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WorksheetsUnit 5
Total questions: 80
Worksheet time: 3hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
1) Your patient is a 30-year-old female who may have overdosed on antidepressant medications. On your arrival, she is lying supine on her bed with her head on a pillow. She is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is snoring. She appears to be pale and her skin is cool and clammy. What should you do first?
a)
A) Insert an oropharyngeal airway.
b)
B) Remove the patient's pillow.
c)
C) Apply oxygen by nonrebreather mask.
d)
D) Check the patient's pulse.
2.
2) Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker medication?
a)
A) Increases the amount of oxygen needed by the myocardium
b)
B) Causes vasoconstriction, increasing the blood pressure
c)
C) Slows the heart rate
d)
D) Increases the strength of myocardial contraction
3.
3) Which of the following BEST describes the continued need for prehospital advanced cardiac life support, even when EMTs in the community carry AEDs?
a)
A) The patient may need medications to support his cardiac rhythm and blood pressure prior to attempting defibrillation.
b)
B) Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation.
c)
C) Before attempting defibrillation, it may be necessary to obtain a 12-lead ECG on the patient.
d)
D) All of the above
4.
4) Which of the following is the role of glucose in the body?
a)
A) It provides energy for brain cells and other cells in the body.
b)
B) It allows the body to use insulin.
c)
C) It is an essential building block for body tissues, such as muscle and bone.
d)
D) It assists the pancreas in the manufacture of insulin.
5.
5) Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of stroke?
a)
A) Seizure
b)
B) Chest pain
c)
C) Sudden impairment of vision
d)
D) Vomiting
6.
6) Your patient is a 45-year-old female who is allergic to sesame seeds, which she accidentally ingested when she ate a deli sandwich. She is having difficulty breathing and she has hives, watery eyes, a weak pulse of 120 per minute, and swelling of the face and tongue. Which of the following is the best course of immediate action?
a)
A) Contact dispatch to see where the closest ALS unit is.
b)
B) Transport immediately.
c)
C) Contact medical control for orders to administer the patient's epinephrine auto-injector.
d)
D) Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA).
7.
7) You are called to the scene of a patient with influenza. She tells you her symptoms started about 5 days ago and that she began taking antiviral medication 2 days ago. Her symptoms have not improved since taking the medication. What is the most likely reason the medication has been ineffective?
a)
A) Antiviral medications for the flu must be started within 2 days of symptom onset to be effective.
b)
B) Antiviral medications for the flu work against the strains of the virus that are expected to be prevalent that year, and the medication isn't effective against the strain this patient has.
c)
C) Antiviral medications are not effective against the flu because it is caused by bacteria rather than a virus.
d)
D) Antiviral medication is often ineffective because the flu virus is capable of rapidly mutating inside the body.
8.
8) Which of the following is one of the most common inhaled poisons associated with fire suppression?
a)
A) Hydrogen sulfide
b)
B) Carbon monoxide
c)
C) Chlorine gas
d)
D) Carbon dioxide
9.
9) You are called to a 25-year-old male complaining of right lower quadrant (RLQ) pain. His other symptoms are nausea and vomiting, fever, and decreasing pain in the umbilicus area. As an EMT, you feel this patient might have:
a)
A) cholecystitis.
b)
B) peritonitis.
c)
C) appendicitis.
d)
D) pancreatitis.
10.
10) Which of the following is acceptable when managing the patient with a behavioral or psychiatric emergency?
a)
A) Allow family members to confront the patient about his behavior.
b)
B) Go along with the patient's hallucinations or false beliefs.
c)
C) Sit as close to the patient as you can to reassure him that you will not abandon him.
d)
D) Make supportive statements such as, "That must have been very hard for you."
11.
11) You are dispatched to a psychiatric emergency for a 68-year-old male. Dispatch provides no other information and, when questioned by you, they do not have any more information. Although all steps are important for dealing with this situation, which step is the most important?
a)
A) Primary assessment
b)
B) Scene size-up
c)
C) Vital signs and SAMPLE history
d)
D) Secondary assessment
12.
12) When restraining a patient, which of the following is not a consideration?
a)
A) Patient's informed consent
b)
B) Number of people available to carry out the required actions
c)
C) How to position the patient
d)
D) Patient's size and strength
13.
