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Dr. ALCORN/GUPTA Exam 2 Remed. Course ENDO

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 6hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In DKA, the metabolic derangements result from the combination of absolute or relative insulin deficiency and in increase in counterregulatory hormones

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Drug Causes of Hyperglycemic Emergencies (Select all that apply)

a)

Corticosteroids

b)

Thiazide diuretics

c)

Sympathomimetic agents

d)

Pentamidine

e)

Antipsychotics,

Atypical antidepressants

3.

Evidence supports basal-bolus approach over other glycemic control methods

a)

Transition to SC long-acting insulin in addition to ultra-short-acting insulin (insulin glulisine/glargine and insulin aspart/lispro) after resolution of DKA

b)

NPH and insulin regular

4.

Dosing Insulin in DKA/HHS

a)

Begin insulin infusion at 0.14 units/kg/hr without a loading dose

b)

Begin insulin infusion at 1 units/kg/hr without a loading dose

5.

What is the preferred treatment for this patient?

a)

Begin subcutaneous basal-bolus insulin with NPH and regular insulin

b)

Begin insulin infusion with regular insulin at 0.14 units/kg/hr

c)

Begin insulin infusion with regular insulin at 0.1 units/kg/hr

d)

Give loading dose of 0.1 units/kg regular insulin then begin infusion at 0.14 units/kg/hr

6.

In the absence of glucose (Select all that apply)

a)

ATP is low, ADP is high

b)

Hyperpolarization

c)

K+ diffuses out through K+/ATP

d)

Depolarization

7.

In the presence of glucose (Select all that apply)

a)

via GLUT 2 transporters

b)

ATP raises

c)

ATP inhibits SUR1

d)

Voltage gated Ca++ channels activated

e)

decrease in K+ depolarization

8.

Promotes glucose intake in muscles and adipose cells

a)

GLUT 2

b)

GLUT 4

9.

Insulin (Select all that apply)

a)

activates growth promoting genes

b)

protein synthesis (muscle)

c)

Glycogen synthesis (liver)

d)

Fatty acid synthesis

e)

Inactivates Lipase

10.

Glucagon (Select all that apply)

a)

Catabolic

b)

synthesized by alpha cells

c)

released when plasma glucose levels are low

d)

stress and exercise also trigger its release

e)

Anabolic

11.

Glucagon (Select all that apply)

a)

Gluconeogenesis

b)

Glycogenolysis

c)

Lipolysis

d)

glycogen synthesis

12.

Which of the following enzymes inactivates GLP-1?

a)

Dipeptidyl peptidase (DPP4)

b)

Aromatase

13.

Incretins (Select all that apply)

a)

GLP-1

b)

DPP4

c)

GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide)

d)

Aromatase

14.

Juvenile onset or insulin dependent

a)

DM type 1

b)

DM type 2

15.

Adult onset or non-insulin dependent, insulin resistant

a)

DM type 1

b)

DM type 2

16.

Hyperglycemia (Select all that apply)

a)

Increased hepatic glucose production

b)

more absorption from kidneys

c)

decrease insulin secretion

d)

decrease incretin effect

e)

increase glucagon secretion

17.

DM type 2 major causes (Select all that apply)

a)

obesity

b)

sedentary lifestyle

c)

aging

d)

insulin resistance

18.

Chronic complications of Diabetes are due to consequences of activation which protein?

a)

Protein Kinase A

b)

Protein Kinase C

c)

Protein Kinase B

19.

Microvascular complications? Select all that apply

a)

Nephropathy

b)

Neuropathy

c)

Retinopathy

d)

Heart

20.

Macrovascular complications? Select all that apply

a)

Brain

b)

Heart

c)

Chronic Heart Disease

d)

Extremities

21.

Absence of insulin

a)

DKA

b)

DM type 2

22.

Diabetic Ketoacidosis (Select all that apply)

a)

Glucose greater than 250

b)

Elevated ketones

c)

pH less than 7.2

d)

Hyperventilation

e)

Bicarbonate less than 15

23.

Peptides Parenteral Drugs? Select all that apply

a)

Insulin products

b)

Amylin agonist (Pramlintide)

c)

GLP-1 Agonist

d)

DDP4- Inhibitors

24.

Non-Peptides (Oral) antidiabetic drugs? Select all that apply

a)

DDP4- Inhibitor

b)

Sulfonylureas

c)

Glinides

d)

TZDs

e)

SGLT-2, Biguanides, Alpha glucosidase Inhibitors

25.

Two peptide chain connected by disulfide linkages?

a)

Insulin products

b)

DDP-4 inhibitors

26.

