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Worksheets

200-242

Total questions: 43

Worksheet time: 11hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If an amber AP AIL MISTRIM CAS message appears, it may indicate a high Mach roll situation.

What are the pilot's actions?

a)

Do nothing, the autopilot corrects itself

b)

Disconnect the autopilot and slow down

c)

Maintain attitude and airspeed while disconnecting the autopilot

d)

Disconnect the autopilot and increase airspeed

2.

Section 6

Special Requirements for IFR Operations

201. How is the selected MDA altitude is displayed on the PFD altitude tape?

a)

Magenta bug and line

b)

Blue MDA bug

c)

White pointer

d)

Only if FMS VNAV is active

3.

What is the minimum altitude for autopilot operation during an ILS approach?

a)

500 ft AGL

b)

200 ft AGL

c)

300 ft DH

d)

200 ft above DH

4.

Which of the following statements is correct?

An IS approach with the FMS:

a)

Is authorized to a minimum altitude of 200 ft AGL

b)

Is authorized to the published DH.

c)

Is not authorized

d)

Requires green data be selected on the slave display controller

5.

How is descent below the selected baro altitude is indicated?

a)

By a flashing of the WARN/CAUT annunciators

b)

By an amber MIN in a white box displayed on the PFDs and the "Minimums" voice alert

c)

By a flashing DH on the PFDs and the "Minimums" voice alert

d)

By a flashing RA or BARO, as appropriate on the PFDs, and the "Minimums" voice alert

6.

What should happen if an AHRS failure occurs during a coupled ILS approach? LR45/S6/5

a)

The pilot should switch to the opposite AHRS on the reversion panel and continue the coupled

approach

b)

The autopilot disconnects and a red AUTOPILOT message appears on EICAS

c)

The autopilot is still available

d)

The autopilot disconnects and a flashing red AP appears on the PFDs

7.

How does the FPA indicate aircraft deceleration during a windshear encounter?

a)

The FPA acceleration symbol (>) moves below the flightpath symbol

b)

The FPA acceleration symbol (>) moves above the flightpath symbol

c)

The FPA acceleration symbol (>) moves further left of the flightpath symbol

d)

The FPA acceleration symbol (>) moves right of the flightpath symbol

8.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Nuisance alerting by CAS messages during takeoff and landing:

a)

Should be anticipated and prioritized with other aircraft duties

b)

Is prevented by the CAS takeoff and landing inhibit mode

c)

Is activated by pushing the WARN/CAUT annunciator until the lights extinguish prior to takeoff or

landing

d)

Is inhibited except for engine fire and cabin smoke

9.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Actuating the GO-AROUND button on the left thrust lever results in:

a)

ROL and PIT annunciations with 9° pitchup/wings level attitude by the flight director on the PFDs

b)

ROL and GA annunciations with 9° pitchup/wings level attitude by the flight director on the PFDs

c)

HDG and GA annunciations with wings level/pitchup attitude commensurate with flap setting by

the flight director on the PFDs

d)

HDG and GA annunciations with pitchup/bank attitude dependent on TCS selection by the flight

director on the PFDs

10.

What approach category is the Learjet 40/45 aircraft?

a)

C

b)

Heavy Transport

c)

Light Commercial

d)

B

11.

Below what altitude must the autopilot be disengaged?

a)

100 ft in VFR conditions

b)

200 ft AGL

c)

300 ft on VOR or NDB approaches

d)

400 ft on ILS approaches

12.

What happens when reaching the decision altitude set on the minimums alerter?

a)

Aural "C note" tone is heard

b)

Aural alert "Terrain. Terrain" is heard

c)

Amber MINS message is displayed on the PFD

d)

Pin in the seat pokes you in the back

13.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Pressing the GO-AROUND button on the left thrust lever:

a)

Sets the autopilot to GO-AROUND mode

b)

Disengages the autopilot

c)

Disengages the flight director

d)

Automatically moves the thrust levers to T/O power

14.

