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Mitosis

Total questions: 141

Worksheet time: 3hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which cells are more efficient at obtaining nutrients?
a)
Small Cells
b)
Medium Size Cells
c)
Large Cells
d)
X-Large Cells
2.
The absorption of nutrients is determined by...
a)
The cell's volume
b)
The cell's surface area
c)
The cell's ribosomes
d)
The cell's DNA
3.
The amount of nutrients needed is determined by...
a)
The cell's volume
b)
The cell's surface area
c)
The cell's Rough ER
d)
The cell's Smooth ER
4.
Which type of cell is easier to get Oxygen in and waste out?
a)
small cell
b)
large cell
5.
As a cell becomes larger, its
a)
surface area increases faster than its volume.
b)
volume increases faster than its surface area
6.
The larger a cell is, the more difficult it is for the cell to move enough nutrients and wastes across its cell membrane to maintain its normal functions.
a)
True
b)
False
7.
As a cell’s size increases, its ratio of surface area to volume decreases.
a)
True
b)
False
8.
How can surface area (SA) be increased? 
a)
Grow larger
b)
Divide into smaller pieces
9.
Define Surface area
a)
The total area on the surface of an object
b)
Length X Width 
c)
6 X (length X width)
d)
Add up the sides and divide by 4
10.
The amount of space something takes up is called the.... 
a)
Surface area
b)
Perimeter 
c)
Volume
d)
Weight
11.
High Surface area to volume ratio allows cells to do what quickly?
a)
Move materials around inside the cell
b)
Move materials in and out of the cell 
c)
Communicate to other cells
d)
Divide
12.

Which of the following are reasons why cells need to divide?

a)

Growth

b)

Replace

c)

Repair

d)

Reproduction

13.

A cell has a volume of 64 units and total surface area of 96 units. What is the cell's surface area to volume ratio?

a)

1.5

b)

2.8

c)

3.4

d)

4.7

14.

A small cell has a ________ surface area to volume ratio than a larger cell.

a)

larger

b)

smaller

c)

equal

15.

The cell's surface area to volume ratio limits the size of a cell by limiting the transport of nutrients and gases into and out of the cell.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Which of the following is least efficient?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

17.

Which of the following has the largest surface area to volume ratio?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

18.
How many parents does asexual reproduction involve?
a)
one 
b)
two
c)
three
d)
four
19.
The offspring from asexually reproduced organisms are?
a)
Different than their parents
b)
Identical to parents
c)
Like a combination from both parents
d)
A different species
20.
If two organisms reproduce sexually, then their offspring will exhibit a genetic makeup that is -
a)
identical to only one parent
b)
identical to all of its siblings
c)
a unique combination of traits
d)
the recessive traits of each parent
21.
Prokaryotes (bacteria) reproduce asexually via -
a)
spore formation
b)
bud creation
c)
vegetative propagation
d)
binary fission
22.
Provided is a table of organisms and some data on their characteristics. Based on the information in the table, which organism is likely to produce offspring with the greatest genetic diversity?
a)
Black mold
b)
Bell tree dahlia
c)
Spruce
d)
Hydra
23.
All of the offspring of an organism have the same genetic material, which is identical to the parent organism. From this, we can conclude that this organism -
a)
makes its own food
b)
is unicellular
c)
live in a marine habitat
d)
reproduces asexually
24.
When comparing the offspring of sexually and asexually reproducing organisms, we would expect the genetic material (DNA) of the sexually reproducing organism to -
a)
contain fewer mutations
b)
be lesser in quantity
c)
be simpler overall
d)
show more variation
25.
The genetic material of an offspring of sexually reproducing organisms is best described as–
a)
identical to that of the other offspring
b)
a copy of the genetic material of the mother
c)
a copy of the genetic material of the father
d)
genes from both parents, in unique combinations
26.
Fishermen work hard to catch and remove all the starfish that get into their “underwater farms” where they raise clams & oysters. In the past, they put the starfish into their boats, cut them up with knives, and then throw the pieces of starfish overboard. They thought this would kill the starfish. What they did not know was that each piece of starfish will grow into a whole new animal. What type of asexual reproduction is taking place?
a)
Regeneration
b)
Vegetative propagation
c)
Budding
d)
Fission
27.
This is when a new organism grows by cell division on the body of its parent. The bud, or offspring is identical to the parent. The bud, when large enough, can break off of the parent and live on its own.  Examples of this include yeast, hydra and potatoes.
 
