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Practice Quiz #6

Total questions: 169

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Match the abnormal condition with the physician/specialist

a)

Cardiologist

b)

Gastroenterologist

c)

Hematologist

d)

Oncologist

2.

Match the condition to the physician/specialist

Ovarian Cysts

a)

Neurologist

b)

Gynecologist

c)

Urologist

d)

Ophthalmologist

3.

Match the abnormal condition with the physician/specialist

Bipolar Disorder

a)

Nephrologist

b)

Gastroenterologist

c)

Psychiatrist

d)

Cardiologist

4.

Match the abnormal condition to the physician/specialist

breast adenocarcinoma

a)

Urologist

b)

Cardiologist

c)

Gastroenterologist

d)

Oncologist

5.

Match the abnormal condition to the physician/specialist

Iron Deficiency Anemia

a)

Hematologist

b)

Urologist

c)

Psychiatrist

d)

Cardiologist

6.

Match the abnormal condition to the physician/specialist

Retinopathy

a)

Neurologist

b)

Gastroenterologist

c)

Ophthalmologist

d)

Cardiologist

7.

Match the abnormal condition to the physician/specialist

CVA - Cerebrovascular Accident

a)

Nephrologist

b)

Urologist

c)

Neurologist

d)

Hematologist

8.

Match the abnormal condition to the physician/specialist

Renal Failure

a)

Nephrologist

b)

Neurologist

c)

Psychiatrist

d)

Urologist

9.

Match the abnormal condition to the physician/specialist

Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBS/IBD)

a)

neurologist

b)

gastroenterologist

c)

psychiatrist

d)

hematologist

10.

Match the abnormal condition to the physician/specialist

Prostatic Adenocarcinoma

a)

Oncologist

b)

Ophthalmologist

c)

Neurologist

d)

Gastroenterologist

11.

Front of the Body

a)

Dorsal (Posterior)

b)

Anterior (Ventral)

c)

Deep

d)

Lateral

12.

Back Side of the Body

a)

Lateral

b)

Dorsal (Posterior)

c)

Anterior(Ventral)

d)

Deep

13.

Away from the surface (the stab wound went deep into the abdomen)

a)

Deep

b)

Supine

c)

Inferior

d)

Superior

14.

On the Surface

a)

Deep

b)

Superficial

c)

Medial

d)

Distal

15.

Near the point of attachment to the trunk or near the beginning of a structure.

a)

Deep

b)

Superficial

c)

Medial

d)

Proximal

16.

Far from the point of attachment to the trunk or far from the beginning of a structure

a)

Superficial

b)

Medial

c)

Proximal

d)

Distal

17.

Below another structure

a)

Superior

b)

Inferior

c)

Proximal

d)

Distal

18.

Pertaining to the middle, or nearer the medial plane of the body.

a)

Supine

b)

Medial

c)

Prone

d)

Proximal

19.

Pertaining to the side

a)

Lateral

b)

Medial

c)

Prone

d)

Proximal

20.

Lying on the belly

a)

Distal

b)

Medial

c)

Prone

d)

Supine

21.

-cele

a)

pain

b)

hernia

c)

inflammation

d)

to form

22.

A method used to determine the karyotype of a fetus

a)

Mastectomy

b)

Amniocentesis

c)

Paracentesis

d)

Laparotomy

23.

What does myalgia mean?

a)

Muscle Pain

b)

Resection of the voice box

c)

To hold back blood from cells

d)

berry-shaped bacteria in twisted chains

24.

What are berry-shaped bacteria in clusters

a)

Mastectomy

b)

Cytocele

c)

Ischemia

d)

Staphylocci

25.

What is a mononuclear white blood cell that destroys foreign cells by making antibodies?

a)

Lymphocyte

b)

Monocyte

c)

Thrombocyte

d)

Baseophil

26.

