Free Printable MET Pre-Placement Aptitude Test

1.

The total cost of 2 pencils, 5 erasers and 7 sharpeners is Rs.30, while 3 pencils and 5 sharpeners cost Rs.15 more than 6 erasers. By what amount (in Rs.) does the cost of 39 erasers and 1 sharpener exceed the cost of 6 pencils?

a)

20

b)

30

c)

It does not exceed

d)

Cannot be determined

2.

If the roots of the equation (x + 1) (x + 9) + 8 = 0 are a and b, then the roots of the equation (x + a) (x + b) - 8 = 0 are

a)

1 and 9

b)

-4 and -6

c)

4 and 6

d)

Cannot be determined

3.

What is the remainder when 7¹⁰⁰ is divided by 100?

a)

1

b)

61

c)

41

d)

21

4.

Balram, the local shoe shop owner, sells four types of footwear - Slippers (S), Canvas Shoes (C), Leather Shoes (L) and Joggers (J). The following information is known regarding the cost prices and selling prices of these four types of footwear:

(i) L sells for Rs.500 less than J, which costs Rs.300 more than S, which, in turn, sells for Rs.200 more than L.

(ii) costs Rs.300 less than C, which sells for Rs.100 more than S, which, in turn, costs Rs.100 less than C.

If it is known that Balram never sells any item at a loss, then which of the following is true regarding the profit percentages earned by Balram on the items L, S, C and J represented by l, s, c and j respectively?

a)

l ≥ c ≥ s ≥ j

b)

c ≥ s ≥ l ≥ j

c)

l ≥ s ≥ c ≥ j

d)

s ≥ l ≥ j ≥ c

5.

In the figure below, P, Q and R are points on a circle with centre O. The tangent to the circle at R intersects secant PQ at T. If QRT = 55° and QTR = 25°, find POQ.

a)

110°

b)

100°

c)

90°

d)

50°

6.

The perimeter of a circle is equal to the perimeter of the square. Their areas are in the ratio

a)

4:1

b)

11:7

c)

14:11

d)

22:7

7.

Some friends planned to contribute equally to jointly buy a CD player. However, two of them decided to withdraw at the last minute. As a result, each of the others had to shell out one rupee more than what they had planned for. If the price (in Rs.) of the CD player is an integer between 1000 and 1100, find the number of friends who actually contributed?

a)

21

b)

23

c)

44

d)

46

8.

The sphere of maximum volume is cut out from a solid hemisphere of radius r. The ratio of the volume of the hemisphere to that of the cut out sphere is

a)

3:2

b)

4:1

c)

4:3

d)

7:4

9.

A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity sold at 18% profit is

a)

400 kg

b)

560 kg

c)

600 kg

d)

640 kg

10.

If N = 888.up to 100 digits, what is the remainder when N is divided by 625?

a)

128

b)

138

c)

338

d)

388

11.

In the figure below, BD = 8 cm and DC = 6 cm. AE : ED = 3 : 4. If AF = 12 cm, find AC (in cm).

a)

28

b)

38

c)

44

d)

40

12.

A regular polygon has an even number of sides. If the product of the length of its side and the distance between two opposite

sides is 1/4th of its area, find the number of sides it has.

a)

6

b)

8

c)

20

d)

16

13.

There are three cities A, B and C, not on the same straight road. Two buses P and Q start simultaneously from A and B respectively towards C. By the time Q reaches C, P is exactly halfway to C. Immediately after Q reaches C, it starts travelling towards A and it

crosses P at a point 165 km from A. The ratio of the speeds of P and Q is 3 : 5. Assume that the roads joining A to C, B to C and B to A are all straight roads. If B is twice as far as from A as it is from C

and P would take to cover the distance from A to B, how much time would Q take to cover the distance from C to A?

a)

2.4 hours

b)

3 hours

c)

3.6 hours

d)

4 hours

14.

A sum of money is sufficient to pay A’s wages for 21 days and B’s wages for 28 days. The same money is sufficient to pay the wages of both for

a)

12 days

b)

12.25 days

c)

14 days

d)

24.5 days

15.

Bucket P has thrice the capacity of bucket Q. It takes 60 turns for bucket P to fill the empty drum. How many turns it will take for both P and Q, having each turn together to fill the empty drum?

a)

30

b)

40

c)

45

d)

90

16.

A natural number n is such that 120 n ≤ 240. If HCF of n and 240 is 1, how many values of n are possible?

a)

24

b)

32

c)

36

d)

40

17.

