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MOLECULE - The Chemistry Quiz Final

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following ions has highest value of ionic radius?

a)

Li+

b)

B3+

c)

O2-

d)

F-

2.

Which of the following configuration is expected to have maximum difference in

          second and third ionization energies:

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

d)

1s2 2s2 2p1

3.

The element with the highest first ionization potential is:

a)

Boron

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Carbon

d)

Oxygen

4.

Arrange the following molecules in order of increasing bond polarity

(1) H2O (2) NH3 (3) PH3 (4) H2S

a)

1 < 2 < 3 <4

b)

4 < 3 < 2 < 1

c)

3 < 4 < 2 < 1

d)

3 < 4 < 1 < 2

5.

The bond angle of Cl2O is:

a)

Smaller than that of F2O

b)

Greater than that of H2O

c)

Smaller than that of H2O

d)

Same as that of F2O

6.

The molecule which show back donation is:

a)

BF3

b)

N(SiH3)3

c)

Both

d)

None

7.

Which of the following does not exist?

a)

a) PH5

b)

b) PCl5

c)

c) NI3

d)

A and C both

8.

Moderate electrical conductivity is shown by:

a)

Silica

b)

Graphite

c)

Diamond

d)

None of these

9.

Nitrogen dioxide cannot be prepared by heating

a)

KNO3

b)

Pb(NO3)2

c)

Cu(NO3)2

d)

AgNO3

10.

Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent only in presence of:

a)

Dry air

b)

Moisture

c)

Sunlight

d)

Pure oxygen

11.

The state of hybridization of Ni in K2[NiCl4] is:

a)

dsp2

b)

sp3

c)

sp2d

d)

d3s

12.

The light pink color of [Co(H2O)6]+2 and the deep blue color of [CoCl4]-2 are due to:

a)

MLCT transition in first and d-d transition in second.

b)

LMCT transition in both.

c)

d-d transition in both.

d)

d-d transition in first and MLCT transition in second.

13.

For a valence electron in a 2D state, the possible J-values are:

a)

5/2 and 1/2

b)

5/2 and 3/2

c)

3/2 and 1/2

d)

 3/2 and 0

14.

“Any non-linear molecular system in a degenerate electronic state will undergo some kind of distortion which will lower its symmetry, thereby removing degeneracy”.

This statement is:

a)

Crystal field effect

b)

Jahn-Teller effect

c)

Ligand- field effect

d)

Tetrahedral distortion effect

15.

15) Crystal Field Theory) Consider the complex ion [Mn(H2O)6]2+ with 5 unpaired electrons. Which response includes all the following statements that are true, and no false statements?

I. It is diamagnetic.

II. It is a low spin complex.

III. The metal ion is a d5 ion.

IV. The ligands are weak field ligands.

V. It is octahedral.

a)

I, II

b)

III, IV, V

c)

I, IV

d)

II, V

16.

Which of the following correctly places the metal centers in their order in the spectrochemical series?

a)

Mn(II)< Fe(III) < Rh(III)

b)

Co(III)< Co(II) < Rh(III)

c)

Pt(IV)< Pd(II) < Ni(II)

d)

Pd(II)< Ni(II) < Pt(IV)

17.

Which of the following is a π-donor ligand?

a)

Cl-

b)

NH3

c)

CO

d)

PF3

18.

The order of decreasing stability of the following cations is?

I) CH3C+HCH3 (II) CH3C+HOCH3 (III) CH3C+HCOCH3

a)

III > II > I

b)

I > II > III

c)

II > I > III

d)

I > III > II

19.

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called _________

a)

Methnyl group

b)

Ethynyl group

c)

Propionyl group

d)

15) Propargyl group

20.

Dienes are the name given to compounds with _________

a)

Exactly a double bond

b)

Exactly a triple bond

c)

Exactly two double bond

d)

More than two double bond

21.

Identify the false statement regarding resonance

a)

As the number of charges increases, the resonance forms gets more significant

b)

Zero charge of resonance is the most significant one

c)

Atoms with full octet resonance form are more stable when compared with the one with unfilled octet

d)

Resonance is unstable in case of unfilled octet of nitrogen atom

22.

Identify the correct sequence according to electronegativity.

a)

F- > NH2- > CH3- >OH-

b)

NH2 -> F- >CH3- > OH-

c)

NH2 -> OH- > CH3- > F-

d)

F- > OH- > NH2- > CH3-

23.

Which of the will give effective reduction of 3-hexyne to trans-3-hexene?

a)

H2/Lindlar’s catalyst

b)

Na/liq. NH3

c)

Fe/NaCl

d)

DIBAL

24.

Which is the mildest reducing agent which reduces only carbonyl group in presence of nitro, carboxyl, double bond and ester groups?

a)

 LiAIH4

b)

Na-NH3

c)

NaBH4

d)

H2-Ni

25.

Which halogen nucleophile is weakest in polar, aprotic solvents?

a)

I–

b)

F–

c)

Cl–

d)

Br–

26.

Consider the following statements:

Claisen rearrangement is a [3, 3] sigmatropic rearrangement.

Cope rearrangement proceeds via chair like transition state.