a)
Regeneration
b)
Vegetative propagation
c)
Fission
d)
Budding
28.
The male typically deposits a spermatophore on the ground or in the water and the female picks this up.  The female salamander then lays its eggs on a stick or rock near water or on land.   There are several different species of salamanders with different colorful patterns.
Which type of reproduction is taking place?
a)
Asexual reproduction with uniform offspring
b)
Sexual reproduction with diverse offspring
c)
Asexual reproduction with diverse offspring
d)
Sexual reproduction with uniform offspring
29.

Asexual reproduction like mitosis produces

a)

Two offspring cells with the same genetic material as the parent cell.

b)

Two offspring cells with half genetic material as the parent cell.

c)

Four offspring cells with the same genetic material as the parent cell.

d)

Four offspring cells with half the genetic material as the parent cell.

30.

A mode of reproduction in which an organism arises from two organisms and inherits half of its DNA from each parent

a)

Sexual Reproduction

b)

Asexual Reproduction

c)

Cloning

d)

Fragmentation

31.

Requires two parents

a)

sexual

b)

asexual

32.

Requires only one parent

a)

sexual

b)

asexual

33.

In sexual reproduction the male produces ___ cells.

a)

Malex

b)

Quack

c)

Egg

d)

Sperm

34.
2 dogs reproduce, 2 sex cells join together & form offspring. The resulting offspring is likely
a)
to express only recessive traits
b)
to be identical to ONE parent
c)
to share some traits from BOTH of its parents
35.
Which of the following describes the main advantages of sexual reproduction? 
a)
requires lots of time/energy
b)
no new gene combos can arise 
c)
diversity
d)
looks identical to the parent
36.
Which reproduction requires a mate?
a)
asexual
b)
sexual
c)
neither
37.
Passes genetic information
onto future generations
a)
sexual reproduction
b)
asexual reproduction
c)
both
38.
In general, asexual reproduction is used by _______ organisms.
a)
simple
b)
extinct
c)
complex
39.
The individual strands on duplicated chromosomes are called_____________
a)
Centromeres
b)
daughters
c)
Chromatids
d)
Karyotypes
40.
The ___________ holds the replicated sister chromatids together.
a)
centriole
b)
chromosomes
c)
centromere
d)
cycles
41.
The cell spends most of it's life in ________________.
a)
mitosis
b)
cytokinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
None of the above
42.
The division of the nucleus is known as:
a)
Synthesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
G1
d)
G2
43.
A human cell has 46 chromosomes before mitotic division.  How many chromosomes will the daughter cells after mitosis.
a)
12
b)
23
c)
46
d)
92
44.
Cells of organism must replicate for ?
a)
growth
b)
repair of damaged cells
c)
replacement of dying cells.
d)
All of the above
45.
The structure labeled A is a(n)
a)
chromatid
b)
centriole
c)
centromere
d)
chromophere
46.
The structures labeled B are
a)
centrioles
b)
chromatids
c)
centromeres
d)
chromopheres
47.
Interphase contains three stages, including the G1 and G2 stages.  Which of the following occurs during these gap stages? 
a)
separation of chromosomes
b)
cellular growth 
c)
DNA replication
d)
viral transformation 
48.
Histones are 
a)
proteins wound up in DNA
b)
critical to maintaining the shape of chromosomes
c)
aid in the tight packing of DNA
d)
all of these 
49.
When DNA is in its less coiled, "relaxed," state, between cell divisions, it is called
a)
autosomes
b)
chromatid
c)
chromatin
d)
centromere
50.
Autosomes are
a)
chromosomes found in autotrophs, only
b)
chromosomes that automatically correct all errors in the DNA
c)
chromosomes that determine traits other than sex
d)
chromosomes that determine the sex of the individual
51.