If the sum to infinity of the series 2 + (2 - d)2/3 + (2 + d) 4/9 + (2

+ 3d) 8/27 + ... is 5/2, what is the value of d?

a)

7/12

b)

-7/12

c)

-5/12

d)

5/12

18.

The first n natural numbers, 1 to n, have to be arranged in a row from left to right. The n numbers are arranged such that there are an odd number of numbers between any two even numbers as well as between any two odd numbers. If the number of ways in which this can be done is 72, then find the value of n.

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

more than 8

19.

DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 21. Please analyze the paragraph and answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

After facing yet another World Cup debacle, the Board of Cricket Control in India (BCCI) is in search of a new coach for the team. It shortlisted five persons - Anshuman, Buchanen, John, Whatmore and Chappel. Each of them is from a different country among Australia, India, Japan, Pakistan and Canada, not necessarily in that order. At present, each of them is coaching the team of a different country among Australia, Bangladesh, China, Wales and Bermuda, not necessarily in that order. The following details were also observed about their particulars:

(i) For any person, each of his three particulars - his name, the name of the country from which he is and the name of the country that he is coaching at present, starts with a different letter.

(ii) Whatmore is coaching Australia and John is from

neither Australia nor Pakistan.

(iii) Buchanen is not coaching China and the

person who is coaching Bermuda is from Canada.

(iv) Anshuman is neither from Canada nor from Pakistan

and also the person from Pakistan is coaching Bangladesh.

Q) Whatmore is from which country?

a)

India

b)

Japan

c)

Canada

d)

Cannot be determined

20.

DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 21. Please analyze the paragraph and answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

After facing yet another World Cup debacle, the Board of Cricket Control in India (BCCI) is in search of a new coach for the team. It shortlisted five persons - Anshuman, Buchanen, John, Whatmore and Chappel. Each of them is from a different country among Australia, India, Japan, Pakistan and Canada, not necessarily in that order. At present, each of them is coaching the team of a different country among Australia, Bangladesh, China, Wales and Bermuda, not necessarily in that order. The following details were also observed about their particulars:

(i) For any person, each of his three particulars - his name, the name of the country from which he is and the name of the country that he is coaching at present, starts with a different letter.

(ii) Whatmore is coaching Australia and John is from

neither Australia nor Pakistan.

(iii) Buchanen is not coaching China and the

person who is coaching Bermuda is from Canada.

(iv) Anshuman is neither from Canada nor from Pakistan

and also the person from Pakistan is coaching Bangladesh.

Q) Who is the person from Australia?

a)

Buchanen

b)

John

c)

Whatmore

d)

Cannot be determined

21.

DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 21. Please analyze the paragraph and answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

After facing yet another World Cup debacle, the Board of Cricket Control in India (BCCI) is in search of a new coach for the team. It shortlisted five persons - Anshuman, Buchanen, John, Whatmore and Chappel. Each of them is from a different country among Australia, India, Japan, Pakistan and Canada, not necessarily in that order. At present, each of them is coaching the team of a different country among Australia, Bangladesh, China, Wales and Bermuda, not necessarily in that order. The following details were also observed about their particulars:

(i) For any person, each of his three particulars - his name, the name of the country from which he is and the name of the country that he is coaching at present, starts with a different letter.

(ii) Whatmore is coaching Australia and John is from

neither Australia nor Pakistan.

(iii) Buchanen is not coaching China and the

person who is coaching Bermuda is from Canada.

(iv) Anshuman is neither from Canada nor from Pakistan

and also the person from Pakistan is coaching Bangladesh.

Q) The person from Japan is definitely not coaching

a)

China

b)

Wales

c)

Australia

d)

More than one of the above

22.

DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Mr Suzuki, a car dealer, sold cars of only two brands, A and B, in the previous year. This year, he introduced a new brand, C. The number of cars of brand A and brand B sold in the previous year were in the ratio 3 : 2, and the ratio of the number of cars sold in the previous year to that sold in this year is 2 : 3 for brand A and 2 : 5 for brand B. Further, the number of cars of brand C sold this year forms 81% of the total number of cars sold this year.

Q) Find the number of cars of brand C sold this year, given that a total of 24 cars of brand A were sold in the previous year

a)

324

b)

648

c)

162

d)

243

23.

DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Mr Suzuki, a car dealer, sold cars of only two brands, A and B, in the previous year. This year, he introduced a new brand, C. The number of cars of brand A and brand B sold in the previous year were in the ratio 3 : 2, and the ratio of the number of cars sold in the previous year to that sold in this year is 2 : 3 for brand A and 2 : 5 for brand B. Further, the number of cars of brand C sold this year forms 81% of the total number of cars sold this year.

Q) What is the percentage increase in the total number of cars sold this year when compared to the total number of cars sold in the previous year?

a)

400%

b)

600%

c)

900%

d)

1000%

24.

DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Mr Suzuki, a car dealer, sold cars of only two brands, A and B, in the previous year. This year, he introduced a new brand, C. The number of cars of brand A and brand B sold in the previous year were in the ratio 3 : 2, and the ratio of the number of cars sold in the previous year to that sold in this year is 2 : 3 for brand A and 2 : 5 for brand B. Further, the number of cars of brand C sold this year forms 81% of the total number of cars sold this year.

Q) In the next year, Mr.Suzuki wants to increase the total sales by 80%, compared to the total sales this year, by keeping the sales of each of A, B and C at the same level as that in this year and introducing a new brand D. By what percent will the number of cars of brand D (to be sold next year) be more than the total number of cars sold last year?

a)

400%

b)

600%

c)

900%

d)

700%

25.

DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Mr Suzuki, a car dealer, sold cars of only two brands, A and B, in the previous year. This year, he introduced a new brand, C. The number of cars of brand A and brand B sold in the previous year were in the ratio 3 : 2, and the ratio of the number of cars sold in the previous year to that sold in this year is 2 : 3 for brand A and 2 : 5 for brand B. Further, the number of cars of brand C sold this year forms 81% of the total number of cars sold this year.

Q) If a total of 380 cars were sold this year, and the sales of C this year were nil, instead of 81% of total sales, then how many cars of brand A were sold in the previous year?

a)

140

b)

120

c)

100

d)

160

26.

DIRECTIONS for questions 26 and 27: The question given below is

followed by two statements, I and II. Study the information given in the two statements and assess whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question and choose the appropriate option from among the choices given below:

Two of the three cricketers Pavan, Rajan and Tarun are selected to the national team. Each of these three persons scored a different number of centuries and a different number of runs. Further, among these three, Tarun scored the highest number of centuries. Who among Pavan, Rajan and Tarun is not selected to the national team?

I. The person with the higher number of runs between Tarun and Pavan, is the person who scored the lesser number of centuries between the two persons selected.

II. The person with the least number of runs between Rajan and Tarun, is the person who scored the higher number of centuries between the two persons selected.

a)

The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone

b)

The question can be answered by using either statement alone.

c)

The question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone

d)

The question cannot be answered even by using both statements together.

27.

DIRECTIONS for questions 26 and 27: The question given below is

followed by two statements, I and II. Study the information given in the two statements and assess whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question and choose the appropriate option from among the choices given below:

Triangle ABC is right angled at B. What is the value of AB + BC?

I. Diameter of the circle inscribed in the triangle ABC is 10 cm.

II. Diameter of the circle circumscribing the triangle ABC is 27 cm.

a)

The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.

b)

The question can be answered by using either statement alone.

c)

The question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone.

d)

The question cannot be answered even by using both statements together.

28.

DIRECTIONS for questions 28 to 31: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A team must be selected from ten probables - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. Of these, A, C, E and J are forwards, B, G and H are point guards and D, F and I are defenders.

Further the following conditions need to be observed:

• The team must have at least one forward, one point guard and one defender.

• If the team includes J, it must also include F.

• The team must include E or B, but not both.

• If the team includes G, it must also include F.

• The team must include exactly one among C, G and I.

• C and F cannot be members of the same team.

• D and H cannot be members of the same team.

• The team must include both A and D or neither of them.

There is no restriction on the number of members in the team.

Q) What could be the size of the team that includes G?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

More than one of the above

29.

DIRECTIONS for questions 28 to 31: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A team must be selected from ten probables - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. Of these, A, C, E and J are forwards, B, G and H are point guards and D, F and I are defenders.

Further the following conditions need to be observed:

• The team must have at least one forward, one point guard and one defender.

• If the team includes J, it must also include F.

• The team must include E or B, but not both.

• If the team includes G, it must also include F.

• The team must include exactly one among C, G and I.

• C and F cannot be members of the same team.

• D and H cannot be members of the same team.

