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NUR 257 Final Review

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does a urine culture determine? Select all that apply:

a)

presence of bacteria

b)

kidney function

c)

strain and concentration of bacteria

d)

all of the above

2.

UTI is the most common infection in older adults, which symptom is a hallmark sign of a UTI in older adults?

a)

hematuria

b)

confusion

c)

nocturia

d)

urinary frequency

3.

Pt. teaching for lithotripsy includes which of the following? SATA:

a)

avoid drinking/eating before the procedure

b)

take medications with a sip of water before procedure

c)

there may be discomfort after the surgery

d)

strain urine when going to restroom

4.

What is the proper way to warm dialysate fluid for peritoneal dialysis?

a)

microwave oven

b)

in appropriate dialysate warmer

5.

Characteristics of peritoneal dialysis include which of the following? SATA:

a)

solution inserted into AV graft for blood

exchange

b)

high risk for peritonitis

c)

use of sterile technique

d)

allows more independence for the pt.

e)

solution inserted into peritoneal cavity for fluid

exchange

6.

During this type of dialysis, blood is diverted from the patient to a machine via a blood pump to the dialyzer, where toxins are filtered from the blood and the blood is returned to the patient.

a)

Peritoneal dialysis

b)

Hemodialysis

7.

What are expected findings when assessing an AV fistula site? SATA:

a)

bruising

b)

presence of a thrill

c)

erythema

d)

presence of a bruit

8.

Which of the following is the cause of acute glomerulonephritis?

a)

diabetes

b)

group Strep A infection

c)

HTN

9.

Why do chronic renal failure patients have anemia?

a)

increased destruction of RBCs

b)

decreased production of EPO

c)

insufficient angiotensin production

10.

What should the nurse monitor postop nephrectomy? SATA:

a)

I & O

b)

surgical incision

c)

monitor for infection

11.

Pain management is the nursing priority when caring for a patient with renal calculi.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Nursing interventions for a pt. with a seizure disorder include which of the following? SATA:

a)

place pt. in a side lying position

b)

maintain patent airway

c)

keep the bed at high position

d)

suction equipment at bedside

e)

LOC assessment after seizure

13.

Which of the following is a maintenance and prevention medication for seizure disorders?

a)

pregabalin

b)

gabapentin

c)

mannitol

d)

phenytoin

14.

A premonitory or warning sensation, which can be visual, auditory, or olfactory before seizure activity.

a)

stimuli

b)

aura

15.

Pt. teaching for trigeminal neuralgia includes which? SATA:

a)

avoid overstimulation of affected area of face

b)

eat extremely hot/cold foods

c)

wash face with room temp. water

d)

chew on unaffected side

e)

eat foods with soft consistency

16.

Condition of the 5th cranial nerve that causes attacks of sudden stabbing/burning pain due to triggers.

a)

trigeminal neuralgia

b)

Bell's palsy

c)

facial paralysis

17.

What is the nursing priority when assessing changes in intracranial pressure?

a)

nuchal rigidity

b)

fever

c)

headache

d)

changes in patient LOC

18.

A patient is being discharged after a myasthenic crisis. What is the best statement for the nurse to make about prevention of a crisis?

a)

"Taking your medications as prescribed is the best way to prevent this from happening."

b)

"Only take your medication during exacerbations."

c)

"It's okay to skip a dose of medication."

19.

A pt. is admitted with Guillain Barre Syndrome with ascending paralysis. What is the nursing priority when considering complications this pt. may encounter?

a)

immobility

b)

pain

c)

paralysis of respiratory muscles

20.

When administering baclofen for a pt. with Multiple Sclerosis. The nurse knows what is the reasoning for administering this medication?

a)

muscle spasms

b)

to slow progression of MS

c)

generalized weakness

21.

Education for a pt. with Multiple Sclerosis include which of the following? SATA:

a)

avoid stress

b)

frequent exercising

c)

avoiding fatigue

22.

What is the priority concern for the nurse when caring for a pt. with Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

a)

fatigue

b)

lack of coordination

c)

muscle twitching

d)

respiratory status

23.

Nursing interventions for the pt. with bacterial meningitis include which of the following? SATA:

a)

pain management

b)

providing a dark, quiet environment

c)

monitoring pt. neurologic status

d)

administering antipyretics for elevated temp.

e)

prevention of further complications

24.

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is the treatment for a pt. having an anaphylactic reaction.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Which of the following indicates a patient progressed to AIDS?

a)

a positive AIDS test

b)

CD4 count <200

c)

the pt. develops an opportunistic infection

26.

What test needs to be performed after exposure to a dirty needle?

a)

ELISA test

b)

mRNA

c)

Ra factor

d)

C-reactive

27.

Which of the following are types of isolation precautions? SATA:

a)

droplet

b)

standard

c)

contact

d)

airborne

28.

An immunocompromised pt. should avoid overuse of what class of medications due to causing drug-resistant bacteria?

a)

corticosteroids

b)

antibiotics

c)

DMARDs

d)

antifungals

29.

