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CYCLE 2: BLOOD BANKING & CLINICAL CHEMISTRY

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Pipette with a bulb close to the delivery tip and is used for viscous fluids (blood)

a)

Ostwald-Folin

b)

Volumetric pipette

c)

Mohr pipette

2.

Etched ring in the mouth the pipette:

a)

Blow out

b)

Blow in

3.

When making solutions

a)

percent solution can be made from a volumetric solution

b)

volumetric solution can be made from a percent solution

c)

a triple beam balance and cylinder is necessary in preparing any type of solution

d)

Only an analytical balance can be used in solution preparation.

4.

A solution in which the molecules of solute and solution are in equilibrium with excess undissolved molecules is referred to as:

a)

Saturated

b)

Supersaturated

c)

Unsaturated

5.

C-peptide is formed during the conversion of proinsulin to insulin. The amount of circulating C-peptide provides reliable indicator of pancreatic and insulin secretion it is increased in:

a)

Insulinoma

b)

Type 2 DM

c)

Ingestion of hypoglycemic drug

d)

Type 1 DM

6.

CSF glucose concentration is approx. ______ of plasma concentration.

a)

65-85%

b)

40-70%

c)

50-65%

7.

Every 1% increase in HbA1c value causes a change in the plasma glucose by

a)

35 mg/dL

b)

25 mg/dL

c)

15 mg/dL

8.

Advantage of POCT

a)

Expense

b)

Speed

c)

Lack of Limitations

d)

Ease of training

9.

Which glucose method can employ a colorographic oxygen electrode?

a)

Glucose oxidase

b)

Hexokinase

c)

Glucose dehydrogenase

d)

O-toluidine

10.

Hyperglycemic hormone released by the adrenal medulla.

a)

Cortisol

b)

Growth Hormone

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Thyroxine

11.

TRUE of brittle diabeter (Type 1 DM/IDDM)

I. Ketosis prone diabetes

II. Decreased or undetectable C-peptide

III. Receptor deficient diabetes

IV. Non-insulin dependent diabetes

a)

Both III and IV

b)

Both I and II

c)

I only

d)

None of the choices

12.

Which is true regarding insulin.

a)

Promotes glycogenesis.

b)

Promotes glycogen

c)

Promotes glycolysis

13.

Short term glucose control

a)

Fructosamine (glycosylated/glycated albumin)

b)

HbA1c (glycosylated/glycated haemoglobin

14.

Long term glucose control

a)

Fructosamine (glycosylated/glycated albumin)

b)

HbA1c (glycosylated/glycated haemoglobin

15.

Specific and reference method for glucose

a)

Glucose oxidase

b)

Hexokinase

c)

Glucose dehydrogenase

d)

O-toluidine

16.

Solution of Calcium chloride (CaCl) conatins 3 g per 100 mL.

a)

3%

b)

15%

c)

55%

d)

90%

17.

Which of the ff. is TRUE of glucose

a)

Reabsorbed by DCT (distal convoluted tubule)

b)

Renal threshold 200-240 mg/dL

c)

Glucose metabolism generates pyruvic acid, acetyl coenzyme A, and lactic acid as intermediate products

18.

Purpose of immediate spin crossmatch

a)

Detect cold reacting unexpected antibody

b)

Ensure survival of transfused RBCs

c)

Meet computer crossmatch requirements

d)

ABO compatibility

19.

What do Coomb’s Control cells (check cells) consist of?

a)

Type O-positive cells coated with Anti-D

b)

Type O-negative cells coated with Anti-D

c)

Type O+ positive cells coated with Anti-D

d)

Type O+ negative cells coated with Anti-D

20.

Donor: Anti-A = 0 , Anti-B = 0 – (Type O)

Patient: A-cells= 0, B-cells= 0 – (Type AB)

If crossmatched what happens.

a)

Major crossmatch is compatible/ Minor crossmatch is incompatible

b)

Major crossmatch is incompatible/ Minor crossmatch is incompatible

c)

Major crossmatch is compatible/ Minor crossmatch is compatible

d)

Major crossmatch is incompatible/ Minor crossmatch is compatible

21.

Anti-A= 0 Anti-B= 4+

A cells= 0 B cells= 0

a)

Elderly patient

b)

Juvenile patient

c)

Adult Patient

22.

An Indirect Antiglobulin Test, DROPS (Major crossmatch), is done. The result was negative. Check cells were added but still no agglutination. What to do?

a)

Check the AHG reagent expiration date.

b)

Stop the procedure

c)

Report as incomaptible

23.

Which of the ff. will NOT correlate with positive DAT.

a)

A patient transfused with blood

b)

A patient who has recently received a vaccine against hepatitis B

c)

An Rh positive baby born by Rh mother

d)

Patient with SLE

24.

2+ gel technology

a)

Agglutination throughout the gel column

b)

No Agglutination throughout the gel column

25.

What does it mean if no agglutination occurs during the AHG phase when adding check cells

a)

The antiglobulin reagent was working properly

b)

Cells were not washed thoroughly

c)

Control cells were contaminated

d)

Test is valid

26.