13) Which of the following may cause a patient to exhibit abnormal behavior?
a)
A) Snakebites
b)
B) Hypoxia
c)
C) Allergic reaction
d)
D) Gastroenteritis
14.
14) Your patient is exhibiting bizarre and aggressive behavior; he starts shouting and becomes violent. He has extra strength and appears insensitive to pain. Drug paraphernalia is visible on-scene. This behavior is known as:
a)
A) delusions.
b)
B) excited delirium.
c)
C) chemical delirium.
d)
D) sensory excitement.
15.
15) You respond to the scene of a private residence for a patient who is known to have insulin-dependent diabetes. The patient is combative and cursing as you approach. Should this patient be restrained?
a)
A) There is not enough information to answer this question.
b)
B) Yes, he likely has a medical condition that requires treatment.
c)
C) Yes, he is combative and all combative patients can be restrained.
d)
D) No, this patient is not likely experiencing a behavioral emergency.
16.
16) It can sometimes be difficult to determine whether someone who is showing unusual behavior is having a psychological emergency or is showing an altered mental status due to a physical issue. Which of the following statements are true?
a)
1. Consider patients who are exhibiting crisis or unusual behavior to be having an altered mental status from a nonpsychiatric cause until proven otherwise.
b)
2. Many medical and traumatic conditions are likely to alter a patient's behavior.
c)
3. Lack of oxygen may cause restlessness and confusion, cyanosis (blue or gray skin), and altered mental status.
d)
4. Stroke or inadequate blood to the brain may cause confusion or dizziness and what appears to be erratic behavior.
e)
5. All of the Above
17.
17) Why is it important to gather a detailed medical history when dealing with a psychiatric emergency?
a)
A) It is not. You want to get the call resolved as quickly as possible and this will just delay it.
b)
B) It will help you to determine whether the police are needed.
c)
C) It will alert you to past issues as well as medication.
d)
D) It will help you to determine whether you need to restrain the patient.
18.
18) Your patient is a 37-year-old male sitting on the kitchen floor. His wife is attempting to talk with him, but he does not look at her or answer. He is fidgeting and has apparently thrown some dishes against the wall. What should be your first consideration?
a)
A) Stay a safe distance away.
b)
B) Ask the wife to step outside with you so you can get information from her.
c)
C) Ask the wife to step into the other room so you can speak with the patient alone.
d)
D) Quickly check the patient's carotid pulse.
19.
19) Concerning attempted suicide, which of the following statements is true?
a)
A) There is always an indication that a suicide attempt is imminent.
b)
B) Truly suicidal patients nearly always leave a note.
c)
C) Attempted suicide is a matter for law enforcement, not EMS.
d)
D) All suicide attempts must be taken seriously.
20.
20) Your patient was diagnosed with cholecystitis (gallbladder inflammation) three days ago. The patient now presents with nausea, vomiting, and pain in the right shoulder. The pain in the shoulder can be classified as:
a)
A) somatic pain.
b)
B) visceral pain.
c)
C) pancreatic pain.
d)
D) referred pain.
21.
21) Which of the following is not a cause of parietal pain?
a)
A) Infection
b)
B) Inflammation
c)
C) Bleeding into the abdominal cavity
d)
D) Muscle spasm
22.
22) Which of the following is not a cause of abdominal pain?
a)
A) Food poisoning
b)
B) Heart attack
c)
C) Stroke
d)
D) Diabetes
23.
23) Which of the following is a concern when caring for the patient with abdominal pain?
a)
A) Airway management
b)
B) Patient comfort
c)
C) Shock
d)
D) All of the above
24.
24) Which of the following is a characteristic of referred pain?
a)
A) It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it.
b)
B) It is caused by psychological stress.
c)
C) It is usually described as "crampy" or "colicky."
d)
D) It is only felt in hollow organs.
25.
25) Which of the following organs is located in the retroperitoneal space?
a)
A) Uterus
b)
B) Stomach
c)
C) Liver
d)
D) Kidneys
26.
26) Which of the following is the main focus of the EMT's assessment and history taking of the patient with abdominal pain?
a)
A) Determining the possible need for immediate surgery
b)
B) Determining the presence of shock
c)
C) Determining if the patient meets criteria to refuse treatment and transport
d)
D) Determining the cause of the pain
27.
