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MATERNAL AND CHILD NURSING reviewer

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In assessing a new mother’s response to her son’s birth on the first postpartum day, which behavior does the nurse expect to find present?

a)

Disinterest in her own body function

b)

Talkativeness and dependency

c)

Interest in learning to care for the baby.

d)

Autonomy and independence

2.

During the vaginal examination, the nurse palpates the fetal head and a large diamond-shaped fontanelle. The nurse documents that the fetal presentation is;

a)

Transverse

b)

Brow

c)

Vertex

d)

Face

3.

On performing Leopold's maneuvers on a multiparous client in early labor, the nurse finds no fetal parts in the fundus or above the symphysis. The fetal head is palpated in the right mid-quadrant. The nurse notifies the admitting physician and anticipates;

a)

An internal version

b)

Prolonged labor

c)

An external version

d)

A cesarean delivery

4.

Which of the following is NOT a signs and symptoms of hyperemesis gravidarum?

a)

weight loss

b)

polyuria

c)

fever and increased pulse rate

d)

dry skin and lacks turgor

5.

This kind of uterine dysfunction denotes sluggishness of contraction. This usually occurs during the latent phase of labor. The uterus is flaccid and weak in contraction.

a)

hypertonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

prolonged labor

d)

pathologic bandles ring

6.

Which of the following is a sign of MagS04 toxicity?

a)

loss of reflexes

b)

kneejerk present

c)

respiratory rate of 16/min

d)

urine output >100ml/4 hrs

7.

The most common cause of Dystocia of the passage is known as:

a)

Hypotonic contraction of the uterus

b)

Failure of the head to descend

c)

Persistent OP position of the head

d)

Cephalopelvic disproportion

8.

Which of the following management are common in transverse lie presentation?

a)

conduplication corpore

b)

external podalic version

c)

cesarean section

d)

internal podalic version

9.

You also attend to another young diabetic parishioner-mother who is in her first trimester of pregnancy. As her pregnancy continues, what changes in her medication needs should you also anticipate?

a)

the variable pattern of insulin absorption throughout the pregnancy requires constant close adjustments

b)

a steady increase in insulin requirement

c)

oral hypoglycemic agents will be given several times a day

d)

a decrease in the need of short acting insulin

10.

Which of the following maneuver is employed during breech presentation to deliver the fetal head?

a)

Mauriceus-Smellie Veit

b)

Pinard

c)

Prague

d)

Bracht

11.

The pregnant client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following maternal effects?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Jaundice

d)

Uterine hyperstimulation

12.

During discharge teaching for a patient who had a hydatidiform mole the nurse must include which of the following?

a)

a hysterectomy will be required in the future

b)

avoid taking birth control pills

c)

avoid pregnancy for 1 year

d)

no specific restrictions are indicated

13.

A client’s amniotic fluid is greenish-tinged. The fetal presentation is vertex. Fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine activity have remained within normal limits. At the time of delivery, the nurse should anticipate the need for:

a)

Emergency cesarean setup

b)

A transport isolette

c)

An infant laryngoscope and suction catheter

d)

Forceps

14.

Which of the following actions should the Nurse must consider, while patient receiving oxytocin in induce labor?

a)

labor pain

b)

maternal exhaustion

c)

prolapse of the umbilical cord

d)

titanic contraction of the uterus

15.

A 35 y.o. G3P2 in her 38 weeks pregnancy presents to Emergency Room with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding that started 2 hours ago. The bleeding has now stopped. Her vitals are stable. Past medical history is significant for 2 cesarean section. Which of the following is contraindicated in the acute management of this patients?

a)

Internal Examination

b)

IV access

c)

Cesarean Section

d)

Ultrasound

16.

Which of the following is a complication of severe preeclampsia with diminished platelet count?

a)

Congestive heart failure

b)

Pulmonary edema

c)

HELLP syndrome

d)

Abruptio Placenta

17.

You are the nurse on duty in RHU. You reviews the history of one client. You note that the client has registered weight loss, experiencing for one month on and off fever 38C, more than one month on and off LBM. Which of the following would you suspect?

a)

strong likelihood of HIV infection

b)

malaria

c)

lower urinary tract infection

d)

Abruptio Placenta

18.

Which of the following management of PROM may include induction of labor?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Analgesic

c)

Insulin

d)

Corticosteroids

19.

In the hospital setting, the nursing action that best promotes the attachment process between the mother and the baby is:

a)

Arranging staffing so that only one nurse is assigned to care for the client and her baby.

b)

Allowing the client extra visiting privileges in the nursery

c)

Teaching the client to breastfeed the baby.

d)

Encouraging the client to room in with her infant on a 24-hour basis

20.

