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Pathology 1 final review

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A collimator in the SPECT imaging system:

a)

contains multiple parallel channels allowing rays to pass.

b)

provides a lead plate increasing image contrast.

c)

is a device to allow rotation of the camera.

d)

allows more gamma rays to reach the camera

2.

All of the following are postprocessing techniques used in CT, except:

a)

time-of-flight technique

b)

shaded surface rendering.

c)

maximum intensity projections.

d)

volume rendering.

3.

By selecting different pulses, sequences, and frequencies, the MRI T1-weighted image produces images with a:

a)

high signal intensity (bright) water

b)

low signal intensity (intermediate to dark) fat

c)

high signal intensity (bright) fat, subacute hemorrhage, and contrast material.

d)

low signal intensity (very dark) bone and air.

4.

CT scanning permitting data that can easily be reformatted to produce multiplanes (coronal and sagittal) is accomplished by:

a)

single-scan protocols

b)

conventional scans.

c)

helical scanning.

d)

high-resolution scans.

5.

Diffusion imaging relies on _____ aiding in diagnosis of early stroke

a)

decreased microcirculation demonstrating less blood volume

b)

Both A and C

c)

random movement of water

d)

tissue diffused with contrast material

6.

Epileptic foci and Alzheimer’s disease are best demonstrated by:

a)

PET

b)

CT

c)

SPECT

d)

MRI

7.

Fluid-filled structures transmitting sound waves easily and appearing as a dark region on the image are _____ tissue.

a)

hypoechoic

b)

hyperechoic

c)

isoechoic

d)

anechoic

8.

High-resolution CT requires the slice sections to be:

a)

2 to 5 mm

b)

1.5 to 2.0 mm.

c)

1 to 2 cm

d)

5 to 10 mm.

9.

In CT, using a narrow x-ray beam and scanning from multiple angles, the amount of radiation absorbed in tissue is represented by:

a)

a relative linear attenuation coefficient.

b)

data for computer reconstruction.

c)

a relative linear attenuation coefficient, data for computer reconstruction and a gray scale on the computer monitor.

d)

a gray scale on the computer monitor.

10.

In MRI, relaxation is:

a)

the repetition of the energy signal.

b)

the repetition of the energy signal.

c)

the proton releasing energy to return to its original state

d)

the energy transfer of the radiofrequency pulse to tissue.

11.

In nuclear medicine imaging, to detect the ionizing radiation being emitted from the patient to produce an image, a _____ is used.

a)

Geiger counter

b)

gamma camera

c)

dose calibrator

d)

pocket dosimeter

12.

In nuclear medicine, the patient is injected or ingests the ionizing radiation through:

a)

gadolinium

b)

an iodinated contrast agent.

c)

a radiopharmaceutical.

d)

barium

13.

In ultrasound, the high-frequency sound waves are produced by

a)

electrical stimulation of a specialized crystal

b)

radiopharmaceuticals

c)

magnets and pulse radiofrequencies.

d)

sound waves emanating from the body.

14.

Increased radionuclide uptake produces a _____ on the image

a)

cold spot

b)

homogeneous area

c)

hot spot

d)

blank spot

15.

Ionizing radiation, which is emitted a radiopharmaceutical injected or ingested by the patient to produce images, is the modality of:

a)

conventional x-ray

b)

magnetic resonance imaging

c)

ultrasound

d)

nuclear medicine

16.

A disease process caused by physicians or their treatment is:

a)

neoplasia

b)

idiopathic

c)

community acquired.

d)

iatrogenic.

17.

A basic reaction of the body to some form of injury is a.

a)

disease process

b)

disease process

18.

A gene always producing an effect regardless of whether the person is homozygous or heterozygous is named:

a)

recessive

b)

autosomal dominant

c)

dominant

d)

autosomal recessive.

19.

A localized area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ produced by vascular occlusion is a(n):

a)

ecchymosis

b)

gangrene

c)

infarct

d)

purpura

20.

1.      A hazy, perihilar, granular infiltrate spreading to the lung periphery is the early radiographic finding of. KAPOSI SYNDROME

a)

KAPOSI SYNDROME

b)

KAPOSI SYNDROME

21.