27) Pain felt in the epigastric region of the abdomen is of concern because of the possibility of which of the following?
a)
A) Influenza
b)
B) Extreme diarrhea with dehydration
c)
C) Kidney stones
d)
D) Myocardial infarction
28.
28) You respond to a 75-year-old female who is complaining of epigastric pain that feels like heartburn and radiates to the right shoulder. Her vital signs are stable and she has a previous history of myocardial infarction. She has prescription nitroglycerine tablets. An ALS unit is en route. After performing a physical examination and applying oxygen by nasal cannula, you should:
a)
A) apply the AED and prepare for imminent cardiac arrest from a myocardial infarction.
b)
B) transport the patient in the supine position for shock.
c)
C) contact medical control regarding the administration of the patient's nitroglycerin.
d)
D) cancel the ALS unit: this is just gallstones and BLS can transport.
29.
29) You are treating a 61-year-old who is a chronic alcohol abuser. He is complaining of "snakes slithering around his ankles," and he tells you that he had only two drinks tonight. You notice that he is sweating, trembling, and anxious. Before you can complete your assessment, he begins to have a seizure. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this situation?
a)
A) The patient is suffering from alcohol withdrawal.
b)
B) The patient could not find an alcoholic beverage and drank antifreeze instead.
c)
C) The patient drank mouthwash instead of beverage alcohol.
d)
D) The patient is suffering from acute alcohol poisoning.
30.
30) Your patient is a conscious 16-year-old female who has ingested an unknown number of sleeping pills. Which of the following questions is least pertinent to the care of this patient?
a)
A) Who do these sleeping pills belong to?
b)
B) Over what period of time did you take the pills?
c)
C) Has anyone tried to treat you with anything?
d)
D) How much do you weigh?
31.
31) Which of the following effects may occur due to chronic abuse of alcohol?
a)
A) Poor nutrition
b)
B) Potential for gastrointestinal bleeding
c)
C) Abnormal blood sugar levels
d)
D) All of the above
32.
32) Which of the following is a common sign and symptom in poisonings of all types?
a)
A) Pain and diaphoresis
b)
B) Dizziness and palpitations
c)
C) Headache and diaphoresis
d)
D) Nausea and vomiting
33.
33) Which of the following patients is at the lowest risk of developing sepsis?
a)
A) A pediatric patient who has developed pneumonia in both lungs
b)
B) A patient with a compromised immune system who has a permanent gastrostomy tube
c)
C) A college-aged patient who breaks his arm in a skateboard crash
d)
D) An elderly patient who is recovering from abdominal surgery
34.
34) What is the most important thing you can do for a stable septic patient?
a)
A) Open and maintain the patient's airway.
b)
B) Assess the patient using capnography.
c)
C) Notify the emergency department that the patient is septic.
d)
D) Attempt to lower the patient's temperature.
35.
35) You have been called to the scene of a single vehicle crash. The victim lost control of the vehicle on an icy road and hit a tree. He shows signs of facial injury with bleeding, but is conscious and aware of his surroundings. Before you begin providing care to him, he tells you that he has HIV and is currently taking medication that has helped suppress his viral load. Based on this information, which of the following actions should you take?
a)
A) Take Standard Precautions while providing care for the patient.
b)
B) Avoid direct contact with the patient but provide him with dressings he can apply himself.
c)
C) Provide care without using precautions because his viral load is suppressed.
d)
D) Call medical direction and ask how you should proceed.
36.
36) Which of the following statements about bacteria is false?
a)
A) Sepsis is a serious and sometimes deadly complication of bacterial infection.
b)
B) Some bacteria inside the body are good and necessary to survival.
c)
C) Over time, bacteria have developed resistance to some antibiotics.
d)
D) Bacteria need to be inside the body in order to reproduce.
37.
37) Which of the following statements concerning severe allergic reactions is true?
a)
A) Allergies do not develop until a person is in his late teens to early 20s.
b)
B) Severe reactions often occur immediately, but they are occasionally delayed 30 minutes or more.
c)
C) A severe allergic reaction can be prevented by the use of an epinephrine auto-injector before exposure to the substance.
d)
D) A severe allergic reaction occurs only when the patient has never been exposed to the substance before.
38.