In insulin products which of the following are important for activity? Select all that apply

a)

GLY 23

b)

PHE 24

c)

PHE 25

d)

TYR 26

e)

GLY 21

27.

GLY 23, PHE 24, PHE 25, TYR 26 are important in insulin products for activity.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

In insulin products what could be modified at A-chain?

a)

ASNA21

b)

nothing

29.

In insulin products Chain B, which one can be modified? Select all that apply

a)

28

b)

29

c)

30

d)

20

30.

Which ingredient helps in faster absorption in FIASP (Aspart) insulin?

a)

B3 (Niaciamide)

b)

B12 (Cyanocobalamin)

31.

Inhaled insulin

a)

Afrezza

b)

Toujeo

32.

Ultra rapid acting and recombinant insulin

a)

Afrezza

b)

Toujeo

33.

Glargine insulin modifications? Select all that apply

a)

A21- GLY

b)

B28- ASP

c)

B28- LYS

d)

B31,32- ARG

34.

Detemir insulin modifications?

a)

B29- LYS C-14 (fatty acid)

b)

B29- LYS C-16 (Fatty acid)

35.

Degludec insulin modifications?

a)

B29- LYS C-16 (Fatty acid)

b)

B29- LYS C-14 (Fatty acid)

36.

Insulin products considerations? Select all that apply

a)

PK

b)

Formulation

c)

Stability

37.

Insulin products at NEUTRAL pH deamidation of?

a)

ASN B3

b)

ASN A21

38.

Insulin products at LOWER pH deamidation of?

a)

Asn A21

b)

Asn B3

39.

Which of the following promotes formation of hexamer and stability in insulin products?

a)

Zinc ions

b)

Na ions

40.

Insulin products adverse reactions? Select all that apply

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Lipodystrophy (Same site of injection)

c)

Protamine allergic reactions (don't use protamine containing insulins if allergic to it)

41.

Analog of human glucagon with additional amino acids?

a)

Dasiglucagon SQ

b)

Glucagon SQ

42.

Group of gastric hormones stimulating release are commonly called?

a)

Incretins

b)

Estrogens

43.

GLP-1 Agonists (Select all that apply)

a)

Exenatide (Byetta)

b)

Liraglutide (Victoza)

c)

Dulaglutide (Trulicity)

d)

Semaglutide (Ozempic)

e)

Sitagliptin

44.

Isolated from saliva of the Gla monster and used BID (twice daily)?

a)

Exenatide (Byetta)

b)

Liraglutide (Victoza)

c)

Dulaglutide (Trulicity)

d)

Semaglutide (Ozempic)

45.

It has a fatty acid molecule, longer half life and used DAILY?

a)

Exenatide (Byetta)

b)

Liraglutide (Victoza)

c)

Dulaglutide (Trulicity)

d)

Semaglutide (Ozempic)

46.

GLP-1 analog with stearic diacid substitution

a)

Semaglutide (Ozempic)

b)

Liraglutide (Victoza)

c)

Dulaglutide (Trulicity)

d)

Exenatide (Byetta)

47.

Oral form of Ozempic

a)

Rybelsus

b)

Trulicity

48.

Adverse effects of DDP4 Inhibitors? Select all that apply

a)

Nasopharyngitis

b)

Nausea

49.

DDP4-Inhibitors (Select all that apply)

a)

Sitagliptin

b)

Saxagliptin

c)

Linagliptin

d)

Alogliptin

e)

Liraglutide

50.

Which of the following DDP4-Inhibitors has metabolized issues by CYP3A4/5?

a)

Saxagliptin

b)

Sitagliptin

c)

Linagliptin

d)

Alogliptin

51.

Saxagliptin has metabolized issues with which of the following?

a)

CYP3A4/5

b)

CYPB6

52.

Which of the following DDP4 Inhibitors is eliminated in the feces and enterohepatic recycling ?

a)

Saxagliptin

b)

Linagliptin

c)

Sitagliptin

d)

Alogliptin

53.

Which group is mainly responsible for LONGER DOA in Saxagliptin (24 days) and Alogliptin (21 days)?

a)

Cyano group

b)

Ethyl group

54.

GLP-1 agonists adverse effects? Select all that apply

a)

fullness

b)

nausea/vomiting

c)

GERD

d)

appetite

55.

Which of the following GLP-1 agonist is fused to a fatty molecule to increase it’s half life?

a)

Dulaglutide

b)

Liraglutide

c)

Detemir

d)

Pramlintide

e)

Semaglutide

56.

Following functional group in Saxagliptin is responsible for its pseudoirreversible nature?

a)

Hydroxyl

b)

Amine of β–amino acid

c)

Peptide/amide (-CO-NH)

d)

Cyano

57.

