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2.9 Test Review

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Identify the variable that is changed in an experiment.

a)

Dependent variable

b)

Independent variable

c)

Control

2.

Identify the variable that changes because of the changing the independent variable.

a)

Dependent variable

b)

Independent variable

c)

Control

3.

Identify the variable(s) that remains the same in an experiment.

a)

Dependent variable

b)

Independent variable

c)

Control

4.

Where does the temperature go on a graph when plotting temperature versus time?

a)

Temperature is on the y-axis.

b)

Temperature is on the x-axis.

c)

Temperature is on the origin.

d)

Temperature is not plotted.

5.

Where does time go on a graph when plotting temperature versus time?

a)

Time is on the x-axis.

b)

Time is on the y-axis.

c)

Time is in the legend.

d)

Time is in the title.

6.

How should a hypothesis be written?

a)

An educated guess; if/then format.

b)

A random statement with no evidence.

c)

A summary of results after the experiment.

d)

A list of materials used in the experiment.

7.

Name one way scientists 'prove' their theory.

a)

Collect results from many different experiments.

b)

Make up data to fit their theory.

c)

Ignore evidence that contradicts their theory.

d)

Rely only on opinions.

8.

What type of graph is used to show percentages?

a)

Circle graph

b)

Bar graph

c)

Line graph

d)

Histogram

9.

Convert 861 mL to liters.

a)

0.861 L

b)

8.61 L

c)

86.1 L

d)

0.0861 L

10.

Calculate: 2.32 + 6.8 + 2.056

a)

11.2

b)

10.8

c)

12.0

d)

9.9

11.

Calculate: 62.875 - 21.63421

a)

41.241

b)

39.241

c)

42.241

d)

40.241

12.

Where is 2/3 of the world’s water supply located?

a)

Glaciers and ice caps

b)

Rivers and lakes

c)

Underground reservoirs

d)

Atmosphere

13.

What is the most abundant element in our atmosphere?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Argon

14.

What is the space between the soil?

a)

Atmosphere

b)

Water

c)

Minerals

d)

Roots

15.

What part of the electromagnetic spectrum do we see?

a)

Visible light

b)

Ultraviolet

c)

Infrared

d)

Microwaves

16.

In visible light, which color has the shortest wavelength?

a)

Violet

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

17.

The TOPEX and the Jason data help scientist:

a)

Understand currents, Understand global climate change, Predict El Nino events

b)

Measure the height of mountains

c)

Track animal migration patterns

d)

Predict volcanic eruptions

e)

Monitor air pollution levels

18.

Which line marks the difference between one day and the next?

a)

International Date Line

b)

Equator

c)

Prime Meridian

d)

Tropic of Cancer

19.

Map projections allow people to carry an easily transportable representation of the Earth.

a)

Map projections allow people to carry an easily transportable representation of the Earth.

b)

Map projections make the Earth appear larger than it is.

c)

Map projections are only used for weather forecasting.

d)

Map projections are used to measure earthquakes.

20.

What color on a topographic map represents water?

a)

Blue

b)

Green

c)

Brown

d)

Red

21.

The highest point of a wave is called the _____________. The lowest point of the wave is called the _______________.

a)

Crest, trough

b)

Trough, crest

c)

Node, antinode

d)

Amplitude, frequency

22.

The distance between two index contour lines on a topographic map is determined by:

a)

the contour interval specified on the map

b)

the scale of the map

c)

the color of the contour lines

d)

the elevation of the highest point

23.

There is very little distortion in a ___________.

a)

Conic projection

b)

Cylindrical projection

c)

Azimuthal projection

d)

Mercator projection

24.

In what type of map projection does the space between lines of longitude increase the polar distortion?

a)

Mercator projection

b)

Robinson projection

c)

Goode’s Homolosine projection

d)

Azimuthal projection

25.

You can tell which way a river flows because it…

a)

Makes a “V” which points upstream

b)

Always flows north

c)

Is always deeper at the source

d)

Has fish swimming only downstream

26.

Oil spills, the health of the Earth’s coral reefs, deforestation, natural resources, and water pollution are monitored by _________________

a)

Landsat

b)

Hubble Telescope

c)

MRI Scanner

d)

Seismograph

27.