38) You have responded to a park where you find a 23-year-old female sitting on a bench near a running trail. She states that she has been running for the past 30 minutes and suddenly cannot catch her breath. She states that this has never happened before and she usually runs 5 miles a day. Your assessment reveals that she is flushed, her pulse is fast and weak, her respirations are fast and she is wheezing, and she has hives on her arms and chest. She is most likely suffering from which of the following?
a)
A) Anaphylaxis
b)
B) Hyperventilation syndrome
c)
C) Allergic reaction
d)
D) Heat stroke
39.
39) Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction involving the skin?
a)
A) Flushing
b)
B) Cyanosis
c)
C) Itching
d)
D) Hives
40.
40) You are unsure whether a patient's condition requires the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?
a)
A) Ask a family member if this is the type of situation when the patient usually takes his auto-injector.
b)
B) Consult with a paramedic on your service for advice.
c)
C) Administer the epinephrine, just in case.
d)
D) None of the above
41.
41) Which of the following is a trade name for an epinephrine auto-injector?
a)
A) AllerPen®
b)
B) EpiPen®
c)
C) Anajector®
d)
D) Autodrenalin®
42.
42) Which of the following is the result of histamine and other chemicals in the body during anaphylaxis?
a)
A) Bronchodilation occurs, blood vessels dilate, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords.
b)
B) Capillaries become leaky, bronchoconstriction occurs, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords.
c)
C) Urticaria occurs due to fluid being shunted from the skin, causing dehydration of tissue.
d)
D) Blood vessels constrict, capillaries become leaky, and bronchoconstriction occurs.
43.
43) You are transporting a 41-year-old female suffering from severe anaphylaxis. Her respiratory rate is 42 per minute, she is cyanotic, and she has a decreased level of responsiveness. Which of the following is the highest priority of care for this patient?
a)
A) Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask.
b)
B) Search for an epinephrine auto-injector.
c)
C) Elevate the patient's head.
d)
D) Transport rapidly.
44.
44) Which of the following is most likely to be a complaint of a patient suffering from anaphylaxis?
a)
A) "I am having severe muscle pains."
b)
B) "I can't remember what happened."
c)
C) "My throat feels like it is closing."
d)
D) "My legs are numb and I can't move them."
45.
45) You are called to a farmhouse on a sunny spring afternoon. Upon arrival, a frantic mother tells you that her 3-year-old daughter was playing in the yard, accidentally stepped on a hornets' nest, and was stung repeatedly. The patient is alert, screaming and crying, and can follow her mother's commands. Her arms and legs are swollen and show the marks of several stings. Her body is covered in hives. Her vital signs are blood pressure 90/40, pulse 110, respiratory rate 24, and oxygen saturation 99 percent. Her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Her mother states she put "nox-a-sting" on the bites but the bites only seemed to get worse. What condition is the patient suffering from?
a)
A) Minor anaphylactic reaction
b)
B) Allergic reaction from the hornets' stings
c)
C) Anaphylactic reaction from the "nox-a-sting" swabs
d)
D) Moderate anaphylactic reaction
46.
46) Your patient is a 44-year-old male with a history of diabetes. He is lying on the living room floor, unresponsive to all stimuli. He has a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute and heart rate of 112 beats per minute, and is pale and sweaty. Which of the following should you do to treat this patient?
a)
A) Encourage the patient's family to administer his insulin.
b)
B) Apply oral glucose solution to a tongue depressor and insert it between the patient's cheek and gums.
c)
C) Place the patient in the recovery position, administer oxygen, and monitor his airway status.
d)
D) Place the patient in the recovery position to protect the airway and place oral glucose solution under the patient's tongue.
47.
47) If the blood sugar level is very high, which of the following may result?
a)
A) Hyperactivity, excessive thirst, and polyuria
b)
B) Excessive insulin, excessive glucose, and excessive urination
c)
C) Polyuria and hyperactivity
d)
D) Excessive urination, excessive thirst, and excessive hunger
48.
48) A seizure that occurs spontaneously from an unknown cause is called:
a)
A) idiopathic.
b)
B) toxinic.
c)
C) hypoxic.
d)
D) hypoglycemic.
49.
49) Treatment of someone with a seizure disorder includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
A) placing the patient on the floor or ground.
b)
B) loosening restrictive clothing.
c)
C) removing objects that might harm the patient.
d)
D) placing a bite block in the patient's mouth so that he does not bite his tongue.
50.
