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NUR354 Exam 3 review

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the normal total cholesterol level? (No spaces if using sign)

(a)  

2.

Which of the following lab values is expected for HDL?

a)

<200

b)

<150

c)

>50

d)

<50

3.

What CAM will you give for a patient to aid with their cardiac health?

a)

Gingko biloba

b)

Ginger

c)

Garlic

d)

CoQ10

4.

What would you be most concerned about for a patient with excess (high) levels of cholesterol?

a)

Plaque buildup

b)

Thickening of blood

c)

Narrowing of blood vessels

d)

Low blood pressure

5.

_____ and _____ are criteria used to determine the need for HLD medications.

a)

ASCVD

b)

VLDL level

c)

LDL level

d)

CIWA

6.

Which of the following is the 1st line agent for cholesterol?

a)

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors

b)

Bile acid sequestrants

c)

Fibrates

d)

PCSK9 ihibitors

7.

What is the most common side effect of atorvastatin?

a)

Constipation

b)

Headache

c)

Increased risk of gallstones

d)

Muscle aches

8.

Upon taking a HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, what adverse effect would you be most concerned about following a muscle ache?

(a)  

9.

A patient is given the maximum dose of rosuvastatin. How much of his LDL level should you expect to change?

a)

Lowered by 2 points

b)

Lowered by half

c)

Slight increase on the 1st dose

d)

No changes on 2-week follow-up

10.

T/F. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors are safe for pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

When is the best time to take an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor?

a)

With meals

b)

At night

c)

In the morning

d)

Before meals

12.

Which of the ff is classified under bile acid sequestrants?

a)

Cholestyramine

b)

Gemfibrozil

c)

Ezetimibe

d)

Alirocumab

13.

This drug is used as an add-on if the given statin therapy is not lowering LDL enough.

a)

Cholestyramine

b)

Ezetimibe

c)

Evolocumab

d)

Gemfibrozil

14.

This drug should be taken by itself or is administered an hour before or several hours after other medications.

a)

Cholestyramine

b)

Rosuvastatin

c)

Niacin

d)

Ezetimibe

15.

Which medications are used also used to prevent cardiovascular disease? SATA

a)

Atorvastatin

b)

Gemfibrozil

c)

Ezetimibe

d)

Alirocumab

16.

This medication is used to lower triglyceride levels in the body.

a)

Alirocumab

b)

Ezetimibe

c)

Cholestyramine

d)

Gemfibrozil

17.

What should you watch out for when taking Gemfibrozil?

a)

Muscle ache

b)

Kidney injury

c)

Gallstone formation

d)

Constipation

18.

This drug class is given to patient as an alternative agent for monotherapy in patients who cannot tolerate statins.

a)

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors

b)

PCSK9 inhibitors

c)

Fibrates

d)

Bile acid sequestrants

19.

What is the goal of hyperlipidemia therapy?

a)

To remove plaque

b)

Reduce HDL

c)

Reduce LDL

d)

Widen blood vessels

20.

This medication is no longer recommended for hyperlipidemia.

(a)  

21.

Which food interacts with almost all medications?

a)

Spinach

b)

Grapefruit juice

c)

Cranberry juice

d)

Broccoli

22.

Where do platelets play a role in coagulation?

a)

Clumping to stop bleeding

b)

Creation of fibrin plug

c)

Getting rid of clots

23.

This is the end-product of the coagulation cascade which will permanently stop the bleeding. (Hint: 2 words)

(a)  

24.

What is the intrinsic mechanism that destroys clots?

a)

Plasmin

b)

Plasma

c)

Plasminogen

d)

Platelet

25.

Which of the ff are indications for anticoagulation therapy? SATA

a)

AMI

b)

Hemmorhagic stroke

c)

AFIB

d)

DVT

26.

Which medication is monitored via aPTT, PTT, Factor Xa?

a)

heparin

b)

warfarin

c)

dabigatran

d)

argatroban

27.

which of the ff is the reversal drug for heparin?

a)

vitamin K

b)

protamine sulfate

c)

factor Xa

d)

idarucizumab

28.

this medication is also called low molecular weight heparin (generic name only).