-logy

a)

Process of study

b)

Enlargement

c)

Breakdown

d)

Process of disease

27.

to stop, control

a)

-tomy

b)

-oid

c)

-stasis

d)

-ole

28.

shrinkage of cells

a)

Hypertrophy

b)

Metastasis

c)

Atrophy

d)

Laprascopy

29.

small artery

a)

Venules

b)

Arterioles

c)

Inguinal

d)

Ptosis

30.

small vein

a)

Ptosis

b)

Arterioles

c)

Venules

d)

Inguinal

31.

Dr. Tate felt that Mrs. Snow's condition of thrombocytopenia was a clear __________ of surgery.

a)

analysis

b)

contraindication

c)

synthesis

d)

indication

32.

Medical science was revolutionized by the introduction of ______ in the 1940's. Now some infections can be treated with only one dose.

a)

antigens

b)

antibodies

c)

antibiotics

d)

antivirals

33.

When some one cannot sleep?

a)

malaise

b)

insomnia

c)

dialysis

d)

narcolepsy

34.

During her pregnancy, Mrs. Payne described pressure on her _________, making it difficult for her to find a comfortable position, even when seated.

a)

parathyroid gland

b)

pituitary gland

c)

thymus

d)

pubic symphysis

35.

What is low blood sugar called?

a)

hyperplasia

b)

hyperglycemia

c)

hypoglycemia

d)

anemia

36.

After hiking in the Grand Canyon without an adequate water supply, Julie was experiencing _______?

a)

hypothyroidism

b)

dehydration

c)

hyperglycemia

d)

hypertension

37.

After running a marathon, Elizabeth felt nauseated & dizzy. She was experiencing ________ & drank a sports drink containing sugar, which made her feel better.

a)

malaise

b)

dysphoria

c)

hypoglycemia

d)

euphoria

38.

Puerperal fever was an iatrogenic infection; it was carried from one woman to another by the doctor before the days of _____?

a)

antisepsis techniques

b)

antibodies

c)

antigens

d)

anemia

39.

+

Symptoms that come before an actual illness

a)

symbiotic

b)

exophthalmic

c)

prodrome

d)

psychosis

40.

Dysplastic nevi on a patient's skin may be ______ a sign of malignant skin cancer called melanoma

a)

precancerous

b)

metastic

c)

unilateral

d)

bilateral

41.

microscopic fiber leading from the cell body that carries the nervous impulse along the nerve cell

a)

astrocyte

b)

cauda equina

c)

axon

d)

dendrite

42.

large, interlacing network of nerves

a)

oligodendroglial cell

b)

plexus

c)

neuron

d)

dendrite

43.

three protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord

a)

myelin sheath

b)

cauda equina

c)

dendrite

d)

meninges

44.

microscopic branching fiber of a nerve cell that is the first part to receive the nervous impulse

a)

dendrite

b)

cerebral cortex

c)

neuron

d)

astrocyte

45.

outer region of the largest part of the brain; composed of gray matter

a)

myelin sheath

b)

plexus

c)

cerberal cortex

d)

oligodendroglial cell

46.

glial cell that transports water and salts between capillaries and nerve cells

a)

astrocyte

b)

axon

c)

cauda equina

d)

meninges

47.

glial cell that produces myelin

a)

neuron

b)

axon

c)

astrocyte

d)

oligodendroglial cell

48.

a nerve cell that transmits a nerve impulse

a)

plexus

b)

neuron

c)

dendrite

d)

axon

49.

collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord at the level of the second lumbar vertebra

a)

myelin sheath

b)

cauda equina

c)

cerebral cortex

d)

meninges

50.

fatty tissue that surrounds the axon of a nerve cell

a)

cauda equina

b)

meninges

c)

plexus

d)

myelin sheath

51.

Destruction of myelin sheath and replaced by hard placques

a)

multiple sclerosis

b)

Alzheimer disease

c)

Bell palsy

d)

myelomeningocele

52.

Patient displays bizarre, abrupt, involuntary, dance-like movements, as well as decline in mental functions

a)

Huntington disease

b)

Alzheimer disease

c)

Parkinson disease

d)

Bell Palsy

53.