50) The most common medical emergency for the diabetic is hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar. Which of the factors below is NOT a cause of hypoglycemia?
a)
A) Takes too much insulin
b)
B) Reduces sugar intake by eating too much
c)
C) Vomits a meal
d)
D) Over-exercises or over-exerts himself
51.
51) Which of the following is within the EMT's scope of practice for the treatment of the diabetic patient?
a)
A) Assisting the patient with the administration of his insulin
b)
B) Administration of oral glucose
c)
C) Rectal administration of glucose
d)
D) Both A and B
52.
52) Which of the following refers to difficulty in using words or understanding speech as a result of a stroke?
a)
A) Hemiparesis
b)
B) Ataxia
c)
C) Ischemia
d)
D) Aphasia
53.
53) During your primary assessment, you find your patient has an altered mental status. This could indicate which of the following?
a)
A) The need for suctioning of the airway
b)
B) Problems with the RAS due to hypertension
c)
C) Failing respiratory system
d)
D) The need to complete a secondary assessment
54.
54) If an EMT is tasked with managing the family of a patient who is deceased after termination of resuscitation, what is an effective care strategy?
a)
A) Be straightforward and use direct language.
b)
B) Minimize the family's time with the deceased patient.
c)
C) Prevent the family from seeing the deceased patient.
d)
D) Tell the family the EMT knows how they feel.
55.
55) Mechanical CPR devices are used by EMS agencies in order to provide:
a)
A) a faster response time to the scene.
b)
B) high-quality compressions.
c)
C) better quality of care with less training.
d)
D) a 100% success rate.
56.
56) Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in ventricular tachycardia?
a)
A) Shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check
b)
B) Shock, 2 minutes of CPR, reanalyze, shock again if indicated
c)
C) Shock, shock, shock, pulse check, 2 minutes of CPR, shock, shock, shock
d)
D) Shock, shock, shock, shock
57.
57) Once an EMT has begun resuscitative efforts, when may the EMT cease those efforts?
a)
A) Spontaneous circulation and breathing occur.
b)
B) The EMT's partner gives the order to cease.
c)
C) The patient has no pulse after 1 minute.
d)
D) No other rescuer is available to relieve the EMT.
58.
58) You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED advises shock. After defibrillating the patient, what is your next intervention?
a)
A) Continue CPR.
b)
B) Check for a pulse.
c)
C) Insert a Combitube.
d)
D) Place in the recovery position.
59.
59) When using an AED, which of the following people is responsible for calling to "clear" the patient before delivering a shock?
a)
A) EMT managing the airway
b)
B) EMT doing chest compressions
c)
C) EMT supervising bystanders
d)
D) EMT operating the defibrillator
60.
60) You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED does not advise shock. What is your next intervention?
a)
A) Insert a Combitube.
b)
B) Continue CPR.
c)
C) Replace the malfunctioning AED.
d)
D) Stop CPR and place the patient in the recovery position.
61.
61) All of the following are elements of adult high-performance CPR, EXCEPT:
a)
A) compressing the patient's chest to no more than 1 inch in depth before allowing full relaxation.
b)
B) placing the heel of one hand on the center of the victim's chest.
c)
C) maintaining a 2:30 ratio of ventilations to compressions.
d)
D) compression rate of at least 100 per minute.
62.
62) EMTs arrive at the scene of a cardiac arrest to see a police officer beginning to defibrillate the patient. At what point should the EMTs take over?
a)
A) Immediately, even if interrupting the police office in the middle of shocking the patient
b)
B) After a "no shock indicated" message is received but otherwise not until the patient is resuscitated
c)
C) Only if the EMTs feel the police office is incompetent to administer the AED correctly
d)
D) After the shock is delivered or a "no shock indicated" message is received
63.
63) Which of the following is not a typical indication of congestive heart failure (CHF)?
a)
A) Increased heart rate
b)
B) Productive cough
c)
C) Jugular venous distension
d)
D) Weight loss
64.
64) You are treating a male patient with chest pain caused by the complete occlusion of one of the coronary arteries. What would you most likely expect with this patient?
a)
A) His pain will be reduced with aspirin.
b)
B) His pain will go away with oxygen.
c)
C) His pain will be alleviated with nitroglycerin.
d)
D) His pain will not be alleviated with any of the above medications.
65.
65) Which of the following is the name given to the condition in which fluid accumulates in the lungs?
a)
A) Pulmonary edema
b)
B) Dyspnea
c)
C) Congestive heart failure
d)
D) Pedal edema
66.