The amniotic fluid is a significant passenger in labor. The following are TRUE about amniotic fluid, EXCEPT?

a)

It protects the fetus from bacterial invasion in pregnancy

b)

It protects the placenta and umbilical cord from pressure of the uterine contractions

c)

Protects the fetus from any trauma

d)

It aids in cervical effacement and dilatation

21.

A registered Nurse attended seminar on Obstetrical Emergencies. Which of the following signs and symptoms are identified to be alert signs arise needed to be referred immediately?

a)

fainting, history of diabetes

b)

tender uterus, cramping/lower abdominal pain

c)

BP= 130/100 mmHg, history of preeclampsia severe

d)

tender, mass, uterus equivalent to age gestation

22.

The client refused sedation ordered by the physician for hypertonic contractions and prolonged latent-phase labor for fear that her labor will stop. The nurse may help by explaining;

a)

If contractions continue without cervical effacement and dilation, the fetus is at risk for hypoxia

b)

If the woman is experiencing true labor, contractions will not stop even with sedation

c)

Sedation helps to provide needed rest and allow time for the uterine contractions become coordinated so that labor is progressive

d)

Sedation will stop contractions that are uncoordinated and provide more time to determine if a cesarean delivery is needed

23.

The nurse monitors a client during a vaginal delivery of a breech infant for which of the following as the greatest risk?

a)

Intracranial hemorrhage

b)

Umbilical cord prolapse

c)

Fracture of the clavicle

d)

Meconium aspiration

24.

During assessment in labor, you check the FHR to be below 120 /min. What should the Nurse perform FIRST?

a)

Place the woman on her left side and give 02 at 4-6 L/min and refer

b)

Position the mother and administer 1-3 L per min oxygen

c)

Administer continuous 02 inhalation at 4-6 L/min

d)

Immediately transfer the mother to the hospital

25.

The following are refer to an early bleeding complications, EXCEPT:

a)

Placenta previa

b)

Ectopic Pregnancy

c)

Abortion

d)

Molar pregnancy

26.

in addition to routine assessment and care, nursing care of the client who is receiving terbutaline to prevent premature labor should include assessing;

a)

Fetal heart tones every 30minutes

b)

Deep tendon reflexes every 4 hours

c)

Breath sounds every 4 hours

d)

Oral temperature every 2 hours

27.

At the Labor room, you notice that one of your client experiencing prolonged labor. Upon assessment, the FHT ranges 170bpm and sometimes 180bpm and you conclude that it is fetal distress. As a Nurse what will you do first?

a)

Take the BP of the mother

b)

Apply oxygen cannula

c)

position the mother on left lateral

d)

refer to physician

28.

A client is admitted in early active labor at 38 weeks gestation. When assessing the fetal heart tone, the midwife locates the heart sounds above the client’s umbilicus at midline. The midwife would suspect that the fetus is lying which of the following positions?

a)

Cephalic

b)

Face

c)

Frank Breech

d)

Transverse

29.

Because postpartum depression occurs in 8% to 26% of post partal women, the prenatal nurse assesses clients for risk factors for postpartum depression during the prenatal period. Which of the following clients would the nurse consider to be at risk for postpartum depression?

a)

A client who is a primigravida with documented ambivalence about her pregnancy in the first trimester

b)

A client who has previously had postpartum blues.

c)

A client who is primipara with a history of depression and lack of supportive relationship.

d)

A client who is unmarried primipara with family support

30.

In the 4th stage of labor, the critical period for the mother is the first 2 hours after delivery. During this period, observations are done every 15 minutes to check on all of these EXCEPT:

a)

Hematomas and bleeding

b)

Condition of the breasts and bowels

c)

Uterine firmness and consistency

d)

Vital signs

31.

The end referral facility in the Service Delivery Network provides which of the following functions?

a)

Provision of BT and C/s

b)

Assisting in NSD

c)

Attending to emergency breech deliveries

d)

Administration of life saving drugs

32.

When the pregnant woman complaints at the ER of sudden, knife-like pain radiating to the shoulder, what should the nurse suspect?

a)

tetanic contraction of the uterus

b)

abruptio placenta

c)

ectopic pregnancy

d)

rupture uterus

33.

Which of the following is/are risk factors of pre-term labor?

a)

Maternal stress

b)

Uterine anomalies

c)

All of the above

d)

Multiple gestations

34.

Which of the following symptoms is considered the classic defining criterion of placenta previa?

a)

Unengaged presenting part

b)

Irregular heart beat

c)

Painless vaginal bleeding

d)

Uterine irritability

35.