Each chromosome contains two identical _____.

a)

chromotids

b)

chromosomes

c)

first

d)

meiosis

e)

second

52.
Checkpoints are found in...
a)
G1, metaphase and G2
b)
G1 and anaphase
c)
G2, anaphase and S
d)
G1, G2 and cytokinesis
53.
What is the cell cycle?
a)
The gradual development of something, especially from a simple to a more complex form.
b)
The study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics.
c)
The branch of biology that deals with the relations of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.
d)
The series of events that take place in a cell leading to its division and duplication of its DNA to produce two daughter cells.
54.
Which part of the Cell Cycle takes the longest?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Cytokinesis
55.
What happens in the first part of Interphase?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cell Growth
c)
DNA Replication
d)
Anaphase
56.
What part of the cell cycle results in the splitting of the new cells?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Metaphase
d)
Cytokinesis
57.
What does DNA Replication mean?
a)
DNA is made.
b)
DNA makes new cells. 
c)
DNA copies itself.
d)
DNA starts the cell cycle.
58.
True or False. 
After a cell goes through cytokinesis, it starts mitosis all over again.
a)
True
b)
False
59.
True or False.
Mitosis is a continuous process.
a)
True
b)
False
60.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Metaphase
61.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
62.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
63.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
64.
What part of the cell cycle is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Cytokinesis
65.
True or False.
Mitosis is made up of 5 phases.
a)
True
b)
False
66.
What is the longest phase in MITOSIS?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Interphase
d)
Anaphase
67.
In what phase do the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Metaphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
68.
In what phase does chromatin condense to form chromosomes?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
69.
In what phase do the chromosomes get pulled apart into sister chromatid to opposite sides of the cell?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Anaphase
70.
In what phase do the organelles disperse out into the daughter cells, and the cell prepares for cytokinesis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Telophase
71.
What can the cell cycle also be called?
a)
Cell growth
b)
DNA Replication
c)
Preparation for Mitosis
d)
Cell Divison
72.
BONUS:
How long is the whole cell cycle for most animal cells?
a)
2-3 days
b)
24 hours
c)
2-3 hours
d)
23 hours
73.
What is a series of events a cell goes through as they grow and divide?
a)
Cell Division
b)
Cell Cycle
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Mitosis
74.
What is the longest stage of the cell cycle called?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
M phase
c)
Interphase
d)
G1 Phase
75.
During what stage does the G1, S and G2 phases happen?
a)
Interphase
b)
M phase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Cytokinesis
76.
During which stage of the cell cycle does mitosis and cytokinesis occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
S phase
c)
M phase
d)
G1 phase
77.
During what phase of the cell cycle does cell division occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
M phase
c)
S phase
d)
G2 phase
78.
During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
G2 phase
d)
M phase
79.
During what phase of the cell cycle does the cell grow?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
M phase
d)
Cytokinesis
80.
During what phase of the cell cycle does the cell prepare for mitosis?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
G2 phase
d)
M phase
81.
How many stages are in mitosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
82.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
83.
Put the following stages of the cell cycle in order: G2, S, G1, M. 
a)
G1, S, G2, M
b)
S, G1, G2, M
c)
G1, M, G2, S
d)
M, G1, S, G2
84.
Put the following in order: G2, G1, S, mitosis, cytokinesis. 
a)
G1, G2, S, Mitosis, cytokinesis
b)
G1, S, G2, Mitosis, cytokinesis
c)
G1, G2, S, cytokinesis, mitosis
d)
G1, S, G2, cytokinesis, mitosis
85.
Put the following actions in order: DNA replicates, cell grows, cell divides, cell prepares for mitosis. 
a)
DNA replicates, cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
b)
cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, DNA replicates, cell divides
c)
cell grows, DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
d)
DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell grows, cell divides
86.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
87.
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
88.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
89.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
90.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
91.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
92.
Which is Metaphase?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
C
d)
F
93.
Chromosomes condense from long stands into rod like structures. 
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
94.
The phase in mitosis where chromosomes move away and are pulled apart by spindles to opposite sides of the cell.
a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
telephase
95.
A chromatid is attached to a spindle fiber by the
a)
nucleolus
b)
deep furrow
c)
centromere
d)
centriole
96.
The structures that hold together sister chromatids
a)
tissues
b)
chromosomes
c)
spindle
d)
centromeres
97.
The process by which the nuclear material is divided equally between two new cells
a)
mitosis
b)
cancer
c)
spindle
d)
centromere
98.
the two halves of the doubled chromosome structure 
a)
centromeres
b)
sister chromatids
c)
spindle
d)
tissues
99.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
100.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
101.
What is the name of the structure labeled X?
a)
Centriole
b)
Centrosome
c)
Chromatid
d)
Chromosome 
102.
The time between cell divisions in the life cycle of the cell is called
a)
anaphase
b)
interphase
c)
prophase
d)
metaphase
103.
This picture shows which process?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
the cell cycle
104.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have -
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
105.