Scientists know the Earth must have a solid core because S waves generated by earthquakes would _________.

a)

Bounce off the outer core

b)

Pass straight through the core

c)

Speed up in the core

d)

Change direction in the mantle

28.

Someone gets on an airplane in Greenwich, England. They fly forward in time six hours. What degree longitude would they be near?

a)

90 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

60 degrees

d)

120 degrees

29.

The North Pole is found at 90 degrees North latitude and 0 degrees/180 degrees longitude.

a)

90 degrees North latitude and 0 degrees/180 degrees longitude

b)

0 degrees North latitude and 90 degrees East longitude

c)

45 degrees North latitude and 180 degrees longitude

d)

60 degrees South latitude and 0 degrees longitude

30.

Another name for Polaris is __________.

a)

The North Star

b)

The Southern Cross

c)

Betelgeuse

d)

Sirius

31.

What is an astronomical unit or AU?

a)

The average distance from the Earth to the Sun

b)

The distance from the Earth to the Moon

c)

The distance from the Sun to Pluto

d)

The diameter of the Earth

32.

A reflecting telescope __________.

a)

Uses a series of mirrors

b)

Uses a series of lenses

c)

Uses only prisms

d)

Uses radio waves to form images

33.

The Big Bang is really a ________________ because ___________________.

a)

A model, it can not be proven by the scientific method of experimentation

b)

A fact, it has been directly observed in space

c)

A law, it describes the motion of planets

d)

A theory, it is universally accepted without evidence

34.

Our Sun is part of ____________.

a)

The Milky Way Galaxy

b)

The Andromeda Galaxy

c)

The Orion Nebula

d)

The Solar System

35.

All of the dwarf planets that are beyond the orbit of Neptune are considered _________________.

a)

Trans-Neptunian objects

b)

Asteroids

c)

Main-belt objects

d)

Inner planets

36.

A total eclipse is caused when ____________________.

a)

The moon completely blocks the light from the Sun

b)

The Earth completely blocks the light from the Sun

c)

The Sun completely blocks the light from the Moon

d)

The Moon partially blocks the light from the Sun

37.

The Sun's diameter could have ______________________ Earths stretched next to each other.

a)

110

b)

50

c)

500

d)

11

38.

The chromosphere is made of ____________________________.

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Nitrogen

39.

Hydrogen fusion, which powers all-stars including the Sun, occurs in the ________________.

a)

Core

b)

Mantle

c)

Crust

d)

Corona

40.

Moon has ____________________________.

a)

Very little atmosphere

b)

A thick layer of clouds

c)

Plenty of water bodies

d)

Dense forests

41.

The first US moon landings were on the ____________________.

a)

Lunar Maria

b)

Lunar Highlands

c)

Lunar Poles

d)

Lunar Valleys

42.

At the autumnal equinox in the Northern Hemisphere and the vernal equinox in the Southern Hemisphere, there are approximately ____________________________.

a)

12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of darkness

b)

18 hours of daylight and 6 hours of darkness

c)

6 hours of daylight and 18 hours of darkness

d)

24 hours of daylight and 0 hours of darkness

43.

In order to have a lunar eclipse, ____________________________.

a)

The Moon must pass into the Earth’s shadow

b)

The Earth must pass into the Moon’s shadow

c)

The Moon must be between the Sun and the Earth

d)

The Sun must pass between the Earth and the Moon

44.

The Earth's darker, inner shadow ____________________________.

a)

Is the umbra

b)

Is the penumbra

c)

Is the corona

d)

Is the terminator

45.

Venus rotates backwards from Earth. The definition for this is called ________________.

a)

Retrograde rotation

b)

Prograde rotation

c)

Axial tilt

d)

Orbital resonance

46.

The atmosphere on Mars is almost all _________________ .

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Hydrogen

47.

The largest mountain in the solar system is _________________

a)

A shield volcano on Mars called Olympus Mons

b)

Mount Everest on Earth

c)

Mauna Kea on Earth

d)

A volcano on Venus called Maxwell Montes

48.