Degeneration of nerves in the basal ganglia occurring in later life, leading to tremors, shuffling gait, and muscle stiffness; dopamine is deficient in the brain

a)

Parkinson disease

b)

Alzheimer disease

c)

Bell Palsy

d)

Multiple sclerosis

54.

Deterioration of mental capacity (dementia); autopsy shows cerebral cortex atrophy, widening of cerebral sulci, and microscopic neurofibrillary tangles:

a)

Alzheimer disease

b)

Huntington disease

c)

Parkinson disease

d)

Multiple sclerosis

55.

Give the Meaning of: cyanosis

4 lines
56.

Give the meaning of phlebotomy:

4 lines
57.

What is arterial anastomosis?

4 lines
58.

What is cardiogenic shock?

4 lines
59.

What is atheroma?

4 lines
60.

What is an arrhythmia?

4 lines
61.

What is a sphygmomanometer?

4 lines
62.

What is mitral valvulitis?

4 lines
63.

What is atherosclerosis?

4 lines
64.

What is vasodilation?

4 lines
65.

Collection of pus in the lungs is called what?

4 lines
66.

Swelling, fluid collection in the air sacs and bronchioles is called?

4 lines
67.

Abnormal condition of dust in the lungs is called?

4 lines
68.

Acute inflammation and infection of alveoli; they become filled with fluid and blood cells is called what?

4 lines
69.

Floating clot or other material blocking the blood vessels of the lung is?

4 lines
70.

An infectious disease caused by rod-shaped bacilli and producing tubercles (nodes) of infection is?

4 lines
71.

Collection of fluid in the pleural cavity is?

4 lines
72.

Inflammation of the pleura is?

4 lines
73.

Abnormal condition of coal dust in the lungs (black lung disease) is?

4 lines
74.

Malignant tumor arising in the pleura; composed of mesothelium (epithelium that covers the surfaces of membranes such as pleura and peritoneum) is?

4 lines
75.

Excessive growth of cells in the adenoids (lymph tissue in the naso pharynx) is?

4 lines
76.

phacoemulsification with IOL; OS

a)

Cataracts

b)

severe deafness

c)

chronic stye

d)

ptosis of eyelid skin

77.

Blepharoplasty

a)

retinal detachment

b)

diabetic retinopathy

c)

ptosis of eyelid skin

d)

macular degeneration

78.

scleral buckle

a)

severe deafness

b)

retinal detachment

c)

scarred & torn cornea

d)

ptosis of eyelid skin

79.

vitrectomy

a)

chronic infection of a bone behind the ear

b)

severe deafness

c)

chronic stye

d)

diabetic retinopathy

80.

radical mastoidectomy

a)

scarred & torn cornea

b)

Chronic infection of a bone behind the ear

c)

ptosis of eyelid skin

d)

severe deafness

81.

keratoplasty

a)

scarred & torn cornea

b)

retinal detachment

c)

diabetic retinopathy

d)

cataracts

82.

cochlear implant

a)

macular degeneration

b)

ptosis of eyelid skin

c)

severe deafness

d)

chronic stye

83.

laser photocoagulation of the macula

a)

diabetic retinopathy

b)

macular degeneration

c)

ptosis of eyelid skin

d)

chronic stye

84.

incision & drainage of hordeolum

a)

chronic stye

b)

severe deafness

c)

cataracts

d)

scarred & torn cornea

85.

Definition of hyperopia (hypermetropia)

(a)  

86.

Definition of Myopia

(a)  

87.

sympathomimetic; raises heart rate and blood pressure

a)

epinephrine

b)

ACTH

c)

ADH

d)

insulin

88.

promotes growth and maintenance of male sex characteristics

a)

cortisol

b)

ADH

c)

epinephrine

d)

testosterone

89.

Match the hormones with their actions:

stimulates water reabsorption by kidney tubules; decreases urine output

a)

estradio

b)

thyroxine

c)

ADH

d)

parathyroid hormone

90.

Match the hormones with their actions:

increases metabolism in body cells

a)

epinephrine

b)

estradiol

c)

aldosterone

d)

thyroxine

91.