1.      A malignancy of glandular tissue, such as breast or liver, is referred to as a(n). ADENOCARCINOMA

a)

ADENOCARCINOMA

b)

ADENOCARCINOMA

22.

A polyp is a:

a)

projecting mass from an inner mucous membrane

b)

benign cartilaginous tumor

c)

cancer

d)

malignant epithelial neoplasm.

23.

A subcutaneous hematoma greater than 1 to 2 cm is called a(n):

a)

ecchymosis

b)

petechia

c)

infarct

d)

purpura

24.

1.      All pyogens have the ability to enter the blood circulation causing. BACTEREMIA

a)

bacteremia

b)

bacteremia

25.

Alterations of cell growth, specifically an abnormal proliferation of cells, is called:

a)

dysplasia

b)

hyperplasia

c)

aplasia

d)

neoplasia

26.

An accumulation of blood trapped within the body tissues is known as a(an):

a)

hematoma

b)

pleural effusion.

c)

ecchymosis

d)

petechiae

27.

An accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the intercellular tissue throughout the body is called:

a)

elephantiasis

b)

bacteremia

c)

anasarca

d)

filariasis

28.

An inflammation associated with pus formation is:

a)

hyperemia

b)

phagocytosis

c)

suppurative

d)

bacteremia

29.

Assessing the aggressiveness or degree of malignancy is referred to as:

a)

metastatic

b)

staging

c)

grading

d)

seeding

30.

Benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in a glandlike pattern are:

a)

adenomas

b)

cystadenomas

c)

fibromas

d)

adenocarcinomas

31.

Bleeding into mucous membranes or serosal surfaces is referred to as:

a)

purpura

b)

petechiae

c)

hemorrhage

d)

ecchymosis

32.

Chronic inflammation in a localized area, which often has centralized necrosis, is called:

a)

an exudate

b)

hyperplasia.

c)

an abscess.

d)

a granuloma

33.

1.      Connective tissue fibers replacing dead tissue and then contracting in the abdomen are known as: FIBROUS ADHESIONS

a)

FIBROUS ADHESIONS

b)

FIBROUS ADHESIONS

34.

An inflammatory exudate caused by pneumococcus causing the affected lung to appear solid is called:

a)

alveolar pneumonia.

b)

interstitial pneumonia.

c)

bronchopneumonia.

d)

viral pneumonia

35.

Asbestos fibers cause major fibrosis resulting in:

a)

pleural plaques

b)

pulmonary edema

c)

black lung.

d)

pleural effusion.

36.

Chronic histoplasmosis has a radiographic appearance similar to:

a)

pneumoconiosis

b)

pneumonia

c)

tuberculosis

d)

pleural effusion

37.

Coccidioidomycosis is:

a)

caused by fungal exposure

b)

n example of pulmonary mycosis

c)

caused by viral exposure

38.

Common allergens causing a widespread narrowing of the airways are:

a)

asthma

b)

histoplasmosis

c)

bronchitis

d)

pneumonia

39.

viral infection of the subglottic region of the trachea

a)

croup

b)

asthma

c)

bronchitis

40.

External respiration takes place within the:

a)

bronchioles

b)

alveoli

c)

trachea

d)

bronchi

41.

For what purpose is a chest radiograph obtained after endotracheal tube insertion?

a)

To check for pneumonia

b)

To ensure proper placement/position

c)

To check for puncture of the trachea

d)

All of these are reasons to obtain a chest radiograph after endotracheal tube insertion

42.

Histoplasmosis and coccidioidomycosis are examples of:

a)

lung abscesses.

b)

pneumonia

c)

pneumoconiosis

d)

pulmonary mycoses

43.

Infected fluid in the pleural cavity is a(n):

a)

empyema

b)

lung abscess

c)

pleural effusion

d)

atelectasis

44.

Inflammation caused by bacillus (mycobacterium) resulting in lesions (or cavities) that may calcify and are usually found in the apices is known as:

a)

tuberculosis

b)

bronchogenic carcinoma

c)

pneumonia

d)

cystic fibrosis

45.

