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mock exam 4

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

what is NOT a sign of a concussion?

a)

headache

b)

imbalance

c)

normal affect

d)

vomiting

2.

signs and symptoms of increased ICP? select 3

a)

projectile vomiting

b)

pupil ipsilateral to lesion becomes fixed and dilated

c)

pstosis

d)

hypotension

e)

pupil ipsilateral to lesion becomes constricted

3.

this disease is characterized by deficient dopamine, excess acetylcholine, and resting tremors

a)

parkinsons

b)

myasthenia gravis

c)

multiple sclerosis

d)

epilepsy

4.

acetylcholine receptors are destroyed by IgG antibodies causing progressive muscle weakness

a)

multiple sclerosis

b)

myasthenia gravis

c)

epilepsy

d)

parkinsons

5.

T cells auto-reactive and damage myelin sheath. affects motor and sensory nerves, and affects females more often than males

a)

myasthenia Gravis

b)

Fibromyalgia

c)

migraines

d)

multiple sclerosis

6.

what is a characteristic of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

a)

ascending flaccid paralysis

b)

trigeminal autonomic cephalgia

c)

nuchal rigidity and fever

d)

strong tonic muscle contractions

7.

what are some symptoms of bacterial meningitis? select 3 that apply

a)

nuchal rigidity

b)

rash

c)

paralysis

d)

photophobia

e)

slow breathing

8.

what is the normal ICP for a resting adult?

a)

5-20 mmHg

b)

0-5 mmHg

c)

5-15 mmHg

d)

10-30 mmHg

9.

what is not a result of increased intracranial pressure?

a)

projectile vomiting

b)

cushings triad

c)

hypertension

d)

pupil constriction

10.

what are mechanisms to decrease ICP? select 3

a)

ventriculostomy (drain CSF)

b)

lower blood pressure

c)

increase CO2 level

d)

remove brain tissue

e)

increase blood pressure

11.

what happens in cushing traid?

a)

increased BP, decreased pulse, decreased respirations

b)

decreased BP, increased pulse, increased, respirations

c)

increased BP, increased pulse, increase respirations

d)

decreased BP, decreased pulse, decreased respirations

12.

what is a risk factor for stroke?

a)

heart disease

b)

race

c)

oral contraceptives

d)

smoking

e)

all of these

13.

emboli that obstructs cerebral blood flow leads to...

a)

ischemic stroke

b)

hemorrhagic stroke

14.

TIA is a permanent reduction in cerebral blood flow and 80% progress to stroke

a)

true

b)

false

15.

spinal cord shock has what characteristics?

a)

complete loss of reflex function at and below level of lesion

b)

normal activity ceases at and above level of injury

c)

sites have continuous nervous discharges from the brain

d)

maintain autonomic control

16.

what kind of seizure has a single or focal origin with one hemisphere and there is NO loss of consciousness?

a)

generalized

b)

focal

c)

simple focal

d)

complex focal

17.

what kind of seizure is more common in children, lasts 5-10 seconds, brief loss of awareness, and no memory of episode is retained?

a)

absence or Petit Mal

b)

tonic-clonic

c)

focal

d)

clonic

18.

what is NOT a phase of a generalized seizure?

a)

prodrome

b)

tonic

c)

mid-ictal

d)

postical

19.

what are characteristics of somatic pain? select 3

a)

it is cutaneous (from skin)

b)

conducted by sensory fibers

c)

originates in organs

d)

conducted by sympathetic fibers

e)

can involve bone/muscle

20.

in a spinal cord injury , if there is injury to the descending tract it can cause..

a)

motor deficits

b)

sensory deficits

c)

both motor and sensory deficits

d)

none of these

21.

what can be affected by chronic pain?

a)

apetite

b)

sleep

c)

daily activities

d)

all of these

22.

a bone is fractured into more than 2 fragments. what kind of fracture is this?

a)

simple

b)

compression

c)

spiral

d)

comminuted

23.

what factor affects bone healing

a)

age

b)

glucocorticoid drugs

c)

bone approximation

d)

all of these affect bone healing

24.

a patient with a fracture to their leg starts to develop intense pain and a feeling of tightness in their leg. what is the likely bone healing complication?

a)

muscle spasms

b)

nerve damage

c)

compartment syndrome

d)

malunion

25.

what is not a step in the fracture healing process

a)

hematoma

b)

granulation tissue

c)

remodeling

d)

approximation

26.