Bulkier substituents at R1 increases molecular affinity for SUR1 receptors

a)

1st generation SUs

b)

2nd generation SUs

58.

Sulfonylureas (SUs)

a)

Cause β–cells to secret insulin

b)

Cause alpha–cells to secret insulin

59.

First generation SUs longest DOA (36 hours) is ?

a)

Tolbutamide

b)

Acetohexamide

c)

Chlorpropamide (Diabenese)

60.

R1 of first generation SUs

a)

Small subsitution

b)

Bulky substitution

61.

R1 of second generation SUs

a)

small substitution

b)

bulky substitution

62.

Sulfonylureas : Second Generation (Select all that apply)

a)

Increased potency (2o gen)

b)

Increased DOA (12-24h)

c)

Lesser chances of hypoglycemia compared to 1st gen

d)

Bulky substitution

63.

Sulfonylureas also inhibit hepatic clearance of insulin

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Tolbutamide has which group on R1?

a)

Methyl

b)

Acetyl

c)

Clorus

65.

Acetohexamide has which group on R1

a)

Methyl

b)

Acetyl

c)

Clorus

66.

Chlorpropamide has which group on R1?

a)

Clorus

b)

Acetyl

c)

Methyl

67.

Sulfonylureas 2ng Generation? Select all that apply

a)

Glyburide

b)

Glipizide

c)

Glimepiride

d)

Chlorpropamide

68.

Sulfonylureas adverse effects? Select all that apply

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Weight gain

c)

Can cause facial flushing reaction (disulfiram effect when administered with alcohol)

d)

Cause sun sensitivity

69.

Which of the following drug can produce much longer hypoglycemic side effect as seen with SUs and therefore contraindicated in elderly?

a)

Chlorpropamide

b)

Glipizide

c)

Glyburide

d)

Glimepiride

e)

Acetohexamide

70.

Non-sulfonylurea derivatives, Substituted Benzoic Acids or ‘Glinides’ aka Meglinitides? Select all that apply

a)

Glimepiride

b)

Glyburide

c)

Glipizide

d)

Repaglinide

e)

Nateglinide

71.

Which of the following drug is the most potent?

a)

Chlorpropamide

b)

Glipizide

c)

Glyburide

d)

Glimepiride

e)

Acetohexamide

72.

Causes Hypoglycemia (Select all that apply)

a)

Insulin

b)

Amylin (Pramlintide)

c)

SUs

d)

Glinides (Repaglinide, Nateglinide)

e)

Metformin

73.

Bind to the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor (PPAR-γ) receptors in fat cells and making the cells more responsive to insulin (aka insulin sensitizers)

a)

SUs

b)

Thiazolidinediones (Glitazones)

c)

DDP4 Inhibitors

d)

GLP-1 Agonists

74.

Thiazolidinediones (Glitazones) aka Insulin sensitizer (Select all that apply)

a)

Rosiglitazone

b)

Pioglitazone

c)

Glimepiride

d)

Nateglinide

75.

Thiazolidinediones (Glitazones) adverse effects? Select all that apply

a)

Increase in liver transaminases

b)

Weight gain

c)

Fluid retention and edema

d)

Hypoglycemia

76.

SGLT2 inhibitors (Gliflozins) (Select all that apply)

a)

Weight loss

b)

Reabsorbs 90% of glucose in kidneys

c)

All are useful for Type-II DM

d)

Canagliflozin (Invokana®)

e)

Dapaglifozin (Farxiga®), Empagliflozin (Jardiance®)

77.

Ertugliflozin (Steglatro®) ingredients? Select all that apply

a)

sitagliptin (Steglujan®)

b)

metformin (Segluromet®)

78.

Which of the following has a the highest half life or longest DOA of 16.6?

a)

Ertugliflozin (Metformin, Sitagliptin)

b)

Canagliflozin (Invokana®)

c)

Dapaglifozin (Farxiga®)

d)

Empagliflozin (Jardiance®)

79.

Highly polar, basic drug, almost 100% eliminated by kidneys?

a)

Metformin

b)

Linagliptin

80.

Eliminated by active tubular secretion (OCT)?

a)

Metformin

b)

Liraglutide

81.

Multiple mechanisms of action of Metformin? Select all that apply

a)

Liver

b)

Muscles

c)

Fat

d)

Pancreas

82.

Metformin mechanisms of action? Select all that apply

a)

decreases lipolysis in fat

b)

decreases glycogenlysis in liver

c)

increase gluc uptake in muscles

d)

increases gluc uptake in fat

e)

decreases gluconeogenesis in liver

83.

Secondary effects for Metformin? Select all that apply

a)

GI upset

b)

nausea, discomfort, diarrhea, metallic taste

c)

Macrocytic anemia

d)

Decreased B12 absorption

e)

lactic acidosis (rare)

84.