Match the hormones with their actions:

raises blood calcium

a)

ADH

b)

parathyroid hormone

c)

cortisol

d)

insulin

92.

Match the hormone with its action:

increases reabsorption of sodium by the kidney tubules

a)

aldosterone

b)

ACTH

c)

cortisol

d)

insulin

93.

Match the hormone with its actions:

stimulates secretion of hormones from the adrenal cortex

a)

cortisol

b)

estradiol

c)

epinephrine

d)

ACTH

94.

Match the hormone with its action:

increases blood sugar

a)

testosterone

b)

cortisol

c)

insulin

d)

estradiol

95.

Match the hormone with it's action:

helps tansport glucose to cells; decrease blood sugar

a)

ACTH

b)

insulin

c)

ADH

d)

estradiol

96.

Math the hormone with the action:

develops and maintains female sex characteristics

a)

estradiol

b)

insulin

c)

cortisol

d)

ACTH

97.

Which tumor develops from a dysplastic nevus?

a)

melanoma

b)

glioma

c)

hepatoma

d)

mesolthelioma

98.

Which tumor arises from an organ located within the mediastinum?

a)

multiple myeloma

b)

hypernephroma

c)

thymoma

d)

mesothelioma

99.

Which tumor arises from an orgain in the RUQ of the abdomen?

a)

hypernephroma

b)

multiple myeloma

c)

hepatoma

d)

glioma

100.

Which tumor has types called astrocytoma, ependymoma, glioblastoma multiforme?

a)

lymphoma

b)

glioma

c)

multiple myeloma

d)

melanoma

101.

Which tumor is also known as a renal cell carcinoma?

a)

multiple myeloma

b)

melanoma

c)

mesothelioma

d)

hypernephroma

102.

Which type of cancer contains large numbers of plasma cells (bone marrow antibody-producing cells)?

a)

mesothelioma

b)

hepatoma

c)

multiple myeloma

d)

thymoma

103.

Which tumor arises from membrane cells surrounding the lungs?

a)

thymoma

b)

mesothelioma

c)

glioma

d)

lymphoma

104.

Which tumor is derived from B cell lymphocytes?

a)

lymphoma

b)

hepatoma

c)

hypernephroma

d)

multiple myeloma

105.

Meaning of "-gram"

(a)  

106.

What is the meaning of "ultra-"

(a)  

107.

what is the meaning of "vitr/o"

(a)  

108.

What does "viv/o" mean?

(a)  

109.

what does "pharmaceut/o"

(a)  

110.

what does "son/o" mean?

(a)  

111.

what does "therapeuto/o"

(a)  

112.

Derived in bone marrow

a)

coagulopathy

b)

myeloid

c)

hematocrit

d)

thrombosis

113.

Deficiency of a type of white blood cell

a)

neutropenia

b)

hematocrit

c)

coagulopathy

d)

eosinophilia

114.

Percentage of red blood cells in a volume of blood

a)

thrombocytopenia

b)

leukaphereis

c)

hematocrit

d)

eosinophilia

115.

Increase in a type of white blood cell (seen in allergies)

a)

coagulopathy

b)

leukapheresis

c)

thrombosis

d)

eosinophilia

116.

Abnormal condition of clot formation

a)

thrombocytopenia

b)

thrombosis

c)

myeloid

d)

neutropenia

117.

Separation of white blood cells from a blood sample

a)

coagulopathy

b)

thrombosis

c)

coagulopathy

d)

leukapheresis

118.

Disease of clotting process

a)

coagulopathy

b)

myeloid

c)

neutropenia

d)

thrombosis

119.

Deficiency of platelets

a)

eosinophilia

b)

thrombocytopenia

c)

hematocrit

d)

leukapheresis

120.

percentage of red blood cells in a volume of blood

(a)  

121.

microscopic examination of a core of bone marrow removed with a needle

(a)  

122.

malignant condition associated with AIDS (purplish skin nodules appear)

a)

Kaposi sacroma

b)

HIV

c)

CD4+ T cells

d)

opportunistic infections

123.