Type AB recipient is crossmatched with type O blood.

a)

Major crossmatch is compatible/ Minor crossmatch is incompatible

b)

Major crossmatch is incompatible/ Minor crossmatch is incompatible

c)

Major crossmatch is compatible/ Minor crossmatch is compatible

d)

Major crossmatch is incompatible/ Minor crossmatch is compatible

27.

What incompatibilities are not detected in the Antiglobulin phase of the crossmatch

I. IgM alloantibodies in the recipient serum

II. ABO incompatibilities

III. IgG alloantibodies in the recipient serum

IV. Room temp incompatibilities

a)

I,II,III

b)

I,II,IV

c)

III only

d)

None of the choices

28.

Who discovered ABO

a)

Alfred Nobel George E. Smith

b)

Karl Landsteiner

c)

Hans Gram

29.

Source of anti-B lectin

a)

Dolichos biflorus

b)

Bandeiraea simplicifolia

c)

Ulex europaeus

30.

Blood preservatives provides energy or glucose to RBC. A substrate of ATP.

a)

Dextrose

b)

Mannitol

c)

Glycogen

d)

Sodium Citrate

31.

Blood is considered a drug

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

32.

Which coincides with ABO blood grouping.

A cells=0

B cells=+

a)

Group A

b)

Group B

33.

Major Advantage of Gel Column Technology

a)

Standardization

b)

Neutralization

c)

Identification

d)

Purification

34.

Purpose of AHG reagent

a)

To agglutinate small antigen

b)

To agglutinate big or large antigen

c)

To agglutinate small antibodies

d)

To agglutinate large antibodies

35.

Blood type A patient

Anti-A=0 Anti-B=+

A cells=0 B cells=0

a)

Group 1 discrepancy

b)

Group 2 discrepancy

36.

RBC lifespan

a)

120 days

b)

100 days

c)

10 days

d)

7-12 days

37.

A. TC pipet will dispense the volume indicated

B. TD pipet holds or contains a particular volume, but does not dispense the particular volume

Which of the following are false?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

Both statement are FALSE

d)

None

38.

I. Blowout Pipet has a continuous etched ring/two small close, continuous rings located at the top of the pipet

II. Last drop of liquid should be expelled into the receiving vessel when using a self-draining pipet

III. Blowout pipet: User allows content to be drained by gravity

Which is true?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

All of the choices

39.

The only pipet which the tip should remain in contact with the side of the vessel for several seconds after the liquid has been drained

a)

Mohr

b)

Serological

c)

Volumetric

d)

Ostwald-folin

40.

Pipet for biological fluids with viscosity greater than water

a)

Mohr

b)

Serological

c)

Volumetric

d)

Ostwald-folin

41.

Pipet with greatest degree of accuracy. Should be used when diluting standards

a)

Mohr

b)

Serological

c)

Volumetric

d)

Ostwald-folin

42.

Designed to transfer a fixed amount/single volume of liquid

a)

Mohr

b)

Serological

c)

Volumetric

d)

Ostwald-folin

43.

A. TC pipet dispensed indicated volume

B. TD pipet holds a particular volume but does not dispense particular volume.

a)

Both are correct

b)

Both are incorrect

c)

Statement A is Correct, Statement B is Incorrect

d)

Statement A is Correct, Statement B is Incorrect

44.

Blowout pipet = Drain contents of pipet by gravity

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

45.

Aspiration angle

a)

Vertical

b)

Diagonal

46.

Dispensing angle

a)

Diagonal

b)

Vertical

47.

Transfer pipets, except:

a. Volumetric

b. Pasteur

c. Ostwald-Folin

a)

NOTA

b)

Pasteur

c)

Volumetric

d)

Ostwald-folin

48.

A Proper ratio of plasma to red cells is important for accuracy in antigen-antibody reaction

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

49.

Preferred specimen for Red Cell Suspension:

a)

Lavender top only

b)

Red top only

50.

A. Hemolysis of RBCs can cause false results

B. Too heavy or too light cell suspension can cause false positive/negative

a)

Both are correct

b)

Both are incorrect

c)

Statement A is Correct, Statement B is Incorrect

d)

Statement A is Correct, Statement B is Incorrect

51.

Cells are washed using:

a. distilled water

b. isotonic saline

c. 0.9 NaCL

a)

A

b)

B

c)

Both B and C

d)

All of the Choices

52.

Fill the tube ___full using ___when preparing RBC suspension

a)

¾, NSS

b)

2/4, NSS

53.

Centrifuge minutes for RBC suspension

a)

60 seconds

b)

30 seconds

c)

2 minutes

d)

15 seconds

54.

In preparing RBC suspension, you are required to wash completely for 3-5 times with NSS to remove traces of plasma

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

55.

A procedure to test compatibility of donor red cells and patient serum [DROPS]

a)

Major crossmatching

b)

Minor crossmatching

56.

Also known as the incubation at 38°C is Thermophase

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

57.