(a)  

29.

give at least 1 difference between heparin and enoxaparin?

4 lines
30.

how do you transition from heparin to warfarin?

a)

abruptly stop heparin then start warfarin

b)

start warfarin 3 days before you d/c heparin

c)

keep taking both until doctor orders to stop

d)

check levels first, if within therapeutic range then switch to warfarin

31.

what labs do you need to monitor for when taking warfarin? SATA

a)

PTT

b)

PT

c)

INR

d)

factor Xa

32.

which of the ff is the reversal drug for warfarin?

a)

vitamin K

b)

protamine sulfate

c)

factor Xa

d)

idarucizumab

33.

what is he expected INR level for a patient on warfarin therapy?

a)

1.1 or below

b)

2-3

c)

0

d)

4-5

34.

What should you teach a patient who takes warfarin with regards to their diet?

a)

increase intake of vitamin K

b)

do not increase intake of vitamin K

c)

do not take this with grapefruit juice

d)

limit your sodium intake

35.

which of these drug classes interact with many medications? (i.e., abx)

a)

direct thrombin inhibitors

b)

Factor Xa inhibitors

c)

indirect thrombin inhibitors

d)

vitamin K antagonist

36.

this medication is an anticoagulant given via IV route only.

a)

argatroban

b)

heparin

c)

dabigatran

d)

rivaroxaban

37.

which medications have the BB of abrupt discontinuation carries increased risk of thromboembolic events? SATA

a)

argatroban

b)

dabigatran

c)

apixaban

d)

enoxaparin

38.

Which anticoagulant needs to be tapered off before discontinuation?

a)

argatroban

b)

rivaroxaban

c)

enoxaparin

d)

dabigatran

39.

which of the ff is the reversal drug for dabigatran?

a)

vitamin K

b)

protamine sulfate

c)

factor Xa

d)

idarucizumab

40.

this medication is commonly used in patients that develop HIT but still needs to get anticoagulation.

(a)  

41.

these class of antiplatelets are administered for the prevention (sequalae) of thrombotic events in patients having an AMI. SATA

a)

glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors

b)

ADP receptor antagonists

c)

ASA

d)

Reteplase

e)

Transexamic acid

42.

this medication is often given with ASA and works by blocking ADP receptors resulting in reduced platelet aggregation.

a)

alteplase

b)

tirofiban

c)

aspirin

d)

ticagrelor

43.

which of the ff is a rare condition caused by taking an ADP receptor antagonist?

a)

TTP

b)

DIC

c)

HIT

d)

IDA

44.

T/F Tirofiban (Aggrastat) can be given orally.

a)

true

b)

false

45.

Give 1 example of a drug that can breakdown an EXISTING clot. (abbreviation accepted)

(a)  

46.

what should be completed by the RN prior to administering TPA/thrombolytic?

a)

checklist

b)

vital signs

c)

informed consent

d)

lab values

47.

what can you give a patient who is in need of clotting factors?

a)

FFP

b)

albumin

c)

hemostatics

d)

plasmin

48.

what is the definition of stroke volume?

a)

amount of volume the heart puts out

b)

amount of blood squeezed out by the L ventricle

c)

amount of volume coming back to the heart

d)

pressure in the aorta the heart is pumping against

49.

calculate the cardiac output:

HR: 60, SV: 80

(answer in L/min, no spaces)

(a)  

50.

how do you assess for ejection fraction?

a)

EKG

b)

echocardiogram

c)

angiography

d)

PET scan

51.

if the L ventricle is failing, where would blood back up into?

a)

lung

b)

body

52.