Jupiter has about ____________ moons.

a)

62 moons

b)

10 moons

c)

25 moons

d)

100 moons

49.

The red spot found on Jupiter has allowed astronomers to estimate ________________.

a)

The length of rotation

b)

The number of moons

c)

The distance from the Sun

d)

The presence of water

50.

The two largest moons of Uranus are named ____________ and ________________.

a)

Oberon and Titania

b)

Europa and Ganymede

c)

Io and Callisto

d)

Phobos and Deimos

51.

What are the rings of Neptune made from?

a)

Dust

b)

Ice

c)

Rock

d)

Gas

52.

The temperature of Polaris is approximately ________________.

a)

6000 degrees

b)

3000 degrees

c)

12000 degrees

d)

20000 degrees

53.

The basis for determining the luminosity of the other stars is ____________.

a)

The Sun

b)

The Moon

c)

Jupiter

d)

Polaris

54.

A type of star that is still hot but is running out of fuel for fusion is the ________________.

a)

White dwarf

b)

Red giant

c)

Neutron star

d)

Main sequence star

55.

Rigel, in the constellation Orion, is _______ and it is _______.

a)

A blue supergiant

b)

A red dwarf

c)

A yellow giant

d)

A white dwarf

56.

Protostars are detected by ________________.

a)

Infrared Radiation

b)

Visible Light

c)

X-rays

d)

Gamma Rays

57.

The closest star, in distance, to our Sun is ____________________________.

a)

Proxima Centauri

b)

Sirius

c)

Alpha Centauri A

d)

Betelgeuse

58.

In an elliptical orbit, the Sun is _________________

a)

At one end of the foci

b)

At the center of the ellipse

c)

At both ends of the foci

d)

Outside the ellipse

59.

When the planet orbits the sun, it is an elliptical orbit. At the farthest point away from the Sun, the planet is at its ____________.

a)

aphelion

b)

perihelion

c)

equinox

d)

solstice

60.

Spiral galaxies make up about ___ percent of all known galaxies.

a)

75

b)

25

c)

50

d)

10

61.

The difference between a dwarf planet and a planet is:

a)

A dwarf planet does not clear its orbit, while a planet does.

b)

A dwarf planet is always smaller than a planet in size.

c)

A planet has rings, but a dwarf planet does not.

d)

A planet is made of gas, while a dwarf planet is made of rock.

62.

Saturn has:

a)

An inner core, mantle, and outer surface

b)

Moons

c)

Rings

63.

The Sun is ___ times larger than the moon, and it is ___ times further away.

a)

400, 400

b)

100, 100

c)

200, 300

d)

500, 100

64.

Sunspots:

a)

Can exist from hours up to months at a time

b)

Appear in an 11-year cycle

c)

Form above and below the sun’s equator and move towards the poles

65.

The yellow surface of the Sun is called the ___?

a)

photosphere

b)

corona

c)

chromosphere

d)

core

66.

Galileo thought that Lunar Maria were seas or oceans.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

The US first moon landing were on the Lunar Maria.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Venus’ surface is largely ___

a)

volcanic

b)

icy

c)

oceanic

d)

forested

69.

Venus rotates backwards from Earth, ___ rotation.

a)

retrograde

b)

prograde

c)

axial

d)

orbital

70.

The magnetic field on the Earth that protects us from solar wind is caused by:

a)

The liquid outer core

b)

The solid inner core

c)

The Earth’s rotation

71.

Io, one of Jupiter’s moons, has been found to have an active ___

a)

volcano

b)

ocean

c)

desert

d)

forest

72.

Saturn has a lower density than Earth because it is made of mostly ___

a)

gas

b)

rock

c)

metal

d)

ice

73.

The two largest moons of Uranus are ___ and ___

a)

Oberon, Titania

b)

Europa, Ganymede

c)

Io, Callisto

d)

Triton, Charon

74.

The largest moon of Neptune is ___

a)

Triton

b)

Europa

c)

Ganymede

d)

Titan

75.

Pulsars emit ___

a)

radio waves

b)

visible light

c)

gamma rays

d)

ultraviolet rays

76.