Inhaled foreign substances retained permanently in the acini causing irreversible damage is:

a)

pneumoconiosis

b)

pulmonary mycosis.

c)

bronchitis

d)

pneumonia

46.

A fracture resulting from a weakness in the bone caused by a tumor or infection is known as what type of fracture?

a)

Pathologic

b)

Fatigue

c)

Stress

d)

Greenstick

47.

A fracture usually caused by falling on an outstretched hand resulting in posterior displacement of the distal fragment of the radius is a:

a)

Colles’ fracture

b)

Smith’s fracture

c)

Monteggia’s fracture

d)

Boxer’s fracture

48.

A pattern of lytic and sclerotic new bone growth, with a flattening of the femoral head, associated with periosteal new bone is suggestive of:

a)

tuberculous arthritis.

b)

ischemic necrosis

c)

fibrous dysplasia.

d)

achondroplasia

49.

A rare hereditary bone dysplasia involving the bone resorption mechanism of calcified cartilage is:

a)

osteopetrosis

b)

osteoporosis

c)

osteomalacia

d)

osteogenesis imperfecta

50.

A true osteochondroma grows laterally from the epiphysis and:

a)

has an ectopic cartilaginous growth.

b)

appears as an eccentric lucent lesion.

c)

often arises from the outer table of the skull

d)

must exhibit a cortex and medullary portion

51.

A vertebra with characteristics of more than one major division of the spine is called:

a)

a transitional vertebra

b)

spondylolisthesis

c)

spina bifida

d)

spondylolysis

52.

A weblike arrangement of marrow-filled spaces separated by thin bone is:

a)

cancellous bone.

b)

compact bone

c)

dense bone.

d)

cortical bone

53.

An expansile lucent lesion demonstrating a sharp demarcation from normal adjacent bone having a thin sclerotic rim is an:

a)

osteochondroma

b)

unicameral cyst.v

c)

osteoma

d)

aneurysmal cyst.

54.

An inherited disorder of connective tissue characterized by multiple fractures is:

a)

osteopetrosis

b)

rickets

c)

osteoporosis

d)

osteogenesis imperfecta

55.

Blood levels with an increased uric acid leading to deposits of crystals in the joints and cartilage is:

a)

gout

b)

osteomalacia

c)

Paget’s disease

d)

rheumatoid arthritis.

56.

Body weight on weight-bearing long bones may bend or bow as a result of softened bones in cases of:

a)

achondroplasia

b)

osteoporosis

c)

osteomalacia

d)

rickets

57.

Bone that develops within the connective tissue is called:

a)

epiphyseal growth.

b)

ossification

c)

intramembranous ossification.

d)

appositional growth.

58.

Discontinuity of two or more fragments is considered a(n):

a)

nonunion fracture.

b)

incomplete fracture.

c)

complete fracture

d)

open fracture

59.

For brittle bone disease, the radiographer should:

a)

make no change in factors

b)

decrease the exposure factors

c)

change to high-speed screens

d)

increase the exposure factors.

60.

About 60% of pancreatic cancers occur in the tail of the pancreas.

a)

true

b)

false

61.

Acquired tracheoesophageal (TE) fistulas are commonly caused by:

a)

Barrett’s esophagus.

b)

malignancy in the mediastinum.

c)

gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

d)

portal hypertension.

62.

An increase in glucose in the blood stimulates the beta cells in the _____ to secrete _____

a)

pancreas; insulin

b)

liver; glycogen

c)

liver; insulin

d)

pancreas; glucagon

63.

Ascites is a common complication of liver cirrhosis.

a)

true

b)

false

64.

Crohn’s disease most commonly occurs in geriatric patients.

a)

true

b)

false

65.

Deglutition is defined as:

a)

liquid waste excretion

b)

rhythmic contractions that move digestive contents through the GI tract.

c)

chewing

d)

swallowing.

66.

Difficulty swallowing is termed

a)

mastication.

b)

dysphagia.

c)

aphasia.

d)

deglutition.

67.

Dilated veins in the walls of the esophagus are termed:

a)

achalasia

b)

varices

c)

dysphagia

d)

diverticula

68.