T/F Left sided HF can eventually lead to Right sided HF.

a)

true

b)

false

53.

what is the definitive lab for HF? (abbreviation only)

(a)  

54.

what are some pt education points a nurse can teach to prevent readmission for someone with HF?

a)

water/Na restriction

b)

take medications as prescribed

c)

increase protein intake

d)

decrease intake of vit K rich foods

55.

which drug classes are 1st line tx for HF? SATA

a)

ACE I

b)

ARBs

c)

CCB (non-dihydro)

d)

Entresto

56.

how do ACE I and ARBs help treat HF?

a)

decrease volume = lowering the afterload

b)

blocks constriction causing dilation = reducing afterload

c)

decreases HR/contractility = reducing afterload/workload

d)

improve SV = makes heart beat harder/stronger

57.

which medications disrupt RAAS? SATA

a)

lisinopril

b)

valsartan

c)

entresto

d)

bidil

58.

which diuretics are used for the tx of HF? SATA

a)

furosemide

b)

spirinolactone

c)

hctz

d)

metolazone

59.

which beta-blocker is almost exclusively given for HF?

a)

metoprolol

b)

labetalol

c)

carvedilol

d)

sotalol

60.

which drug is known to be a positive inotropic agent used for HF and antiarrhythmias?

a)

bidil

b)

carvedilol

c)

diltiazem

d)

digoxin

61.

Bidil (hydralazine+isosorbide dinitrate) dilates both arteries and veins. Which of the following are its known SE/AE? SATA

a)

headache

b)

heart palpitations

c)

hypotension

d)

flu-like syndrome

62.

which of the following antiarrythmics is only given via IV route for severe decompensated HF?

a)

nesiritide

b)

amrinone

c)

amiodarone

d)

furosemide

63.

T/F Any rhythm other than normal sinus rhythm is categorized into dysrhythmias and arrhythmias.

a)

true

b)

false

64.

What do you need to administer to a patient diagnosed with Afib to prevent development of clots?

a)

anticoagulants

b)

antiarryhthmics

c)

antihypertensives

d)

diuretics

65.

There are 4 classes of antiarrhythmic medications, which of the following is called Class 1 antiarrhythmic?

a)

calcium channel blockers

b)

sodium channel blockers

c)

beta adrenergic antagonists

d)

potassium blockers

66.

Which of the 3 class 1 antiarrhythmics, does propafenone fall under?

a)

class 1a

b)

class 1b

c)

class 1c

67.

what is an AE of a Class 1b antiarrhythmic?

a)

lupus-like syndrome

b)

blood dyscrasias

c)

proarrhythmic effects

d)

CNS effects

68.

which lab result would confirm that a patient is having lupus-like syndrome after taking procainamide?

a)

+ troponin

b)

+ ANA

c)

PTT of 4

d)

WBC >11

69.

this medication has a negative inotropic effect and has several indications (angina, HTN, HF, AMI, arrythmias, etc).

a)

amoidarone

b)

adenosine

c)

labetolol

d)

verapamil

70.

which antiarrythmic drug class does beta adrenergic antagonists fall under?

(class 1, class 2, class 3, class 4)

(a)  

71.

this medication has the longest duration (up to 50 days) amongst all antiarrythmic medications.

a)

labetolol

b)

amiodarone

c)

amrinone

d)

adenosine

72.

which medication has pulmonary toxicity as its AE. It is also important to consider the patient's overall health prior to prescribing this medication d/t its numerous SE/AE.

(a)  

73.

which of the ff medications are deemed NOT SAFE for pregnancy?

a)

amiodarone

b)

atorvastatin

c)

lisinopril

d)

losartan

e)

warfarin

74.

which CCB is used for arrhythmias?

a)

dihydropyridines

b)

non-dihydropyridines

75.

For medications like labetolol, diltiazem, and digoxin, what nursing intervention must me done PRIOR to administering these meds?

(a)  

76.

this medication is also called chemical cardioversion.

a)

atenolol

b)

adenosine

c)

atropine

d)

epinephrine

77.

what would you expect to see on a patient after administration of adenosine?

a)

tachydysrhythmias on ECG

b)

flatline on ECG

c)

patient may vomit

d)

visua disturbances

78.

what do you need to have at the bedside just in case a patient's heart does not start back up after giving adenosine? (abbreviation only)

(a)  

79.

what is a notable SE of digoxin?

a)

N/V

b)

halos

c)

bradycardia

d)

dysrhythmias

80.

what is the reversal drug for digoxin?

(a)  

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