Avoid in patients with liver or kidney failure, respiratory disease, cardiac disease (CHF) & during procedures involving contrast media

a)

Metformin

b)

Acetaminophen

85.

releases glucose from larger carbohydrates

a)

α-Glucosidase

b)

SUs

86.

Sugar monomer like structure and highly absorbed

a)

Miglitol (Glyset)

b)

Acarbose (Precose)

87.

Sugar ring changed to cyclohexene, -O- replaced with –NH-, Drug excreted in feces (51%), Metabolites excreted in urine

a)

Miglitol

b)

Acarbose

88.

Take with food

a)

α-Glucosidase Inhibitors

b)

SUs

89.

α-Glucosidase Inhibitors? Select all that apply

a)

Contraindicated in IBD

b)

Bloating

c)

flatulence

d)

Lactic acidosis

e)

metallic taste

90.

Miglitol is an example of

a)

α–glucosidase inhibitor

b)

DPP-4 inhibitor

c)

Amylin Analogue

d)

GLP-1 agonist

91.

Metformin belongs to which of the following class of anti-diabetics?

a)

Biguanides

b)

Sulfonylureas

c)

Glitazones

d)

Gliptins

92.

Which of the following statements is not applicable to metformin?

a)

Insulin sensitizer

b)

Can cause weight gain

c)

No effect on insulin levels

d)

Anti-hyperglycemic

e)

Not hypoglycemic

93.

Weight loss (Select all that apply)

a)

Amylin

b)

SGLT 2

c)

GLP-1 agonist

d)

Biguanides

e)

SUs

94.

Weight NEUTRAL (Select all that apply)

a)

Metformin

b)

DDP4 Inhibitors

c)

SGLT2

d)

GLP1 Agonists

e)

Amylin

95.

Weight gain (Select all that apply)

a)

SUs

b)

Meglitines

c)

TZDs

d)

Insulins

96.

Depolarization of beta cells in pancreas leads to:

a)

Glucagon secretion

b)

Insulin secretion

c)

Hyperpolarization

d)

Potassium efflux

97.

Which of the following is inactivated by insulin?

a)

Lipase

b)

Glycogen synthesis

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

Growth promoting genes

98.

Which of the following is not secreted by pancreatic cells?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Insulin

c)

Amylin

d)

GLP-1

99.

Which of the following is NOT a complication of diabetes?

a)

Peripheral neuropathy

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Slow healing of feet wounds

d)

Cognitive impairment

100.

All of the following amino acids residues in insulin can be modified except:

a)

GlyB23

b)

AsnA21

c)

ProB28

d)

ThrB30

101.

Different insulin formations have different efficacy as well as pharmacokinetics.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

Which of the following GLUT receptor types promotes glucose uptake in fat cells?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

103.

Increased glucose leads to PARP activation, which in turn inactivates Protein Kinase C.

a)

True

b)

False

104.

Which of the following causes a fruity scent (like nail polish remover) type smell in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis?

a)

Beta-hydroxybutyric acid

b)

Acetoacetic acid

c)

Acetone

d)

Plasma bicarbonate

105.

Which of the following GLP-1 agonists has the longest half life?

a)

Dulaglutide (Trulicity)

b)

Semaglutide (Ozempic)

c)

Liraglutide (Victoza)

d)

Exenatide (Byetta)

106.

Januvia (Sitagliptin) inactivates which enzyme?

a)

DPP4

b)

alpha 5 reductase

107.

GLP-1 agonist vary on their onset of action?

a)

True

b)

False

108.

Insulin products vary in their duration of action?

a)

True

b)

False

109.

What happens with PKC activation?

a)

Causes blood flow problems – can lead to blood clotting, blood going to brain, blood going to heart

b)

Causes Lupus like syndrome

110.

Glucose binding to what receptor causes insulin release?

a)

GLUT 2

b)

GLUT 4

111.

Can cause severe disabling joint pain

a)

DDP4

b)

TZD

c)

SGLT2

112.

flu-like symptoms is a specific side effect of ?

a)

DDP4

b)

SGLT2

c)

GLP1

d)

SUs

113.

Incretin Enhancers

a)

DDP4

b)

SGLT2

c)

GLP1

d)

SUs

114.

Incretin Mimetic

a)

GLP1

b)

SUs

c)

DDP4

115.

1.5 mL pen holds 450 units.

a)

Toujeo solostar

b)

Tresiba

c)

Lantus

d)

Humalog Kwikpen

116.

What is the goal range for pre-prandial BG?

a)

80-130 mg/dL

b)

140 mg/dL