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WorksheetsA+ group 1 Questions
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
In which Macintosh OS X version was the Siri digital assistant introduced?
a)
10.7 Lion
b)
10.11 El Capitan
c)
10.12 Sierra
d)
10.14 Mojave
2.
Which Mac OS feature stores and manages passwords for applications, web sites, and network shares?
a)
Finder
b)
iCloud
c)
Keychain
d)
Mission Control
3.
Which of the following is true about Linux?
a)
It can be distributed both commercially and non-commercially
b)
It is only distributed non-commercially
c)
It is used only for desktops and servers
d)
It is used on mobile and embedded devices as well as desktops and servers
e)
It usually only has a command line interface
4.
Linux is an operating system that runs on only desktop and laptop computers.
a)
true
b)
false
5.
Which Linux command would you use to show the directory you're currently in (the working directory)?
a)
cd
b)
ls
c)
mw
d)
pwd
6.
What advantages does an embedded operating system have over a workstation operating system?
a)
Better for connecting to remote computers
b)
Broader compatibility with user-installed applications
c)
Can run on less powerful hardware
d)
Easier to support
e)
More built-in services
7.
You have a computer with Windows 7 on it. You need to upgrade it to Windows 8.1 and deploy it to a new employee. Which is the best upgrade type for this situation?
a)
Clean installation
b)
In-place upgrade
c)
Either, depending on user account type
d)
Either, depending on whether you're booting locally or from the network
8.
There is no way to upgrade from Windows 7 to Windows 8.1 and preserve the existing user files, such as documents and photos, and most (if not all) of the current system settings, including applications, networking settings, hard disk configuration, and device settings.
a)
true
b)
false
9.
Which of the following boot methods can be used to install Mac OS from a network location?
a)
Netboot
b)
Netexe
c)
PXE
d)
USB device
10.
Which installation type can be used for identical operating system installations to multiple computers?
a)
Clean
b)
Image deployment
c)
Multiboot
d)
Remote network
e)
Unattended
11.
Master Boot Record Partitions can't support hard disks that are larger than what size?
a)
2 MB
b)
2 GB
c)
2 TB
d)
2 PB
12.
How many primary partitions are supported by MBR?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
8
d)
unlimited
13.
Which file system is used on Linux?
a)
ext4
b)
exFAT
c)
FAT32
d)
NTFS
e)
UDF
14.
You want to install an application on a computer that has no internet connection, but the software is only available as an internet download. You hope you can download it to a USB flash drive from another computer, then put it on the target system. What kind of installer would this NOT work for?
a)
Online installer
b)
Portable app
c)
Source code
d)
Standalone installer
15.
What type of software can you modify and redistribute freely?
a)
Commercial license software
b)
Open source software
c)
Any software
d)
No software
16.
Which of the following governs software ownership rights and what the purchaser (the end user) may do with what he or she has purchased?
a)
DRM
b)
EULA
17.
You're not really familiar with this scripting language, but one variable was defined as a "string" data type. What does that mean?
a)
It can be any whole number
b)
It can be any fractional number
c)
It can be any combination of alphanumeric characters
d)
It is an ordered set of values, rather than one single value.
e)
It is defined by the operating system or scripting language, rather than by the script itself.
18.
You see a # character in a .sh script. What can you guess about the text immediately following it?
a)
It defines a variable
b)
It is a comment
c)
It is a conditional statement
d)
It is part of a loop
19.
Which Windows utility do you use to access system tools such as Event Viewer and Device Manager?
a)
Component Services
b)
Disk Management
c)
Microsoft Management Console
d)
Windows Services
20.
Which administrative tool can you use to check your computer's health or troubleshoot problems with the operating system or software?
a)
Component Services
b)
Disk Management
c)
Event Viewer
d)
Performance Monitor
21.
Which system utility can you use to troubleshoot a computer that's slow to start by enabling or disabling startup programs?
a)
Disk Management
b)
DXDIAG
c)
MSCONFIG
d)
SERVICES MSC
22.
If you have an application that is not responding and you want to force it to shut down, which system utility can you use?
a)
Disk Management
b)
MSCONFIG
c)
Services
d)
Task Manager
23.
What RAID types can you implement in software using Windows tools?
a)
RAID 0
b)
RAID 1
c)
RAID 5
d)
RAID 6
e)
RAID 10
24.
You want to use Windows Update to update other Microsoft applications such as Office. Which of the following is true?
a)
No, you must use Office Update instead
b)
Yes, provided you enable it in Windows Update options
c)
Yes, provided you have Windows 8.1 or later
d)
Yes, provided you have Windows 8.1 or earlier
25.
Which switch is used with the FORMAT command to create the label DATA to show up in Windows Explorer?
a)
/FS
b)
/N
c)
/Q
d)
/V
26.