Which of the following statements by the nurse is most therapeutic in talking with a client and her family following emergency cesarean birth?

a)

"Your baby was really in danger. I think he is doing better now"

b)

"Im sorry that you couldn't have a normal delivery"

c)

"You did so well throughout the delivery, I'm sorry I didn't have more time to explain things"

d)

"I know you never expected this to happen. maybe thins will work out better next time"

36.

Which statement would indicate to the nurse that the laboring client needs further education?

a)

"Labor can be long and difficult sometimes"

b)

"My partner can help me stay relaxed and focused"

c)

"I should keep taking at least ice chips throughout labor"

d)

"Because this is my first labor, I will need an epidural"

37.

Which of the following conditions have the risk of cesarean section?

a)

both cephalic twins

b)

previous low C/S for previa

c)

premature breech footling

d)

occiput posterior presentation

38.

The client is receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate at 2gms/hr to stop premature labor. The nurse determines that the most important nursing assessments of this client include;

a)

Blood pressure, pulse, and uterine activity

b)

Intake and output, level of consciousness, and blood pressure

c)

Deep tendon reflexes, hourly urine output, and respiratory rate

d)

Intake and output, blood pressure, and reflexes

39.

The nurse discovers a loop of the umbilical cord protruding through the vagina when preparing to perform a vaginal examination. The most appropriate intervention is to;

a)

Call the physician immediately

b)

Place a moist, clean towel over the cord to prevent drying

c)

Perform a vaginal examination and apply upward digital pressure to the presenting part while having the mother assume a knee-chest position

d)

Immediately turn the client on her side and listen to the fetal heart rate

40.

This hormone is due released in response to stress during labor and delivery.

a)

Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin

b)

Insulin

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Estrogen

41.

A nulliparous client who has been in labor for almost 3 hours suddenly announces that the baby is coming. The nurse sees the infant crowning. Which of the following interventions should the nurse do immediately?

a)

Retrieve the precipitous delivery tray from the nursing station

b)

Telephone the physician using the bedside phone

c)

Quickly obtain sterile gloves and towel

d)

Ask the woman to pant while preparing to place gentle counter pressure in the infant's head as it is delivered

42.

A client who is 34 week's gestation has been having contractions every 10 minutes regularly. In addition to instructing her to lie down and rest while continuing to time contractions, the nurse should also tell her to;

a)

Refrain from eating or drinking anything

b)

Take slow, deep breaths with each contraction

c)

Go to the hospital if contractions continue for more than 1 hour

d)

Drink 3 - 4 cups of water

43.

When the ischial spines are prominent and the bispinous diameter measures less than 9cm, there is likely a contraction on which area?

a)

diagonal conjugate

b)

outlet

c)

inlet

d)

midplane

44.

Which of the following drugs are use together with general anesthesia to prevent uterine relaxation and repositioning postpartum uterine inversion?

a)

terbutaline

b)

oxytocin

c)

ritorine

d)

MgS04

45.

Which among the following best describes preterm labor?

a)

Labor That Begins After 15 Weeks Gestation And Before 37 Weeks Gestation.

b)

Labor That Begins After 28 Weeks Gestation And Before 40 Weeks Gestation.

c)

Labor That Begins 24 Weeks And Before 28weeks Gestation.

d)

Labor That Begins 20 Weeks Gestation And Before 37 Weeks Gestation.

46.

Which of these is NOT a measure used for fetal distress?

a)

Correct hypotension by infusing intravenous fluid

b)

Change maternal position from lying on her back to lying on her left side

c)

Give oxygen by inhalation

d)

Record the findings in the partograph and closely monitor the fetus and mother

47.

Which among pregnancy complication is BEST describe when the initial assessmet for a 35 year old G1P0 16 weeks AOG, BP- 160/100, and (+3) protein in urinalysis?

a)

Hyperemesis gravidarum

b)

H-mole

c)

Placenta Previa

d)

Preeclampsia

48.

The following are all maternal effects of severe preeclampsia/ eclampsia, EXCEPT:

a)

acute kidney failure

b)

HELLP syndrome

c)

intrauterine fetal death

d)

pulmonary edema

49.

The following are factors influencing the psyche of labor EXCEPT:

a)

Coping ability

b)

Preparation for childbirth

c)

Support systems

d)

Race

50.

A woman who is on her 37th week of pregnancy was admitted to the hospital for labor pains and 3 cms dilated at 3:00 pm. Suddenly she delivered her baby at 5:30 pm in her bed. This is a case of :

a)

precipitate delivery

b)

normal delivery

c)

breech delivery

d)

premature delivery