White dwarfs are a type of star that is still hot but is running out of fuel for ___

a)

fusion

b)

fission

c)

combustion

d)

evaporation

77.

The mass of Mt. Everest can be found in a marble-sized piece of a ___ star.

a)

neutron

b)

red giant

c)

white dwarf

d)

main sequence

78.

Black holes have such strong gravity ___ cannot escape.

a)

light

b)

sound

c)

water

d)

air

79.

Imaginary parallel lines that encircle the Earth are called — _________.

a)

latitude lines

b)

longitude lines

c)

meridians

d)

axes

80.

The troposphere is located where in comparison to the Earth?

a)

Closest to the Earth or touching the Earth

b)

Farthest from the Earth

c)

In the middle of the atmosphere

d)

Above the stratosphere

81.

Which line of latitude marks the difference between one day and the next?

a)

International Date Line

b)

Equator

c)

Tropic of Cancer

d)

Prime Meridian

82.

The Earth's circumference is smallest at the _________ and largest at the _________

a)

Poles, Equator

b)

Equator, Poles

c)

Tropics, Poles

d)

Poles, Tropics

83.

The highest point of a wave is called the ______________. The lowest point of the wave is called the ______________.

a)

crest, trough

b)

trough, crest

c)

peak, valley

d)

apex, base

84.

Why do we see the sky as blue on a clear day?

a)

Blue is the only color reflected back to us.

b)

The sun emits only blue light.

c)

Clouds make the sky appear blue.

d)

The air absorbs all colors except blue.

85.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies two points where the Big Bang theory and Creation do not match up?

a)

The Big Bang suggests a natural origin of the universe, while Creation describes a supernatural origin; the Big Bang estimates the universe is billions of years old, while Creation often describes a much younger universe.

b)

Both theories agree on the exact age of the universe and its origin.

c)

The Big Bang and Creation both describe the universe as unchanging and eternal.

d)

Creation and the Big Bang both state that the universe was created in six days.

86.

Which of the following best explains two points about how the Big Bang has been used to suggest that God started the Big Bang and why this idea does not really match the Bible?

a)

The Big Bang suggests a beginning to the universe, which some use to argue for a creator, but the scientific timeline and process do not align with the Biblical creation account.

b)

The Big Bang theory states that the universe has always existed, which matches the Bible exactly.

c)

The Big Bang theory and the Bible both describe the universe being created in six days.

d)

The Big Bang theory proves that the universe was created by God in the exact way described in Genesis.

87.

Select the correct difference between a meteor, meteoroid, and meteorite.

a)

A meteoroid is in space, a meteor is when it enters Earth's atmosphere and burns up, and a meteorite is when it reaches the ground.

b)

A meteor is in space, a meteoroid is when it enters Earth's atmosphere, and a meteorite is when it burns up.

c)

A meteorite is in space, a meteor is when it reaches the ground, and a meteoroid is when it burns up.

d)

A meteoroid is when it burns up, a meteorite is in space, and a meteor is when it reaches the ground.

88.

The inner planets are different from the outer planets in that:

a)

they are smaller and rockier than the outer planets.

b)

they are larger and made mostly of gas.

c)

they have more moons than the outer planets.

d)

they are farther from the Sun than the outer planets.

89.

Helium is formed on the Sun through which process?

a)

Nuclear fusion

b)

Nuclear fission

c)

Radioactive decay

d)

Chemical reaction

90.

Solar flares are sudden bursts of energy from the Sun that can impact Earth by disrupting communication systems and power grids. Which of the following best describes solar flares and their impact on Earth?

a)

Solar flares are sudden bursts of energy from the Sun that can disrupt communication systems and power grids on Earth.

b)

Solar flares are gentle winds from the Sun that cool the Earth's atmosphere.

c)

Solar flares are rainstorms on the Sun that increase rainfall on Earth.

d)

Solar flares are magnetic fields from the Moon that cause earthquakes on Earth.

91.

The alignment of the Earth, Sun, and Moon required to have a total lunar eclipse is:

a)

Sun, Earth, Moon

b)

Earth, Sun, Moon

c)

Sun, Moon, Earth

d)

Moon, Earth, Sun