T lymphocytes in the peripheral blood according to Henry's Book.

a)

60-70%

b)

10-20%

c)

10-15%

d)

40-45%

22.

Macrophage found in the liver.

a)

Basophil

b)

Dendritic cells

c)

Langerhans cells

d)

Kuppfer cells

23.

Hybrodomas are formed from _______.

a)

B cells

b)

T cells

c)

Neutrophil

24.

The passage of blood, or any of its formed elements, through the intact walls of blood vessels.

a)

Chemotaxis

b)

Diapedesis

c)

Phagocytosis

25.

Substances added to vaccine to enhance immune response.

a)

Pro-inflammatory

b)

Cytokines

c)

Adjuvants

d)

Pokeweed mitogen

26.

A mitogen that activates B and T cells

a)

Concanavalin A

b)

Lipopolysaccharide

c)

Pokeweed mitogen

27.

Test that perform paternity testing.

a)

HLA testing

b)

RT-PCR Testing

c)

Blood typing

d)

Antibody testing

28.

_______ is influenced by foreignness, molecular size, chemical complexity, & route, dosage & timing.

a)

Immunogenicity

b)

Naturally occuring antibodies

c)

Syngeneic

29.

Ferrata cells (Tissue neutrophils) in exudates are indicative of ?

a)

Chronic inflammation

b)

Acute lymphocytic leukemia

c)

Acute inflammation

30.

Induces fever, mediator of acute phase response. (Stevens Book)

a)

IL-9

b)

IL-2

c)

IL-1

d)

IL-8

31.

Most common immunodeficiency.

a)

Selective IgA deficiency

b)

Severe combined immunodeficiency

c)

Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

d)

Ataxia-Telangecsia

32.

Maximum precipitation occurs.

a)

Zone of equivalence

b)

Postzone phenomena

c)

Prozone phenomena

33.

In Red Cell Antigen-Antibody Reactions. Large agglutinate, clear background (75 % agglutination).

a)

1+

b)

2+

c)

3+

d)

4+

34.

According to Mahon's Book, there are three steps in a polymerase chain reaction. What is the second step that anneals primers to target DNA?

a)

Denaturation

b)

Primer Annealing

c)

Primer extension

35.

What is the color of the fluorescein. (Book of Turgeon)

a)

Orange

b)

Green

c)

Yellow

36.

Blotting technique for detection of DNA.

a)

Southern Blot

b)

Western Blot

c)

Northern Blot

37.

Clinically significant Result for Candida spp. in Latex particle agglutination.

a)

>1:8

b)

>1:32

c)

>1:38

38.

What is the ISBT No. of Indian Blood Group.

a)

021

b)

023

c)

024

39.

Nature of ABO Antibodies

a)

IgG, IgM, IgA

b)

IgG, IgM, IgD

c)

IgG, IgA

d)

IgG, IgM

40.

The H antigens are present on RBC of what blood type?

a)

A,B & AB

b)

A, B, O

c)

A, B , AB, O

d)

A & O

41.

Yellow, cheesy, crumbly material seen in tuberculosis.

a)

Caseous necrosis

b)

Gangrenous necrosis

c)

Liquefactive necrosis

42.

Autopsy technique by Carl von Rokitansky.

a)

In-Situ dissection

b)

Anton Ghon

c)

Maurice Letulle

43.

"-itis" means?

a)

necrosis

b)

cyst

c)

inflammation

44.

A laboratory worker who assists in the performance of autopsies and maintenance of morgues.

a)

Diener

b)

Prosector

c)

Coroner

45.

Most commonly used metallic fixatives. Recommended for renal biopsies.

a)

mercuric chloride

b)

glutaraldehyde

c)

acrolein

d)

formol-calcium

46.

Reference laboratory for Infectious disease , Microbiology.

a)

Research Institute for Tropical Medicine

b)

Philippine Heart Center

c)

East Avenue Medical Center

d)

San Lazaro Hospital

47.

Clinical laboratory should be inspected every after, ______.

a)

1 year

b)

3 years

c)

2 years

48.

STAT means?

a)

ASAP

b)

right away

c)

statim

d)

faster

49.

Patient sample yielded abnormally high result. What will you do?

a)

Do not repeat and release the result.

b)

Rerun the test.

c)

Report the result.

d)

Reject specimen.

50.

Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998.

a)

RA 11166

b)

RA 8504

c)

RA 9482

d)

RA 10912