When performing allergy skin testing, what is the nursing priority?

a)

educating pt. about testing

b)

having emergency equipment readily available

c)

administering epinephrine

30.

the presence of microorganisms in or on a host, without host interference or interaction and without eliciting symptoms.

a)

colonization

b)

infection

c)

sepsis

d)

disease

31.

What would be an expected finding on lab results for a pt. with gout?

a)

hyperphosphatemia

b)

hypernatremia

c)

hypokalemia

d)

elevated uric acid levels

32.

Symmetric joint pain, swelling, warmth, erythema, and lack of function are classic symptoms of which autoimmune disorder?

a)

degenerative joint disease

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

systemic lupus erythematosus

33.

These drugs are classified as DMARDs and are used in the treatment of autoimmune disorders such as SLE and RA. SATA:

a)

methotrexate

b)

prednisone

c)

hydroxychloroquine

d)

NSAIDs

34.

Manifestations of right sided heart failure include which of the following? SATA:

a)

jugular venous distention

b)

ascites

c)

dry, nonproductive cough

d)

weight gain

e)

dyspnea on exertion

35.

Manifestations of left sided heart failure include which of the following? SATA:

a)

ventricular gallop

b)

dependent edema

c)

oliguria

d)

hepatomegaly

e)

pulmonary congestion

36.

Select all clinical manifestations of pulmonary edema:

a)

dyspnea

b)

weak and rapid pulse

c)

decreased LOC

d)

frothy blood tinged sputum

e)

warm and red skin

37.

Nursing management of a patient with pulmonary edema include which of the following? SATA:

a)

administer oxygen through nonrebreather mask

b)

monitor lung sounds for prevention

c)

minimizing exertion and stress

d)

encouraging pt. to exercise

e)

position pt. upright with legs dangling

38.

Pericardial effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

What is the normal range for the ejection fraction?

a)

<100%

b)

>100%

c)

35-45%

d)

55-65%

40.

The amount of blood pumped by ventricle in liters per minute describes the:

a)

diastole

b)

stroke volume

c)

cardiac output

d)

ejection fraction

41.

Stroke volume is the amount of blood ejected with each heartbeat.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Post cardiac catheterization interventions include which of the following? SATA:

a)

observe for hematoma

b)

assessing peripheral pulses

c)

maintain bedrest for 24 hrs. postop

d)

evaluate capillary refill

e)

monitor for contrast-induced nephropathy

43.

This occurs when the valve does not close properly, and blood backflows through the valve.

a)

prolapse

b)

stenosis

c)

regurgitation

44.

What are some of the key interventions for management of a patient after a balloon valvuloplasty? SATA:

a)

monitor for HF and emboli

b)

assess heart sounds once a shift

c)

assess heart sounds q 4hr

d)

educate pt. on prevention of infective endocarditis

45.

A patient with cardiomyopathy is at risk of developing heart failure.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

This type of cardiomyopathy is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder that leads to increased heart muscle size and mass, especially along the septum

a)

restrictive

b)

hypertrophic

c)

dilated

d)

unclassified

47.

The echocardiogram is the most helpful diagnostic tool for cardiomyopathy.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

S/S of pericarditis include: SATA:

a)

friction rub

b)

fever

c)

bradycardia

d)

heart failure

e)

tachycardia

49.

This type of hemodialysis is done on pts. who are hemodynamically unstable and is done over 6-8 hours

a)

CAPD

b)

peritoneal dialysis

c)

CRRT

50.

Which lab test is the best indicator to use in order to determine kidney function?

a)

BUN

b)

creatinine

c)

GFR

d)

EPO

51.

A KUB X-ray is a diagnostic test used to look for abnormalities within the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

TBI symptoms include personality changes (i.e., agitation).

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Which of the following pts. would need to take CNS stimulant medications?

a)

A pt. with narcolepsy

b)

An adolescent with ADHD

c)

A pt. with autism spectrum disorder

d)

An overweight pt.

e)

A child with a behavioral/conduct disorder

54.

What is the treatment for a patient in end-stage cardiomyopathy?

a)

heart transplant

b)

valve replacement

c)

valvuloplasty

55.

What is important to monitor for a pt. who is taking warfarin?

a)

INR

b)

aPTT

56.

CAD risk factors include:

a)

obesity

b)

daily exercise

c)

hyperlipidemia

d)

tobacco use

e)

HTN

57.

What is an important part of treatment for a pt. with a history of rheumatic fever?

a)

vitamins

b)

supplemental oxygen

c)

prophylactic antibiotics

58.

The nurse is administering digoxin to a patient. Which electrolyte is most important to monitor when administering this medication?

a)

calcium

b)

sodium

c)

potassium

d)

magnesium

59.

Pulmonary emboli symptoms: SATA:

a)

bradycardia

b)

SOB

c)

pleuritic pain

d)

anxiety

60.

For which condition would a pt. receive a proton pump inhibitor?

a)

GERD

b)

intestinal blockage

c)

colon cancer

61.

Stones of the gallbladder are known as:

a)

nephrolithiasis

b)

cholelithiasis

c)

urolithiasis

62.

Peptic ulcers can be caused by Helicobacter pylori, which can cause chronic gastritis.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Nursing interventions for a patient with dumping syndrome: SATA:

a)

limit excess fluid intake w/meals

b)

encourage pt. to eat slower

c)

educate on increasing carbohydrate intake

64.