Cancer is...

a)

Uncontrolled cell growth

b)

Normal cell growth

c)

A protein

d)

A cell cycle regulator

106.

A substance that is known to cause cancer is called a

a)

carcinogen

b)

retrovirus

c)

pathogen

d)

paramecium

107.

Which of these is a tumor that is noncancerous and does not spread?

a)

Malignant

b)

Benign

108.

What is Apoptosis?

a)

A tumor

b)

A protein

c)

Programmed cell death

d)

Cell cycle checkpoints

109.
Which of the following is a type of protein that regulates the cell cycle? 
a)
actin 
b)
myosin 
c)
cyclin 
d)
pepsin 
110.

What is cell differentiation?

a)

The process where unspecialized cells become different in structure and function.

b)

When DNA controls the cell cycle.

c)

The ability of cells to make more cells.

d)

The ability of cells to maintain homeostasis.

111.
Which is true about Embryonic Stem Cells.
a)
They no longer do mitosis, their cell type is set and can not change
b)
They are limited to the type of cell they can become
c)
They can become any cell type in the body
d)
They are found in adults
112.

Cells that have the ability to become any type of specialized cell in the body are called:

a)

cell membranes

b)

stem cells

c)

nerve cells

d)

cardiac cells

113.
structure B is?
a)
inner cell mass
b)
totipotent cell
c)
 white blood cell
d)
a blastocyst
114.
Adult stem cells are?
a)
mutlipotent
b)
pluripotent
c)
totipotent
d)
isopotent 
115.
Which of the following cells has the ability to form any tissue in the body?
a)
blastoycst 
b)
pluripotent
c)
multipotent
d)
totipotent
116.
Stem cell research is controversial because in involves?
a)
social issues
b)
ethical issues
c)
educational issues
d)
economical issues
117.
Embryonic stem cells are?
a)
mutlipotent
b)
pluripotent
c)
totipotent
d)
isopotent 
118.
The diagram shows the process of cell specialization from a single stem cell. Which of the following statements is true about the process of specialization.
a)
Specilized cells (blood, skin, nervous etc) cannot be produced from a single stem cell
b)
Specilized cells are produced immediately following fertilization
c)
Even though all the cells in an organism come from one single cell, they can specialize into different cell types
d)
Sincce all the cells in an organism come from one single cell, they must all have the same structure and function
119.
What is one goal of cellular differentiation/specialization?
a)
To create specialized cells to help organism maintain homeostasis.
b)
To many cells.
c)
To make stem cells
d)
to make single celled organisms
120.
Which phrase best describes a common characteristic of all cancers?
a)
absence of cyclins
b)
damaged DNA
c)
uncontrolled cell growth
d)
inherited from parents
121.

What is the role of protein kinases?

a)

remove phosphate groups to deactivate enzymes

b)

trigger apoptosis

c)

add phosphate groups and energy to activate enzymes

d)

stop the cell cycle

122.