• The team must include both A and D or neither of them.

There is no restriction on the number of members in the team.

Q) What would be the size of the largest possible team?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

30.

DIRECTIONS for questions 28 to 31: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A team must be selected from ten probables - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. Of these, A, C, E and J are forwards, B, G and H are point guards and D, F and I are defenders.

Further the following conditions need to be observed:

• The team must have at least one forward, one point guard and one defender.

• If the team includes J, it must also include F.

• The team must include E or B, but not both.

• If the team includes G, it must also include F.

• The team must include exactly one among C, G and I.

• C and F cannot be members of the same team.

• D and H cannot be members of the same team.

• The team must include both A and D or neither of them.

There is no restriction on the number of members in the team.

Q) Who cannot be included in a team of size 6?

a)

A

b)

H

c)

J

d)

E

31.

DIRECTIONS for questions 28 to 31: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A team must be selected from ten probables - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. Of these, A, C, E and J are forwards, B, G and H are point guards and D, F and I are defenders.

Further the following conditions need to be observed:

• The team must have at least one forward, one point guard and one defender.

• If the team includes J, it must also include F.

• The team must include E or B, but not both.

• If the team includes G, it must also include F.

• The team must include exactly one among C, G and I.

• C and F cannot be members of the same team.

• D and H cannot be members of the same team.

• The team must include both A and D or neither of them.

There is no restriction on the number of members in the team.

Q) What can be the size of the team that includes C?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

More than one of the above

32.

DIRECTIONS for questions 32 and 33: The question given below is followed by two statements, I and II. Study the information given in the two statements and assess whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question and choose the appropriate option from among the choices given below:

Q) What percentage of the questions were attempted by Ramya in the exam?

I. 30% of the questions are attempted by both Ramya and Swathi.

II. The number of questions attempted by Ramya but not by Swathi is (5/8)th of the total number of questions attempted by Ramya.

a)

The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by the other.

b)

The question can be answered by using either statement alone.

c)

The question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.

d)

The question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together

33.

DIRECTIONS for questions 32 and 33: The question given below is followed by two statements, I and II. Study the information given in the two statements and assess whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question and choose the appropriate option from among the choices given below:

Q) Each of Ankit and Bhanu belong to one of the tribes between truth tellers i.e., those who always speak the truth, and liars i.e., those who always lie. Do both of them belong to the same tribe?

I. Ankit : I am a liar, only if Bhanu is a truth teller.

II. Bhanu : I am a truth teller, only if Ankit is a liar.

a)

The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by the other.

b)

The question can be answered by using either statement alone.

c)

The question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.

d)

The question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

34.

DIRECTIONS for question 34: The following question has a set of five sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following.

- Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an 'F').

- Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with an 'I').

- Judgments, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a 'J').

Select the answer option that best describes the set of statements.

(A) The renewed corporate interest in power is welcome, given the huge investment backlog in the vexed sector and the routine revenue leakages.

(B) Reportedly, industrial houses like Reliance Industries and the Aditya Birla Group are keen to foray into power equipment manufacture.

(C) In tandem, we need proactive policy to wipe out continuing losses of state power utilities, and regular disclosure of SEB finances.

(D) Of late, the tendency has been to clamp up on the huge annual losses of power utilities - the latest Economic Survey like the previous one is mum on losses, subsidies and plain theft of power; instead we have some pious intentions to gather 'baseline data' and use information technology application for accounting and auditing power distribution.

(E) We do need to step up IT for meter reading, billing and collections, of course, but in parallel, what is essential indeed vital, is improved governance in power delivery and follow through.

a)

JFIFJ

b)

IJFJJ

c)

FJJIF

d)

JFJIJ

35.

DIRECTIONS for questions 35 and 36: In each question, four different ways of presenting an idea are given. Choose the one that conforms most closely to Standard English usage.

(A) The inflexibility of the laws, which prevent them from being adapted for emergencies, may in certain cases render them pernicious and thereby cause the ruin of the state in a time of crisis.

(B) The inflexibility of the laws, which prevents them from being adapted for emergencies may in certain cases render them pernicious, thereby causes the ruin of the state in a time of crisis.

(C) The inflexibility of the laws, which prevents them from being adapted to emergencies, may in certain cases render them pernicious, and thereby cause the ruin of the state in a time of crisis.

(D) The inflexibility of the laws, which prevents them from being adapted for emergencies may in certain cases render them pernicious, and thereby causing the ruin of the state in a time of crisis.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

36.