Acute pancreatitis symptoms:

a)

severe abdominal pain

b)

nausea/vomiting

c)

fever

d)

bradycardia

65.

This type of pancreatitis occurs when the pancreas begin to auto digest themselves.

a)

Chronic

b)

Acute

c)

Subacute

66.

Surgical opening into the colon by means of a stoma to allow drainage of bowel:

a)

ileal conduit

b)

ileostomy

c)

colostomy

d)

urostomy

67.

For which of the following conditions would a pt. receive a paracentesis?

a)

ascites

b)

hepatomegaly

c)

pleural effusion

d)

peritonitis

68.

This is an accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is usually the result of liver cirrhosis.

a)

hepatomegaly

b)

ascites

c)

pericarditis

d)

atelectasis

69.

s/s of liver cirrhosis and ascites include which of the following? SATA:

a)

nausea

b)

vomiting

c)

jaundice

d)

fever

70.

The nurse is assessing a patient's stool after assisting him to the restroom. She makes note of fatty stools, when documenting, what is the correct terminology to describe the consistency of the stools?

a)

diarrhea

b)

steatorrhea

71.

(a)   are a dilated portion of veins in the anal canal (internal or external)

72.

(a)   are an abnormal fold or grove or crack in the tissue (can also have them in the colon wall).

73.

(a)   is a painful straining (urge) when trying to eliminate stool or urine

74.

(a)   are pouchings of the lining of the bowel that protrudes through the muscle of the intestinal wall.

75.

Radical neck dissection post op nursing interventions include: SATA:

a)

monitor for hemorrhage

b)

reporting and assess wheezing

c)

assess for adequate circulation

d)

assess and report stridor

e)

ensure pt. has a patent airway

76.

Which are concerns when caring for a pt. with ulcerative colitis?

a)

dehydration

b)

diarrhea

c)

pain

77.

s/s of diverticular disease are: SATA:

a)

pain in LLQ

b)

pain in ULQ

c)

abdominal cramping

d)

n/v

78.

If left untreated, appendicitis can lead to which complication?

a)

peritonitis

b)

pleuritis

c)

pericarditis

79.

Bariatric surgery discharge planning: SATA:

a)

educate pt. on taking vitamins

b)

inform the pt. that they have no diet restrictions

c)

pt. needs to stick to a strict diet

d)

surgery will reduce the size of the stomach

80.

Ulcerative colitis can be a risk factor for and lead to:

a)

esophageal cancer

b)

esophageal varices

c)

colon cancer

81.

A pt. with Barrett's esophagus is at an increased risk for esophageal cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Barrett's esophagus is defined as:

a)

paralysis of the esophagus

b)

esophageal walls damaged by acid reflux, the lining thickens & becomes red

c)

infection of the esophagus

83.

Main cause of esophageal varices:

a)

excess alcohol

b)

tobacco use

c)

smoking

d)

GERD

84.

Which of the following are the most important for the nurse to monitor in a pt. with esophageal varices? SATA:

a)

monitor for hemorrhage

b)

breathing

c)

portal HTN

85.

This is an infection of the bone that is diagnosed w/ a blood culture and treatment lasts for 4-6 weeks:

a)

osteomalacia

b)

osteoporosis

c)

osteomyelitis

86.

What are key factors when educating a pt. on the prevention of osteoporosis? SATA:

a)

avoid long-term use of PPIs

b)

reducing fiber intake

c)

taking vitamin D, C, and calcium

d)

reduce caffeine, carbonated drinks, and tobacco

87.

A deficiency in which electrolytes are the cause of osteomalacia? SATA:

a)

sodium

b)

potassium

c)

calcium

d)

phosphorus

88.

Weakened bones and higher risk for fractures are characteristics of which disorder?

a)

degenerative joint disease

b)

osteomyelitis

c)

osteoporosis

d)

osteomalacia

89.

Heberden's nodes and joint pain relieved by rest and aggravated by movement are clinical manifestations of which disorder?

a)

OA

b)

RA

c)

osteoporosis

90.

What is the nursing priority post op hip replacement?

a)

repositioning

b)

pain management

c)

DVT prevention

91.

inflammation of the parotid gland:

a)

sialedenitis

b)

sialolithiasis

c)

parotitis

92.

stones in the salivary gland:

a)

sialolithiasis

b)

parotitis

c)

sialadenitis

93.

inflammation of the salivary glands caused by dehydration, poor oral hygiene, stress, and malnutrition:

a)

parotitis

b)

sialadenitis

c)

sialolithiasis

94.

Hiatal hernia pt. management and diet recommendations: SATA:

a)

HOB elevated

b)

limit caffeine

c)

weight control

d)

spicy food for comfort

e)

limit spicy food intake

95.

You are the primary nurse for a pt. with a small bowel obstruction and an NG tube. What are some nursing interventions for this patient? SATA:

a)

ensure pt. is NPO

b)

monitor pt. output

c)

assess bowel sounds

d)

allow the pt. to consume clear liquids

e)

assess tube placement/positioning

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