Esophageal atresia and TE fistula are often associated with other congenital malformations of the skeletal, cardiovascular, and gastrointestinal systems.

a)

true

b)

false

69.

Esophageal carcinoma is often detected early and carries a good prognosis.

a)

true

b)

false

70.

Esophageal varices are most commonly caused by a malfunction of the lower esophageal sphincter.

a)

true

b)

false

71.

Failure of a satisfactory esophageal lumen to develop separate from the trachea is termed:

a)

tracheoesophageal fistula

b)

hiatal hernia.

c)

Barrett’s esophagus

d)

achalasia

72.

GERD is a common complication of hiatal hernia.

a)

true

b)

false

73.

Gastric cancer is relatively rare in the United States.

a)

true

b)

false

74.

Hepatocellular carcinoma is more common in persons with cirrhosis.

a)

true

b)

false

75.

Hepatocellular carcinoma most commonly occurs in patients with:

a)

diffuse hepatocellular disease

b)

porcelain gallbladder

c)

chronic hepatitis

d)

portal hypertension.

76.

A cystic dilatation of the distal ureter near its insertion into the urinary bladder is called a:

a)

ureterocele.

b)

pyelonephritis.

c)

renal cyst.

d)

ureteral aneurysm

77.

A hypoplastic kidney is a small third kidney and a rare developmental anomaly

a)

true

b)

false

78.

A miniature replica of a kidney is termed:

a)

compensatory hypertrophy

b)

supernumerary kidney.

c)

ectopic kidney

d)

hypoplastic kidney.

79.

A nonsuppurative inflammatory process involving the tuft of capillaries within the Bowman’s capsule is called:

a)

papillary necrosis

b)

ureterocele.

c)

pyelonephritis.

d)

glomerulonephritis.

80.

A rare anomaly in which a kidney fails to develop is called

a)

unilateral renal agenesis

b)

hypoplastic kidney.

c)

compensatory hypertrophy

d)

supernumerary kidney.

81.

A rare anomaly in which there is a third, rudimentary kidney is termed:

a)

compensatory hypertrophy.

b)

supernumerary kidney.

c)

hypoplastic kidney.

d)

an ectopic kidney.

82.

A smaller than normal amount of urine is termed:

a)

hematuria.

b)

polyuria

c)

oliguria

d)

dysuria

83.

A suppurative inflammatory process of the kidney and renal pelvis is termed:

a)

pyelonephritis

b)

cystitis

c)

papillary necrosis.

d)

glomerulonephritis

84.

Blockage above the level of the bladder causes dilatation of the renal pelvicalyceal system, which is called:

a)

glomerulonephritis

b)

cystitis

c)

hypernephroma

d)

hydronephrosis

85.

Calcium deposits within the renal parenchyma are termed:

a)

nephrocalcinosis

b)

staghorn calculus

c)

glomerulonephritis.

d)

nephrolithiasis

86.

Chronic cystitis is evidenced radiographically by a decrease in bladder size and wall irregularity.

a)

true

b)

false

87.

Ectopic kidney describes when a kidney fails to develop.

a)

true

b)

false

88.

Glomerulonephritis is the most common nosocomial infection.

a)

true

b)

false

89.

Horseshoe kidney is the most common fusion anomaly of the urinary system.

a)

true

b)

false

90.

In an average person, the nephrons filter about _____ L of water out of glomerular blood each day.

a)

190

b)

80

c)

2

d)

10

91.

the healing of fracture fragments in a faulty position is

a)

malunion

b)

delayed union

c)

nonunion

d)

external reduction

92.

the hollow tube like structure within the diaphysis is the

a)

medullary cavity

b)

meduallry cavity

93.

the most common form of dwarfism, caused by decrease enchondral bone formation, is

a)

achondroplasia

b)

achondroplasia

94.

Malignant bone lesions cause sift-tissue swelling and

a)

cortical bone erosion causing a poorly defined margin

b)

cortical bone erosion causing a poorly defined margin

95.

insufficient mineralization of the adult skeleton appearing as a loss of bone density is

a)

osteomalacia

b)

osteblast

c)

idk