DIRECTIONS for questions 35 and 36: In each question, four different ways of presenting an idea are given. Choose the one that conforms most closely to Standard English usage.

(A) Human talents vary considerably, within a fixed framework that is characteristic of the species, and that permits ample scope for creative work, including the creative work of appreciating the achievements of others.

(B) Human talents vary considerably within a fixed framework that is characteristic to the species, and which permits ample scope for creative work, including the creative work of appreciating the achievements of others.

(C) Human talents vary considerably, within a fixed framework that is characteristic for the species, and that permits ample scope for creative work, including the creative work of appreciating achievements of others.

(D) Human talents vary considerably, within a fixed framework that is characteristic of the species, and which permits ample scope for creative work, including the creative work of appreciating achievements of others.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

37.

DIRECTIONS for question 37: In the following question, there are five sentences/paragraphs. The sentence/ paragraph labeled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labeled B, C, D and E, need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/ passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option.

(A) The driving force of the 'nuclear renaissance' is a claim that nuclear power, once up and running, is a carbon-free energy source. The assertion is that a functioning nuclear reactor creates no greenhouse gases and thus contributes nothing to global warming or chaotic weather.

(B) The frequently repeated notion that nuclear power is a carbon- free energy source is simply untrue.

(C) At every stage of the cycle greenhouse gases are released into the atmosphere from burning diesel, manufacturing steel and cement and, in the circumpolar regions of the planet, by disturbance of the tundra which releases large amounts of methane, a particularly potent greenhouse gas.

(D) That part is almost true, but the claim ignores the total environmental impact of nuclear energy, which includes a long and complicated chain of events known in the industry as the 'nuclear cycle' which begins with finding, mining, milling and enriching uranium, then spans through plant construction and power generation to the reprocessing and eventual storage of nuclear waste, all of which creates tons of CO2.

(E) Even the claim that a functioning nuclear power facility is co2-free is challenged by the fact that operating plant requires an external power source to run, and that electricity is almost certain to come from a fossil-fuelled plant.

a)

DCEB

b)

EBCD

c)

DEBC

d)

EDCB

38.

DIRECTIONS for questions 38 and 39: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

Jawaharlal Nehru seemed an unlikely candidate to lead India towards its vision. Under the cotton Khadi he wore in deference to the dictates of Congress, he remained the quintessential English gentleman. In a land of mysteries, he was a cool rationalist. The mind that had exulted in the discovery of science at Cambridge never ceased to be appalled by his fellow Indians who refused to stir from their homes on days proclaimed inauspicious by their favorite

astrologers. He was a publicly declared agnostic in the most intensely spiritual area in the world, and he never ceased to proclaim the horror the word 'religion' inspired in him. Nehru despised India's priests, her sadhus, her chanting monks and pious 'skerkhs'.

a)

And yet, the India of those sadhus and the superstition-haunted masses had accepted Nehru

b)

They had only served, he felt, to impede her progress

c)

The Mahatma had made it clear that it was on his shoulders that he wished his mantle to fall.

d)

Nehru's heart told him to follow the Mahatma and his heart, he would later admit, had been right.

39.

DIRECTIONS for questions 38 and 39: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

Birth rates have fallen dramatically - and voluntarily. Coercive birth control, including paying people not to have babies, was discredited and abandoned decades ago. Nearly two-thirds of the couples in poor countries now use birth control, and not because some patriarchal westerner told them to. In the 1970s, the government of Bangladesh offered people in the Matlals region low- cost contraceptive supplies and advice. Birth rates promptly fell well below those of neighbouring regions. So Bangladesh extended the service nationally and its birth rate plummeted from six children per woman to three.

a)

The 'population bomb' has already gone off

b)

Given the choice, people want fewer children.

c)

Governments want fewer children since their own life expectancy falls with rising numbers.

d)

Even when birth rates fall, there is a lag which means population keeps growing far decades until birth and death rates even out.

40.

DIRECTIONS for questions 40 and 41: In each of the following questions, the word at the top is used in four different ways, numbered 1 to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.

PULL

a)

Pull aside the curtains and let in some fresh air.

b)

I decided to pull away from the venture due to differences of opinion with my partners.

c)

Being a charismatic leader that he is, he can certainly pull the crowds.

d)

The municipal corporation has decided to pull down all illegal constructions in the city.

41.