Which Control Panel utility would you use to troubleshoot a printer issue?
a)
Device Manager
b)
Devices and Printers
c)
Printers
d)
Programs and Features
27.
You would like to set your user's Internet Explorer home page to your company's local intranet. Which Control Panel utility would you use to accomplish this?
a)
Device Manager
b)
Folder Options
c)
Internet Options
d)
Network and Sharing Center
e)
Programs and Features
28.
Which utility is no longer in the Control Panel in Windows 10?
a)
Devices and Printers
b)
Display
c)
Power options
d)
System
29.
When configuring laptop power options, what happens when you close the lid is the same as what happens when you press the power button.
a)
true
b)
false
30.
Which Windows Firewall option is useful when you're troubleshooting network connectivity to determine if a change you made is affecting connectivity?
a)
Allow a program or feature through Windows Firewall
b)
Change notification settings
c)
Restore defaults
d)
Turn Windows Firewall on or off
31.
Which tasks can you easily access from the System utility?
a)
Allow or deny remote access
b)
Change the computer name
c)
Create user accounts
d)
Uninstall applications
e)
View installed hardware
32.
If you want to copy a subfolder and its contents from one location to another, which file management command would you use?
a)
COPY
b)
MD
c)
MOVE
d)
XCOPY
33.
To get help with a particular command's syntax and parameters/options, simply type the command /?.
a)
true
b)
false
34.
Which disk management command would you use to check your hard disk for corrupt files and repair them?
a)
bootrec
b)
diskpart
c)
chkdsk
d)
sfc
35.
Which command can you use to repair your Windows installation?
a)
bootrec
b)
chkdsk
c)
gpupdate
d)
sfc
36.
What command will change a Linux Terminal session to administrator privileges?
a)
admin
b)
cls
c)
su
d)
sudo
37.
When troubleshooting failure to boot and "missing operating system" error messages, which steps would you take?
a)
Verify in the BIOS/UEFI that the computer is booting to hard disk or device with a system partition.
b)
Boot to safe mode, if possible. Use Event Viewer to attempt to isolate the problem. Use Device Manager to investigate and repair problems with devices and drivers.
c)
Boot to the Windows Recovery Environment and use REGEDIT or REGEDT32 to restore the Registry from backup. If you can't use Win RE, use the command prompt.
d)
Use MSCONFIG to choose different types of startups to help isolate which files or services might be causing startup problems.
38.
Which system utility would you use to repair the computer if it continues to improperly shutdown after a reboot?
a)
Device Manager
b)
REGEDIT
c)
REGSRV32
d)
System File Checker
39.
Which can cause a kernel panic error to occur on a Macintosh computer?
a)
Application error
b)
Hardware or software failure
c)
Insufficient memory
d)
Slow processor
40.
GRUB is the boot loader in newer Linux systems.
a)
true
b)
false
41.
What scope of network is most often controlled by a single user?
a)
LAN
b)
MAN
c)
PAN
d)
WAN
42.
Most small LANs today incorporate both peer-to-peer and client-server elements.
a)
true
b)
false
43.
What TCP/IP layer does an Ethernet card operate on?
a)
Application
b)
Internet
c)
Network Interface
d)
Transport
44.
Your LAN has a high collision rate. What devices could segment the network and reduce collisions?
a)
Hub
b)
Repeater
c)
Router
d)
Switch
45.
Which of the following are true about bridges?
a)
Bridges cannot join two different link layer protocols.
b)
Bridges reduce network collisions.
c)
Bridges separate IP subnets
d)
Switches are bridges with more than two ports.
e)
Wireless access points are bridges between Wi-Fi and Ethernet networks.
46.
A "cable modem" is a modem in the sense that it connects to the Internet, but isn't a modem in the technical sense.
a)
true
b)
false
47.
You had two VLANs configured on a 24-port switch, but you've just changed it to three. Ports 1-10 are on VLAN #1, Ports 11-16 on #2, and ports 17-24 on #3. What kind of assignment are you using?
a)
Dynamic
b)
Static
c)
Trunked
d)
Variable
48.
In network terms, all wireless access points are also routers.
a)
true
b)
false
49.
Which of the following statements are true?
a)
By definition, you are responsible for all devices on your side of the demarc.
b)
By definition, your ISP is responsible for all devices outside of the demarc.
c)
Sometimes devices on your side of the demarc might still be your ISP's responsibility.
d)
"The local loop" refers to the customer side of the demarc.
e)
"The local loop" refers to the ISP side of the demarc.
50.
What Internet connection technology uses the same wires as your analog phone line, but a separate communications channel?
a)
Cable
b)
Dialup
c)
DSL
d)
ISDN
51.
How many data channels are there in a BRI ISDN connection?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
23
d)
30
52.
What cables use balanced-pair signaling?
a)
Coaxial
b)
Twisted-pair
c)
Both
d)
Neither
53.