The flight director always automatically commands level-off at the selected altitude (ASEL) except under what conditions?

a)

Above FL 350

b)

There are no exceptions; it always commands a level off

c)

Below 500 ft AGL

d)

On an approach glideslope (GS or VNV)

15.

What is required to arm the flight director for an ILS approach?

a)

Press the APP button on the flight guidance panel

b)

Press the APP and GS buttons on the flight guidance panel

c)

Press the APP and GS buttons on the flight guidance panel

d)

Nothing; the flight director automatically arms

16.

What does an amber ILS warning on the PFD indicate?

a)

It is normal

b)

Indicates a comparator warning

c)

Indicates the glideslope is inoperative, the approach may be continued

d)

Means the flight director is not coupled to the approach

17.

To what Category minima is the Learjet 40/45 is authorized to conduct approaches to?

a)

Category I and Il minimums

b)

Category I minimums

c)

Category Ill minimums only

d)

Category IV minimums

18.

Special Requirements for Glass Cockpit Aircraft

How is the crew advised that both PFDs are displaying data from the same source?

a)

Nav source annunciations left of the HSI display are shown in green

b)

Bearing pointers park at 3 o'clock position

c)

Nav source/display indications left of the HSI display are shown in yellow

d)

The scenario is automatically prevented by the IC-600 computers

19.

When is the amber ATT annunciation displayed?

a)

Both ADC1 and ADC2 failed

b)

Both AHRS1 and AHRS2 failed

c)

Both IC/SG1 and IC/SG2 failed

d)

Differences in pitch and roll data exceeded comparator limits

20.

The amber annunciation SG2 appears when?

a)

Pilot and copilot selected the same attitude information source

b)

Pilot and copilot selected the same air data information source

c)

This annunciation is present for normal operations

d)

IC/SG NORM knob has been rotated to the number 2 position

21.

What would failure of one (1) symbol generator Would result in?

a)

Red X's on all four display units

b)

Blank RMU displays

c)

Red X's on two display units

d)

Red X's on one display unit

22.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Attitude and heading reference data is:

a)

Supplied by the respective vertical gyro and flux gate assemblies

b)

Reset by cycling the HEADING button on the AHRS panel

c)

Supplied from the respective AHRS

d)

Is a function of the ADC

23.

What is failure of DU3 indicated by?

a)

DU3 FAIL CAS message

b)

Blank (dark) display

c)

Automatic display reversion to DU4

d)

DU OVHT CAS message

24.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A red AT FAIL and HDG FAIL annunciation on a PFD indicates the respective

a)

IC-600 failed

b)

Air data computer failed (loss of true airspeed)

c)

Data acquisition unit failed

d)

AHRS failed

25.

Which of the following statements is correct?

The DU3 knob on the copilot display panel:

a)

Is used to dim DU3 and DU4

b)

Swaps EICAS and PFD displays between DU2 and DU3

c)

Controls power to DU3 (turns it on-off)

d)

Display of DU3 as either MFD or PFD

26.

Which of the following statements is correct?

If display unit (DU«2 fails, the EICAS page:

a)

May be displayed on DU 1

b)

May be displayed on the number one FMS CDU

c)

May be displayed on DU 3

d)

Is lost; it can only be displayed on DU 2

27.

Where are the brightness controls for the display units located?

a)

In the NAV LIGHTS switch

b)

On the flight guidance panel located on the glareshield

c)

On the pilot/copilot lighting panels located on the lower instrument panel

d)

On the display control panels located on the glareshield

28.

Which of the following statements is correct?

The flight director command bars follow navigation commands:

a)

From the number one FMS CDU

b)

Always from the pilot side PFD display

c)

From the copilot (not the master side) display

d)

From the master side PFD display

29.

What does the magenta-colored bar on the airspeed indicator show?

a)

Low speed awareness cue showing stall speed

b)

VMO/Mo showing the speed limit

c)

Airspeed trend vector showing acceleration or deceleration

d)

There is no magenta-colored bar on the airspeed indicator

30.