Agglutination at high protein phase

a)

Stop the procedure

b)

Continue the procedure

58.

Clinically significant antibodies are detected at what phase

a)

AHG phase

b)

Thermophase

c)

Immediate spin

59.

Clinically significant antibodies:

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

60.

Amount of patient serum added for crossmatching

a)

2 drops

b)

1 drop

c)

4 drops

61.

Other term for Immediate spin phase

a)

room temperature

b)

body temperature

62.

Most important blood group for transfusion practice

a)

ABO

b)

Rh

c)

Kell

d)

Duffy

63.

Correct frequency of ABO blood groups:

a)

O > A > B > AB

b)

O < A < B < AB

64.

ABO Antibodies include:

a)

Anti A

b)

Anti B

c)

Anti AB

d)

Anti H

65.

Anti-A = 4+

Anti-B= 2+

A cells= 0

B cells= 4+

a)

Acquired B Phenomenon

b)

Acquired A Phenomenon

66.

Positive autocontrol in antibody screening

a)

presence of autoantibodies

b)

presence of antibodies

67.

Grading of crossmatching:

several large agglutinates, clear background

a)

3+

b)

2+

c)

1+

d)

4+

68.

Crossmatching: Type B patient and Type O donor.

Which one will be incompatible?

a)

Major crossmatching

b)

Minor crossmatching

69.

Using known sources of anti-sera to detect antigen

a)

Forward typing

b)

Reverse typing

70.

Most frequent test performed in the blood bank:

a)

Blood typing

b)

Crossmatching

c)

Blood transfusion

71.

A. individuals normally produce antibodies against antigens absent from their RBCs

B. All other defined blood groups do not regularly have naturally occurring antibodies to antigens lacking from their RBCs

a)

Both are correct

b)

Both are incorrect

c)

Statement A is Correct, Statement B is Incorrect

d)

Statement A is Correct, Statement B is Incorrect

72.

Reagents used in reverse typing, except:

A. Human blood

B. 3-5% RBC suspension

a)

A

b)

B

c)

All of the Choices

d)

None of the choices

73.

What is the most serious, potentially life-threatening reaction?

a)

TACO

b)

TRALI

c)

Hemolytic

74.

Which does not require the transfusion to stop and investigation to be performed?

a)

Urticarial

b)

Hemolysis

c)

Transfusion Reaction

d)

TACO

75.

Hemolytic transfusion reaction

a)

mmune destruction of donor cells by the recipient antibodies

b)

mmune destruction of donor cells by the recipient antigens

76.

Component that carries the highest risk of bacterial contamination

a)

Platelets

b)

RBC

c)

WBC

77.

Most common transmitted viral infection

a)

Hepatitis C

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Syphillis

d)

HIV

78.

SG of copper sulfate solution

a)

1.053

b)

1.062

79.

Minimum Hb for autologous donors

a)

11 g/dL

b)

10 g/dL

80.

Improves the survival of RBCs

a)

Adenine

b)

Citric acid

c)

Dextrose/Glucose

d)

Phosphate buffer

81.

prevents caramelization

a)

Adenine

b)

Citric acid

c)

Dextrose/Glucose

d)

Phosphate buffer

82.

substrate for ATP

a)

Adenine

b)

Citric acid

c)

Dextrose/Glucose

d)

Phosphate buffer

83.

maintains pH during storage

a)

Adenine

b)

Citric acid

c)

Dextrose/Glucose

d)

Phosphate buffer

84.

Maximum allowable storage time for RBCs defind by recovery of ___% RBCs in___hours

a)

70% ,24 hours

b)

60% ,24 hours

c)

70% ,48 hours

85.

RBC solution that acts as stabilizing agent

a)

Mannitol

b)

Adenine

c)

Glucose

d)

Citric Acid

86.

Decreased during RBC storage, except:

a)

plasma potassium

b)

pH

c)

ATP

d)

2,3-DPG

87.

Proper procedure for preparation of platelets from whole blood

a)

light spin then hard spin

b)

hard spin then light spin

88.

Granulocyte: life-threatening systemic infections not controlled by antibiotics

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

89.

Blood processing must occur within

a)

6-8 hours

b)

24 hours

90.

Minimum hemoglobin for female donor

a)

>12.5 g/dL

b)

>12.5 mg/dL

c)

<12.5 g/dL

d)

<12.5 mg/dL

91.

Blood donor requirements except:

a. Identification card

b. 2 Tubes = used for screening

c. Donor information

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

None of the choices

92.

Permanent deferral except:

a)

Sexual contact with an individual with viral hepatitis

b)

Babesiosis

c)

Chaga’s disease/ American trypanosomiasis

d)

Hepatitis after 11th birthday

93.

Amount of anticoagulant in the blood bag

a)

63 mL

b)

60 mL

94.

Blood should be processed within

a)

6-8 hours

b)

24 hours

95.

For TA-GVHD, but not febrile transfusion reaction

a)

Irradiated components

b)

Irradicated components