What would be reasonable termination methods for a patch cable between a PC and a switch?
a)
Crossover
b)
RJ-11
c)
RJ-25
d)
T568A
e)
T568B
54.
Why is it necessary that each pair of electrical signals on a twisted-pair cable corresponds to one physical wire pair?
a)
Because each pair has a slightly different length.
b)
Because otherwise it would be difficult to terminate the cable.
c)
Because otherwise it won't reduce crosstalk.
d)
Because the shielding won't be grounded properly otherwise.
55.
You know there's a fault somewhere on that 100m cable, but it looks fine from the outside. What tool would be the quickest way to guess how exactly where the flaw is?
a)
Loopback plug
b)
Multimeter
c)
Time-domain reflectometer
d)
Toner Probe
56.
A coworker tells you a connection is unreliable and intermittent. Before even looking at it, what causes can you rule out?
a)
Attenuation due to cable length
b)
Crossover cable used by mistake
c)
Crosstalk between wire pairs
d)
External interference
e)
Set to half-duplex
57.
You're supposed to buy some Cat 6 cable to install new network drops, but the site you're buying from lists cables by ISO standards. Which kind should you buy?
a)
Class C
b)
Class D
c)
Class E
d)
Class F
58.
In general, what does the RG number of a coaxial cable correspond to?
a)
Its frequency
b)
Its impedance
c)
Its maximum length
d)
None of the above
59.
In general, cable television uses a threaded F connector, while cable Internet uses a BNC connector.
a)
true
b)
false
60.
What cable standard is acceptable for an older cable television link, but shouldn't be used on a cable modem?
a)
RG-6
b)
RG-8
c)
RG-11
d)
RG-59
61.
You're at a meeting discussing whether to deploy single-mode or multimode fiber in a new installation. Which of the following arguments should you make?
a)
Multimode transceivers are less expensive.
b)
Multimode fibers can carry multiple signals.
c)
Multimode works over longer distances.
d)
Single-mode transceivers are less expensive.
e)
Single-mode works over longer distances.
62.
What connector type is square-bodied with a single fiber?
a)
FC
b)
MT-RJ
c)
SC
d)
ST
63.
You can use a coupler to join two optical inputs to one output, but only if they're the same wavelength.
a)
true
b)
false
64.
While the optical cables in the closet are outwardly identical, some have green connectors, and some have blue. Which is likely true?
a)
Blue is angled and green is straight
b)
Blue is MMF and green is SMF
c)
Blue is SMF and green is MMF
d)
Blue is straight and green is angled
65.
What protocol is used to find the MAC address of a given IP address? Choose the best response.
a)
ARP
b)
DHCP
c)
APIPA
d)
DNS
66.
Which IPv4 address might be valid on the Internet? Choose the best response.
a)
127.0.0.1
b)
150.50.101.32
c)
169.254.121.68
d)
192.168.52.52
67.
Which of the following subnet masks are valid? Choose all that apply.
a)
255.0.0.0.0
b)
255.0.255.0
c)
255.255.224.0
d)
255.255.16.0
e)
255.255.255.0
68.
What will any link-local IPv6 address begin with? Choose the best answer.
a)
0000:
b)
83.33333333333333
c)
fe80:
d)
ff0e:
69.
You're in the process of migrating the corporate network to IPv6, but it's going to take a while. You've been told to configure the network such that any two hosts will communicate via IPv6 if the path between them is compatible, but they'll automatically use IPv4 if it isn't. What migration strategy does this describe? Choose the best answer.
a)
Dual stack
b)
IPAM
c)
NAT
d)
Tunneling
70.
For a local server, you might not need the full domain name to perform a DNS lookup.
a)
true
b)
false
71.
What kind of communications would be suitable for UDP? Choose all that apply.
a)
DNS requests
b)
File transfers
c)
Online games
d)
Streaming video
e)
Website connections
72.
Your company's custom server software application needs a TCP port to listen on. What port range should it be configured to use? Choose the best answer.
a)
Ephemeral
b)
Private
c)
System
d)
User
73.
Which port is important for sending email? Choose the best response.
a)
21
b)
23
c)
25
d)
53
74.
What kind of server is used to relay communications between LAN hosts and internet hosts? Choose the best response.
a)
DNS
b)
Proxy
c)
Syslog
d)
Web
75.
Which protocol can you use to remotely manage a network switch? Choose the best answer.
a)
CIFS
b)
RDP
c)
SMTP
d)
SNMP
76.
What protocol would you use to connect to a shared drive on another Windows system? Choose the best answer.
a)
AFP
b)
FTP
c)
SMB
d)
SNMP
77.
HTTPS adds security to HTTP and uses a different port, but otherwise is fundamentally the same. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
78.