Where are the controls for the bearing pointers on the HSI located?

a)

On the lower part of DU 1 or DU 2

b)

On the center pedestal FMS control display unit

c)

On the glareshield display control panels

d)

On the pilot or copilot side panels

31.

In addition to controlling the radios, what can the RMs can also show?

a)

Engine and airspeed displays

b)

Backup engine and navigation displays

c)

Backup navigation and EGPWS displays

d)

EGPWS and TCAS displays

32.

What would loss of the left integrated computer (IC 600 #1) be indicated by?

a)

An amber CAS message L IAC FAIL

b)

Blank display units on the copilot side (DU 3 and DU 4)

c)

Red X on both RMU displays

d)

DU 1 and DU 2 displaying a large red X

33.

Which of the following statements is correct?

If the AHRS reversion knob is selected to the 2 position:

a)

Airspeed and heading indicators on the copilot side is blank

b)

Automatic headset radio system only receives from the left side

c)

Attitude and heading indications on both sides are from AHRS #1

d)

Attitude and heading indications on both sides are from AHRS #2

34.

Section 8

Flight Management System

In addition to initial position date and time, what other important information is presented on the

initialization (INIT) page?

a)

FMS software version

b)

Navigation database expiration date

c)

Crossfill options for dual FMS installations

d)

FMS software version, NAV database expiration date, crossfill options for dual FMS installations

35.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A list search for airways uses a reference waypoint. this reference waypoint is the:

a)

Waypoint following the current cursor location

b)

Present aircraft position

c)

Waypoint preceding the current cursor location

d)

Departure airport

36.

FMS data is displayed on the PFD via control which of the following?

a)

DISPLAY button on the FMS NAV page

b)

NAV button on the flight guidance panel

c)

NAV button on the respective display control panel

d)

MS button on the respective display control panel

37.

Which of the following statements is correct?

FMS navigation data is shown differently than VOR/LOC navigation data by:

a)

Position- FMS data is shown on the left PFD and VOR/LOC data on the right

b)

Color-VOR/LOC data is magenta

c)

Label-FMS data is clearly labeled FMS in the lateral and vertical mode fields of the PFD

d)

Color-FMS data is normally white in a dual FMS installation

38.

What should happen when using the DTO function?

a)

A window opens showing the flight plan waypoints with the current FROM waypoint at the top of

the display list

b)

A window opens showing all flight plan waypoints starting at waypoint number 1

c)

A window opens showing a list of nearby VORs and pilot waypoints

d)

The desired TO waypoint may be selected by pressing the adjacent line select keys

39.

MS is coupled to the autopilot by which of the following?

a)

Pushing the FMS button on the flight guidance panel

b)

Pushing the NAV button on the display control panel

c)

Selecting AP on the flight guidance panel

d)

Selecting FMS on the display control panel and NAV on the flight guidance panel

40.

The UNS-1E FMS is approved for which of the following instrument approaches?

a)

ILS. VOR-DME, BC, and GPS

b)

VOR, RNAV, VOR-DME, BC, NDB, and GPS

c)

ILS, VOR, GPS, and RNAV

d)

LDA-BC, GPS, VOR-DME, VOR, NDB

41.

PFD1 normally displays FMS1 while PFD2 normally displays FMS2. The indications may be

selected by pressing which of the following?

a)

NAV button on the flight guidance controller

b)

FMS button on the respective display panel

c)

NAV button on the respective display panel

d)

DU2 and DU3 knobs between PFD1 and PFD2

42.

Which of the following items are not on the FMS initialization (INIT) page?

a)

Initial position

b)

UTC time

c)

Date

d)

FROM - TO information

43.

To load a departure procedure from the data base into the flight plan, what must the pilot do?

a)

From the performance page, just type in the title of the departure procedure

b)

From the flight plan page, push the FPL button and choose SID

c)

From the flight plan page, push the MENU button and choose DEPART

d)

Cannot be done; pilot must type in all departure waypoints