Which of these may be assessed by various proteins during a "checkpoint"? CHECK ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Ensure that all chromosomes have lined up in the center of the cell before sister chromatids separate

b)

Ensure that spindle fibers have attached to all centromeres before cell division

c)

Ensure that DNA has been replicated properly

123.
Which description is true about cell cycle regulation?
a)
Changing concentrations of Cdk result in binding to cyclin
b)
Changing concentrations of cyclin result in binding to Cdk
c)
MPF complex formation decreases with increased Cdk levels
d)
MPF complex formation decreases with increased cyclin levels
124.

In which stage of the cell cycle are cells most susceptible (likely to experience) to mutations?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

G0

125.

Which of the following correctly describes cells that are in the G0 phase?

a)

Mature nerve and muscle cells are unable to divide and are permanently in G0.

b)

Many cells enter G0 when they reach the checkpoint during the M phase.

c)

Cells in G0 are growing and preparing for cell division.

d)

DNA replication occurs during G0.

126.
The graph represents the amount of DNA in the nucleus of each cell during the cell cycle.
Which region represents the G2 phase?
a)
I
b)
II
c)
III
d)
IV
127.
How does the concentration of cyclin dependent kinases (Cdk) change as the cell proceeds through the cell cycle?
a)
Cdk concentration remains constant.
b)
Cdk concentration increases during interphase and decreases during mitosis.
c)
Cdk concentration decreases during interphase and increases during mitosis.
d)
Cdk concentration correlates directly with MPF concentration.
128.
How does the concentration of cyclin change as a cell goes through the cell cycle?
a)
Cyclin concentration remains constant.
b)
Cyclin concentration increases during interphase and decreases during mitosis.
c)
Cyclin concentration decreases during interphase and increases during mitosis.
d)
Cyclin concentration is inversely related to MPF concentrations.
129.
Once a cell completes mitosis, what happens to MPF? 
a)
It is completely degraded
b)
it is exported from the cell
c)
the cyclin component of MPF is degraded
d)
the Cdk component of MPF is degraded
130.

Which of these is a risk factor for developing cancer? CHECK ALL THAT APPLY

a)

growing older

b)

genetic inheritance

c)

exposure to carcinogens (toxins that can damage DNA)

d)

smoking

131.
The normal function of a tumor suppressor gene is 
a)
to produce growth signals
b)
to code for proteins that inhibit, or slow, cell division
c)
to cause the cell to move faster through the cell cycle
d)
to attack cancer cells in the body
132.
When it occurs at the proper time, programmed cell death (apoptosis)
a)
will disrupt homeostasis
b)
may cause defective genetic info to be passed to the next generation of cells
c)
is an important regulatory process that maintains the health of a multicellular organism
d)
can contribute to the development of cancer
133.

Oncogenes

a)

are mutated forms of tumor suppressor genes

b)

are mutated forms of genes that code for proteins that normally assist in apoptosis

c)

are mutated genes the inhibit the cell cycle

d)

are mutated genes that code for proteins which activate cell division too often or at the improper time

134.
What kind of a gene is p53?
a)
Proto-Oncogene
b)
Oncogene
c)
Tumor Suppressor Gene
d)
Proto-Tumor Suppressor Gene
135.

Which of the following ensure that your cells will divide properly and maintain tissue homeostasis? CHECK ALL THAT APPLY!

a)

proto-oncogenes & tumor suppressor genes

b)

DNA repair system

c)

apoptosis

d)

mutations

136.

Stem cells are

a)

undifferentiated or unspecialized cells in the body.

b)

differentiated or specialized cells in the body.

c)

only found in the inner mass cells of blastocyst

d)

only found in a fetus

137.

_________ refers to a stem cell's ability to differentiate into other cell types

a)

potency

b)

potential

c)

dormancy

d)

aptitude

138.

a cell that has the most potential, able to become any type of cell.

a)

Totipotent

b)

Pluripotent

c)

Multipotent

139.

can become any of the three cell layers in a

developing embryo (endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm), but not the placenta surrounding the embryo.

a)

Totipotent

b)

Pluripotent

c)

Multipotent

140.

partially differentiated, with only the capacity to become one cell type.

a)

Totipotent

b)

Pluripotent

c)

Multipotent

141.

As cells become more specialized

a)

cells have access to more genes

b)

some genes are turned off

c)

some gene segments get lost

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