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Virology Review Test

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who theorized that epidemic diseases were disseminated by minute particles carried over long distances?

a)

Hippocrates

b)

Fracastoro

c)

Davaine

d)

Pasteur

2.

Who discovered myxoma virus?

a)

Sanarelli

b)

Loffler and Frosch

c)

Beijerinck and Ivanovski

d)

Reed and Carroll

3.

Who discovered African horse sickness?

a)

M'Fadyean and Theiler

b)

Jenner

c)

Sanarelli

d)

Rous

4.

Who discovered hog cholera virus?

a)

Cetanni, Lode, Gruber

b)

Remlinger and Riffat-Bay

c)

DeSchweinitz and Dorset

d)

Ellerman and Bang

5.

Who developed the yellow fever vaccine?

a)

Reed and Carroll

b)

Arnold Theiler

c)

Max Theiler

d)

Sigurdsson

6.

Who discovered canine parvovirus (CPV)?

a)

Salk and Sabin

b)

Montagnier et al.

c)

Carmichael et al.

d)

Pedersen et al.

7.

Who discovered immunodefiency virus?

a)

Olafson et al.

b)

Montagnier et al.

c)

British Veterinary Virology

d)

Pederson et al.

8.

Who first isolated the influenza virus after the pandemic between 1918 to 1919?

a)

Shope

b)

Andrews, Laidlaw, Smith. Burnet

c)

Ellerman and Bang

d)

Landsteiner and Popper

9.

The difference between viroids and prions is that prions consists an infectious protein with a nucleic acid; viroids do not.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Viruses are considered as microorganisms.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Bacteria can grow in nonliving media.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Like bacteria, viruses reproduce through binary fission.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Bacteria and mycoplasmas do not possess infectious nucleic acid.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Like bacteria, mycoplasmas do not have metabolic processes.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Who discovered the nature or prions, the etiologic agents of bovine spongiform encephalopathy, scrapie and similar diseases?

a)

British Veterinary Virology

b)

Prusiner

c)

Salk and Sabin

d)

Koch

16.

The following are examples of naked viruses EXCEPT?

a)

infectious bursa disease (IDBV)

b)

fowl pox virus (FPV)

c)

foot and mouth disease (FMDV)

d)

porcine parvovirus (PPV)

17.

the following are enveloped viruses EXCEPT?

a)

new castle disease (NCDV)

b)

infectious laryngotracheitis (ILTV)

c)

hog cholera virus (HCV)

d)

avian encephalomyelitis (AEV)

18.

The structural units on the faces and edges of adenovirus virions, for example, bond to six neighboring capsomeres are refered to as?

a)

prions

b)

hexons

c)

helical

d)

virions

19.

The following viruses have GLYCOPROTEINS as enveloped associated proteins EXCEPT?

a)

Orthomyxoviruses

b)

paramyxoviruses

c)

retroviruses

d)

bunyaviruses

20.

Which virus have diploid copies of nucleic acids?

a)

reoviruses

b)

birnaviruses

c)

parvoviruses

d)

retroviruses

21.

Which viruses is considered monopartite (non-segmented)?

a)

orthomyxoviruses

b)

reoviruses

c)

parvoviruses

d)

bunyaviruses

22.

A ss genomic RNA polarity that genomic nucleotide sequence is complimentary to that of the mRNA

a)

positive sense RNA

b)

negative sense RNA

c)

neutral sense RNA

d)

NOTA

23.

The following viruses have ds, linear nature EXCEPT?

a)

poxviridae

b)

iridoviridae

c)

papoviridae

d)

herpesviridae

24.

The following viruses have icosahedral symmetry EXCEPT?

a)

Paramyxoviridae

b)

bornaviridae

c)

arteriviridae

d)

iridoviridae

25.

Which among these viruses is the largest (in size)?

a)

Asfarviridae

b)

Adenoviridae

c)

Parvoviridae

d)

Papooviridae

26.

In general, viruses are more sensitive than bacteria or fungi to inactivation by physical and chemical agents.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

How many Celcius is the half life of viruses in hours?

a)

60

b)

37

c)

20

d)

4

28.

What are the 3 major virus groups that was discovered in 1950?

a)

Hepa, Myxo, Pox

b)

Hepers, Myxo, Papo

c)

Herpes, Myxo, Pox

d)

Hepa, Myxo, Parvo

29.

These are viruses that causes tumor formation

a)

Enteric viruses

b)

Respiratory viruses

c)

Arthropof borne viruses

d)

Oncogenic viruses

30.

The following are enteric viruses EXCEPT?

a)

orthomyxo

b)

calici

c)

reo

d)

corona

31.