what is the first step of the fracture healing process?

a)

granulation tissue

b)

procallus

c)

hematoma

d)

bony callus

27.

arthritis due to wear and tear, can be unilateral, articular cartilage damaged.

a)

osteoarthritis

b)

rheumatoid arthritis

c)

septic arthtitis

d)

gouty arthritis

28.

gouty arthritis characteristics are...

a)

uric acid deposit with synovial fluid

b)

low back pain that radiates to sacrum and legs

c)

symmetrical involvement of joints

d)

joint fixation

29.

patho of this arthritis: bacteria present in joint due to trauma, surgery or infection that spreads from nearby area

a)

gouty arthritis

b)

osteosrthritis

c)

septic arthritis

d)

rheumatoid arthritis

30.

what is a sign/symptom of osteoporosis?

a)

kyphosis

b)

spontaneous fractures

c)

loss of height

d)

all of these

31.

a patient presents with rales, productive cough (rust in color), and dyspnea. what kind of pneumonia does the patient likely have?

a)

bronchopneumonia

b)

viral pneumonia

c)

lobar/pneunomoccal pneumonia

d)

atypical pneumonia

32.

this is caused by influenza A/B, adenoviruses, and RSV.

a)

atypical

b)

bronchopneumonia

c)

viral

d)

bacterial

33.

bronchopneumonia is characterized by...

a)

diffuse pattern of infection in both lungs

b)

rust colored sputum

c)

night sweats

d)

localized involvement in one lung

34.

yellow/green sputum, insidious onset, and inflammatory exudate in alveoli are characteristics of what pneumonia

a)

streptococcal

b)

lobar

c)

bronchopneumonia

d)

viral

35.

stage 2 tuberculosis- occurs when clients cell- mediated immunity is impaired due to stress malnutrition, HIV infection, or age. What occurs during the second stage?

a)

mycobacteria begin to reproduce and infect lung

b)

not contagious

c)

organism enters lungs

d)

tubercules form

36.

respiratory failure is indicated by... select 2

a)

decreasing responsiveness

b)

cyanosis

c)

hyperventilation

d)

barrel chest

37.

result of an opening through chest wall and parietal pleura or form a tear in the lung tissue and visceral pleura.

a)

tension pneumothorax

b)

open pneumothorax

38.

pulmonary edema is caused by... select 2

a)

inflammation in lungs

b)

plasma protein levels are low

c)

obstruction

d)

type 1 hypersensitivity

39.

what is NOT a principle of gas exchange?

a)

surface area

b)

dead space

c)

proximity (thickness of respiratory membrane)

d)

pressure gradients

40.

non-aeration or collapse of a lung or part of a lung and both ventilation and perfusion are altered.

a)

atelactasis

b)

pneumonia

c)

rales

d)

rhonchi

41.

what are some signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism? (select 2)

a)

chest pain

b)

hemoptysis

c)

bradycardia

d)

hypertension

42.

COPD is characterized by (select 3)

a)

barrel chest

b)

dyspnea

c)

weight gain

d)

digital clubbing

43.

what treatment(s) is/are for COPD/emphysema

a)

bronchodilators

b)

breathing techniques

c)

pulmonary rehab

d)

all of these

e)

none of these

44.

"blue bloaters", excessive mucus, chronic productive cough, chronic hypoxemia are all characteristics of...

a)

asthma

b)

emphysema

c)

chronic bronchitis

d)

pulmonary edema

45.

what is not a stimuli for asthma?

a)

exercise

b)

stress

c)

exposure to cold

d)

low plasma protein

46.

what occurs in emphysema? select 3

a)

destruction of alveoli

b)

air trapping

c)

thin appearance

d)

decreased CO2 retention

e)

shortened expiratory time

47.

what can affect the thickness of the respiratory membrane?

a)

fluid accumulation

b)

destruction of the alveolar wall

c)

increased ventilation perfusion ratio

d)

none of these

48.

A patient has a pH of 7.8, a CO2 of 30 and a HCO3 of 15.

What does the patient have

a)

respiratory acidosis

b)

respiratory alkalosis

c)

metabolic acidosis

d)

metabolic alkalosis

49.

rales sound like....

a)

whistling

b)

light, bubbly, crackling

c)

wheezing

d)

high pitched crowing

50.

how do you feel about exam 4?

a)

I feel great!

b)

I am not ready.