Which protocol lets you log securely into a command line terminal interface?
a)
FTP
b)
LDAP
c)
SSH
d)
Telnet
79.
You want to create a point-to-point wireless link between two buildings which are rather far apart. Your goals are to keep a strong signal between the two transceivers without sending too much signal elsewhere. What antenna style should you use for each?
a)
Dipole
b)
MIMO
c)
Monopole
d)
Yagi
80.
MIMO devices use multiple antennas transmitting on different channels to boost bandwidth.
a)
true
b)
false
81.
While you can make a radio conversation full-duplex, Wi-Fi is always half-duplex.
a)
true
b)
false
82.
How does the 5GHz band differ from the 2.4GHz band?
a)
Fewer non-overlapping channels
b)
Less interference from non-Wi-Fi sources
c)
Longer range
d)
More interference from non-Wi-Fi sources
e)
More non-overlapping channels
83.
You're placing multiple overlapping Wi-Fi hotspots in your US office. What channels can you use to avoid overlap?
a)
1, 4, 7, and 10
b)
1, 6, and 11
c)
1, 6, 11, and 14
d)
2, 7, and 12
e)
4, 9, and 14
84.
You want to set up a wireless network to control your household lighting, thermostat, and security system. What technology would you most likely use?
a)
ANT+
b)
Bluetooth
c)
RFID
d)
Z-Wave
85.
What Wi-Fi standard can operate in either the 2.4GHz or 5GHz band? Choose the best response.
a)
802.11a
b)
802.11b
c)
802.11g
d)
802.11n
e)
802.11ac
86.
Enabling WPS makes your wireless network
a)
Less convenient to connect to, but more secure
b)
More convenient to connect to, but less secure
c)
Less convenient and less secure
d)
More convenient and more secure
87.
WPA-Enterprise uses stronger encryption algorithms than WPA-Personal.
a)
true
b)
false
88.
You're setting up a small office LAN, and you want individual users to independently share individual folders and printers. What kind of sharing model should you use?
a)
Domain
b)
Homegroup
c)
Private
d)
Workgroup
89.
What network locations have network discovery enabled by default?
a)
Domain
b)
Home
c)
Private
d)
Work
e)
Public
90.
What can you manage with the net command?
a)
Network print jobs
b)
Network security settings
c)
Network shares
d)
Windows services
e)
Wireless network connections
91.
Your office has enabled workgroup sharing of files and printers, and for security reasons password-protected file sharing will remain on. What rules will you need to keep in mind when supporting user problems?
a)
Once a folder is shared, it's uploaded to a central file servers.
b)
To access network resources, you must know a user name and password for the specific host computer.
c)
To access network resources, you must know a shared password.
d)
You can only access folders if the computer which originally shared them is powered on and connected to the network.
e)
Your user name and password are good across the entire workgroup.
92.
Your enterprise LAN uses a VPN so that users working from home can access shared Windows folders in the office, but it doesn't work as well for travelling employees in locations with unreliable or no internet access. What steps could remote users take to keep access to important folders on the road?
a)
Change the network location to Work
b)
Configure a homegroup
c)
Designate those folders as offline files
d)
Map the shared folders as a network drive
93.
Users from your office want to connect to the workplace LAN through their existing home internet connections. What kind of connection would allow them to do it?
a)
Dial-up
b)
PPPoE
c)
VLAN
d)
VPN
94.
Your company doesn't use Internet Explorer any more. Why should you still know how to configure its browser options?
a)
To configure dialup connections
b)
To configure proxy settings
c)
To manually connect to wireless networks
d)
To use Remote Assistance
95.
Which window would show you bindings for "Local Area Connection 2"?
a)
Ethernet Properties
b)
Local Area Connection 2 Properties
c)
Local Area Connection 2 Status
d)
Network Connections
96.
You need to make sure an adapter is configured to use the network's QoS settings. Which advanced Ethernet property should you check?
a)
Duplexing
b)
MTU
c)
Priority
d)
WoL
97.
Which is true when configuring a static IPv4 address for a Windows workstation?
a)
You can still use DHCP configuration for IPv6.
b)
You can use DHCP to configure a DNS server automatically.
c)
You must also configure a valid default gateway.
d)
You must manually configure a DNS server.
e)
Your IPv6 address must also be manually configured.
98.
Which Windows editions can receive incoming Remote Desktop connections?
a)
Windows 7 Home Premium
b)
Windows 7 Professional
c)
Windows 8.1
d)
Windows 10 Pro
99.
Which network tools are found in Windows but not typically in Unix-like operating systems?
a)
ifconfig
b)
ipconfig
c)
nbtstat
d)
ping
e)
traceroute
100.
You can't ping any other hosts, even on the local subnet. What should you check next?
a)
Application settings
b)
DNS server
c)
IP address settings
d)
MTU settings
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