Human Immunodeficiency Virus; the retrovirus that causes AIDS

a)

HIV

b)

CD4+ T cells

c)

opportunistic infections

d)

viral load test

124.

white blood cells that are destroyed by the AIDS virus

a)

CD4 + T cells

b)

HIV

c)

Kaposi sarcoma

d)

viral load test

125.

group of infectious diseases associated with AIDS

a)

wasting syndrome

b)

opportunistic infections

c)

HAART

d)

ELISA

126.

Weight loss with decreased muscular strength, appetite, and mental activity

a)

ELISA

b)

protease inhibitor

c)

reverse transcriptase inhibitor

d)

wasting syndrome

127.

Drug used to treat AIDS by blocking an enzyme needed to make copies of HIV

a)

reverse transcriptase inhibitor

b)

Kaposi sarcoma

c)

HAART

d)

ELISA

128.

measures the amount of HIV in blood

a)

ELISA

b)

HAART

c)

HIV

d)

viral load test

129.

drug used to treat AIDS by blocking the production of an enzyme that creates new viral pieces for HIV

a)

HAART

b)

protease inhibitor

c)

ELISA

d)

Kaposi sarcoma

130.

Use of combinations of drugs to treat AIDS

a)

HAART

b)

ELISA

c)

protease inhibitor

d)

Kaposi Sarcoma

131.

Test to detect anti-HIV antibodies

a)

ELISA

b)

HAART

c)

VLT

d)

WS

132.

Bones are composed of a type of connective tissue called (a)   .

133.

Bone cells are called

(a)  

134.

The bones of a fetus re composed mainly of (a)   .

135.

Immature bone cells called (a)   produce bony tissue

136.

Large bone cells called (a)   digest bone tissue to shape the bone and smooth it out

137.

Mineral substances needed for bone development are ______ and _________.

(a)  

138.

The patella, covering the knee joint, is an example of a/an (a)   bone.

139.

Shaft of a long bone is the (a)   .

140.

Ends of a long bone are the (a)   .

(HINT: NOT plate. Plural tense)

141.

Cartilaginous area at the end of a long bone where growth takes place is the (a)   .

142.

Give the meanings: melan/o

(a)  

143.

adip/o

(a)  

144.

squam/o

(a)  

145.

xanth/o

(a)  

146.

myc/o

(a)  

147.

onych/o

(a)  

148.

pil/o

(a)  

149.

xer/o

(a)  

150.

trich/o

(a)  

151.

erythem/o

(a)  

152.

Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory drug (NSAID) is what type of medication?

a)

antidiabetic

b)

analgesic

c)

anticoagulant

d)

stimulant

153.

Antidiabetic medication is ?

a)

caffeine or amphetamines

b)

penicillin or erythromycin

c)

insulin

d)

heparin

154.

Anticoagulant medication is called what?

a)

insulin

b)

benzodiazepine

c)

heparin

d)

phenothiazine

155.

Penicillin or erythromycin is what type of medication?

a)

analgesic

b)

antihistamine

c)

antidiabetic

d)

antibiotic

156.

Which one is a stimulant?

a)

caffeine or amphetamines

b)

benzodiazepine

c)

phenothiazine

d)

insulin

157.

What type of medicine is benzodiazepine?

a)

stimulant

b)

sedative-hypnotic

c)

tranquilizer

d)

analgesic

158.

What type of medicine is phenothiazine?

a)

antibiotic

b)

insulin

c)

tranqualizer

d)

analgesic

159.

phren/o

(a)  

160.

hypn/o

(a)  

161.

somat/o

(a)  

162.

phil/o

(a)  

163.

iatr/o

(a)  

164.

schiz/o

(a)  

165.

-mania

(a)  

166.

-phobia

(a)  

167.

-thymia

(a)  

168.

-tropic

(a)  

169.

What type of medication is used to prevent anaphylactic shock?

a)

antihistamine

b)

antidiabetic

c)

stimulant

d)

tranquilizer

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