The viral ligand is used in what stage of virus replication?

a)

penetration and uncoating

b)

attachment

c)

virus release

d)

protein synthesis

32.

which protein synthesis uses DdRp to produce mRNA?

a)

ds DNA nuclear replication

b)

ds DNA cytplasmic replication

c)

ss DNA nuclear replication

d)

ds RNA cytplasmic replication

33.

Which viruses are examples of ds DNA nuclear replication?

a)

Herpes, Adeno, Parvo

b)

Pox, Asfar, Irido

c)

Parvo, Circo

d)

Herpes, Adeno, Papo

34.

The cell receptor of virus have no normal physiologic function.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Which organelles are part of budding from cellular membranes during assembly and release of virus?

a)

ER

b)

Golgi

c)

Plasma and nuclear membrane

d)

AOTA

36.

It is generally assumed that a plaque is the result of the infection of a cell by single virion.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

If a virus produced in the plaque is genetically identical, it is refered to as an isolate rather than a strain.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Plaques cannot be formed by phages in lawns of bacterial growth.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Which type of microscopy is useful in detecting virus-infected cells, for example, by observing cythopathic effects?

a)

electron microscopy

b)

light microscopy

c)

confocal microscopy

d)

X-ray crystallography

40.

Which type of microscopy is used with live cells and can be applied to investigations of protein trafficking with the virus or cell protein under investigation carrying a suitable label?

a)

electron microscopy

b)

light microscopy

c)

confocal microscopy

d)

x-ray crystallography

41.

What refers to the capacity of a virus to replicate?

a)

virulence

b)

infectivity

c)

incubation

d)

NOTA

42.

The following components are detected in a virus detection EXCEPT?

a)

virions

b)

antigens

c)

nucleic acids

d)

NOTA

43.

This is used to detect genetic material from the virus.

a)

x-ray crystallography

b)

confocal microscopy

c)

polymerase chain reaction

d)

animal cell culture

44.

These are types of viral infections that has no productions and release of new virions but host cell manifest changes of a profound nature, leading to cell death or cell transformation

a)

cytocidal

b)

productive

c)

nonproductive

d)

NOTA

45.

Canine distemper virus in brain is what type of infection?

a)

cytocidal

b)

productive

c)

nonproductive

d)

transformation

46.

Hemadsorption is the ability to absorb erythrocytes in monolayer cultures.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Cytocidal viruses often cause infection, in which infected cells produce and release virions but overall cellular metabolism is little affected.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

What virus has intranuclear inclusion bodies?

a)

poxvirus

b)

reovirus

c)

parvovirus

d)

rabies virus

49.

Viruses that mature at the basolateral surface are free to proceed to other sites in the body, sometimes bloodstream and establish systematic infection.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Cells dying by necrosis exhibit chromatin condensation and margination and eventually break up into membrane-bound bodies that contain dense cytoplasmic and nuclear debris.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

In other cases, viruses induce apoptosis indirectly through their effects on cellular processes.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

What is usually the mechanism of action (MOA) of interferons?

a)

inhibits protein synthesis

b)

inhibits nucleic acid release

c)

AOTA

d)

NOTA

53.

Viral interference is said to occur when a virus-infected cell cannot resist superinfection with the same or different virus.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which route of entry is the most common portal of viral entry into the body?

a)

respiratory tract

b)

oropharynx and intestinal tract

c)

skin

d)

urogenital tract

55.

The blood is the most effective and rapid vehicle for the spread of virus through the body. A higher concentration of virus that leads to the establishment of infection is called?

a)

diapedesis

b)

primary veremia

c)

monocytosis

d)

secondary veremia

56.

which part/system is invaded secondarily via the bloodstream, producing erythema?

a)

respiratory tract

b)

intestinal tract

c)

skin

d)

lymphoreticular

57.

Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus is caused by what virus?

a)

retrovirus

b)

reoviris

c)

flavivirus

d)

herpesvirus

58.

which subfamily of Herpesviridae comprises the herpesviruses that are lymphotrophic; the protoype is human herpesvirus 4 (e.g. Epstein Barr virus)?

a)

Betaherpesvirinae

b)

Alphaherpesvirinae

c)

Gammaherpesvirinae

d)

Unclassified hepersviruses

59.

Pseudorabies causes abortions and respiratory problems. It can infect all domestic animals including fowls.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Marek's disease is the most common lymphoproliferative diease in chickens (prior to vaccination in 1970), which type of it leads to graying of the iris of one or both eyes?

a)

acute

b)

cutaenous

c)

classical

d)

ocular lymphomatosis