DIRECTIONS for questions 40 and 41: In each of the following questions, the word at the top is used in four different ways, numbered 1 to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.

SHADE

a)

Nina's bedroom was painted in a soft shade of pink.

b)

Abdul is a dubious character who is suspected of being involved in several shady deals

c)

The weary traveller rested for a while in the shade of a tree.

d)

The people in the strife torn region have been living in the shade of fear for several years

42.

Nurture : Neglect :: Denigrate : ?

a)

Reveal

b)

Extol

c)

Recognise

d)

Calumniate

43.

DIRECTIONS for questions 43 to 46: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it.

Organic food is a two-billion pound industry grown fat on the back of celebrity endorsement and a well-heeled middle class seduced by claims that it is good for health. Prince Charles is one of its most enthusiastic and pro-active promoters. Not content with simply consuming it, he has his own lucrative line in overpriced organic products including biscuits which taste more like chalk.

But now questions are being raised about some of the basic assumptions that have contributed to the popularity of organic food and the phenomenal growth of this sector in the past decade. People are asking: is organic food really worth the price which is often three times more than that of normal food?

This follows new research by a group of British scientists who found that organic food offered no extra benefit over the ordinary cheaper foodstuff. In a controversial report, experts from the London School of Hygiene and Tropical Medicine say there is no evidence that organic food is more nutritional or healthier than food produced using fertilizers. For example, the expensive free-range chicken (sold as a "premium" product) has the same nutritional value as the factory-farmed chicken; and similarly, there is no difference between organic and non-organic vegetables or dairy produce.

The research, based on data published over the past 50 years and said to be the most comprehensive review ever of the relative benefits of organic food, strikes at the very heart of what has been portrayed by campaigners as its USP - that it is healthier than conventional food and therefore worth paying a "bit "extra.

Dr. Alan Dangour, who led the study, was unambiguous in rejecting claims made for organic food. "Looking at all of the studies published in the last 50 years, we have concluded that there's no good evidence that consumption of organic food is beneficial to health based on the nutrient content," he said.

The report, commissioned by the government's Food Standards Agency and published in the American Journal of Clinical Nutrition, concluded that "organically and conventionally produced crops and livestock products are broadly comparable in their nutrient content." A "small number of differences" were noted but these were "unlikely to be of any public health relevance."

In a pointed reference to the hype over the supposed benefits of organic food, the FSA said the research was aimed at helping people make "informed choices" about what they ate. In other words, it was concerned that the high-profile campaign for organic food, dressed up as an ethical issue, was preventing people from making "informed choices" and they were being sold things on false premises.

"Ensuring people have accurate information is absolutely essential in allowing us all to more informed choices about the food we eat. This study does not mean that people should not eat organic food. What it shows is that there is little, if any, nutritional difference between organic and conventionally produced food and that there is no evidence of additional health benefits from eating organic food," said Gill Fine, FSA's Director of Consumer Choice and Dietary Health.

In the organic food circles, the report has caused fury with campaigners alleging that it is all part of a "cancerous conspiracy" to defame the organic food movement. Newspapers have been full of angry letters denouncing the report as "selective," "misleading" and "limited."

The Soil Association, which campaigns for "planet-friendly organic food and farming," is furious that the research crucially ignored the presence of higher pesticide residues in conventional food. Some have defended organic food arguing that it is not about health alone but also involves wider environmental and social issues.

However, even those who agree that the report may be "flawed" in some respects believe that it is an important contribution to the debate on organic food.

"Yet the report - for all its alleged flaws - is an important one. For a start, it is certainly not the work of dogmatic and intractably hostile opponents of the cause. In fact, it raises key global issues. After all, if organic food is no more beneficial in terms of nutrition than other, standard foodstuffs, why should we pay excessive price to eat the stuff? Why devote more land to its production," asked Robin McKie, Science Editor of The Observer.

There is also a view that the fad for organic food is a bit of a class thing - something to do with the idea that if something is expensive it is also good. So, a Marks & Spencer cheese sandwich is supposed to taste better than a similar sandwich at Subway next door; everything at Harrods is out of this world; and similarly you don't know what you are missing if organic food is not your preferred choice. There is said to be a whiff of snobbery about buying into an expensive lifestyle choice. Will science bring them down to earth?

Q) All of the following are the author's views on organic food EXCEPT

a)

It is insipid

b)

It is very costly

c)

It is not more nutritious than conventional food

d)

It is patronized by the rich

44.