66) What is not a result of a mechanical malfunction of the heart?
a)
A) Pulmonary edema
b)
B) Cardiac arrest
c)
C) Cardiogenic shock
d)
D) Dysrhythmia
67.
67) Which of the following terms refers to swelling of the lower extremities seen in many cardiac patients?
a)
A) Congestive heart failure
b)
B) Crackles
c)
C) Pedal edema
d)
D) Presacral swelling
68.
68) Which of the following may be a sign or symptom of a problem with the heart?
a)
A) Chest discomfort
b)
B) Nausea, with or without vomiting
c)
C) Fainting or near fainting
d)
D) All of the above
69.
69) In which of the following situations would the administration of aspirin to a cardiac patient be prohibited?
a)
A) The patient has a diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mmHg.
b)
B) The patient feels dizzy.
c)
C) The patient does not currently take aspirin.
d)
D) The patient has a gastrointestinal ulcer.
70.
70) Which of the following is a condition that can result from fatty deposits forming in the inner lining of the arteries?
a)
A) Coronary thrombosis
b)
B) Coronary artery disease
c)
C) Arteriosclerosis
d)
D) Aneurysm
71.
71) You respond to the scene of a 56-year-old obese female complaining of respiratory distress. She states that she has been feeling weak and a "little sick" for the past two days, but the respiratory distress has been getting progressively worse for the past several hours. She states she has "heart problems," suffers from high blood pressure, and takes a "water pill." She is afebrile and has coarse crackles bilaterally. What is most likely the cause of her respiratory distress?
a)
A) Congestive heart failure
b)
B) Acute myocardial infarction
c)
C) Aortic aneurysm
d)
D) Dysrhythmia
72.
72) In which of the following circumstances is medical direction necessary when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed inhaler?
a)
A) The patient has already overused the inhaler before your arrival.
b)
B) Medical control is not necessary since assistance with inhaled medications is in the EMT scope of practice.
c)
C) Medical control is necessary in all situations in which an EMT assists with a prescribed inhaler.
d)
D) The inhaler belongs to another family member, not the patient.
73.
73) Which of the following statements concerning expiration is true?
a)
A) The ribs move upward and outward.
b)
B) The diaphragm moves upward.
c)
C) The intercostal muscles contract to force air out of the lungs.
d)
D) The chest cavity increases in size.
74.
74) Which of the following patients does not necessarily have inadequate breathing?
a)
A) Patient with agonal respirations
b)
B) Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm
c)
C) Patient with cyanosis
d)
D) Patient's whose breath sounds cannot be heard
75.
75) What is the best way to determine that you are getting adequate ventilation with a bag-valve mask?
a)
A) Hyperventilate the patient until the oxygen saturation reaches 100%.
b)
B) Ensure the pulse oximeter reads 95 to 100%.
c)
C) Look for chest rise and fall.
d)
D) Push the full amount of the air in the bag into the patient.
76.
76) Which of the following is a sign of adequate artificial ventilations in a pediatric patient?
a)
A) The breath is delivered easily.
b)
B) Pulse rate increases.
c)
C) You notice cyanosis developing around the mouth.
d)
D) Pulse rate slows down.
77.
77) Which of the following may be seen just prior to respiratory arrest?
a)
A) Agonal respirations
b)
B) Accessory muscle use
c)
C) Breathing through the nose, not the mouth
d)
D) Very deep, rapid respirations
78.
78) Which of the following patients with difficulty breathing should not receive supplemental oxygen?
a)
A) An infant whose eyes may be damaged by excessive oxygen administration
b)
B) A patient with a chronic lung disease who may have a hypoxic drive
c)
C) A patient whose oxygen saturation level is 100% on room air
d)
D) None of these patients should have oxygen withheld.
79.
79) You are first on the scene of a 61-year-old female in need of assistance with her respirations. You have a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen. How can you determine that your artificial ventilation is effective?
a)
A) Patient's skin color remains the same.
b)
B) You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute.
c)
C) Patient's pulse returns to normal.
d)
D) You are assisting respirations at 10 breaths per minute.
80.
80) What condition is when there is an infection in one or both lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi?
a)
A) Asthma
b)
B) Pulmonary edema
c)
C) Pulmonary embolism
d)
D) Pneumonia
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