In the photochemical [2 + 2] cycloaddition of ethylene overlapping of HOMO of one molecule with LUMO of the other molecular takes place.

Select the correct statements.

a)

(a)   I and III

b)

(a)   II and III

c)

(a)   Only II

d)

(a)   I and II

27.

15) Claisen rearrangement is a-

a)

Carbon-carbon bond formation

b)

  Carbon-Nitrogen bond formation

c)

  C-H activation

d)

Carbon-oxygen bond formation

28.

Solid phase synthesis is frequently used in combinatorial chemistry. What is meant by solid phase synthesis?

a)

reactions are carried out without solvent

b)

reagents and reactants are attached to a solid phase support

c)

reagents are used in the solid phase

d)

molecules are constructed on a solid phase support

29.

Cycloaddition reactions are specific organic chemistry reactions that are characterized by what important feature?

a)

They occur all on their own with no energy input from the environment

b)

They always produce a ring system as the product

c)

They produce polar molecules as the products

d)

They utilize ionic compounds as the reactants

30.

Higher energy molecular orbital resulting from destructive interference

a)

Heat of reactions

b)

Equilibrium

c)

Antibonding MOs

d)

s-cis and s-trans

31.

The most frequently used surfactants in shampoo are

a)

Anionic

b)

Cationic

c)

Non-ionic

d)

all

32.

32) Which is example of cationic surfactant

a)

Benzalkonium chloride

b)

Polysorbate80

c)

Sodium Lauryl sulphate

d)

Sorbitol monopleats

33.

Which of the following is yielded when Ethylene glycol is treated with phosphorus tri-iodide?

a)

ethylene di-iodide

b)

ethylene

c)

ethane

d)

ethyl iodide

34.

Which of the following organic compound with molecular formula C3H C12 exhibits only one signal in the IH NMR spectrum?

a)

1, 2-dichloropropane

b)

1, 1-dichloropropane

c)

2, 2-dichloropropane

d)

1, 3-dichloropropane

35.

The ligand system present in vitamin B12 is:

a)

Porphyrin  

b)

Corrin  

c)

Phthalocyanine 

d)

Crown ether

36.

Which of the following electronic transition is disallowed?

a)

π → π* transition

b)

n → π* transition

c)

σ → σ* transition

d)

δ → δ* transition

37.

Identify the molecule whose rotational constant cannot be determined by spectroscopic methods:

a)

CH4

b)

H2

c)

CO2

d)

HCl

38.

In the UV spectrum of cyclohexanone, the absorption at λmax~ 215 nm is due to the transition:

a)

σ → πtransition

b)

) π → π* transition

c)

σ → σ* transition

d)

π → n transition

39.

Which among the following electronic transitions will have the lowest energy?

a)

n → π* transition

b)

) π → π* transition

c)

σ → σ* transition

d)

n → σ*transition

40.

In a mass spectrometry,

a)

The analyzed substance remains intact

b)

Large quantities of the substance is required

c)

The analyzed substance is ionized.

d)

The analyzed substance is unionized.

41.

The 1H NMR spectrum of (η5-C5H5)2 Fe recorded at room temperature is:

a)

One singlet

b)

Two singlets

c)

One multiplet

d)

Two multiplets

42.

What is the relative area of each peak in a quartet spin-spin splitting pattern?

a)

1:2:2:1

b)

1:2:1

c)

1:4:4:1

d)

1:3:3:1

43.

Which of the following will occur farthest downfield?

a)

The hydrogen of benzene

b)

The hydrogen of ethene

c)

The hydrogen of ethyne

d)

The hydrogen of dimethyl ether

44.

The reference material used in NMR Spectroscopy is

a)

Trimethyl silane

b)

Tetramethyl silane

c)

Both of these

d)

None of these

45.

For any NMR active nucleus, the magnitude of radiofrequency required for observing NMR phenomenon depends on:

a)

Strength of magnetic field

b)

Choice of the nucleus

c)

Both on magnetic field and choice of the nucleus

d)

The nuclear energy levels

46.

Prazocine is a derivative of which of the following?

a)

Quinazoline

b)

Phthalazine

c)

Quinoline

d)

Isoquinoline

47.

Bladder toxicity is the side effect of which of the following drug?

a)

Vincristine

b)

Cyclophosphamide

c)

5-Flouro Uracil

d)

Doxorubicin

48.

Which of the following is a prototype of Sedative?

a)

Chloral hydrate

b)

Chloral

c)

Chloroquine

d)

Chlorpheniramie

49.

Which of the following Glutamate antagonist used in Alzheimer's disease?

a)

Felbamate

b)

Sulthiame

c)

Memantine

d)

Phenytoin

50.

Mass spectra is usually obtained by

a)

Electron impact

b)

Electron captures

c)

Atomic fission

d)

Accelerated potentials

51.

Which of the following technique single step purification of sample is achieved?

a)

. Ion exchange chromatography

b)

Affinity chromatography

c)

Gel filtration

d)

All the above

52.

LAL (Limulus Amebocyte Lysate) is

a)

An in vitro test for detecting pyrogenic endotoxins

b)

An in vivo test for detecting pyrogenic endotoxins

c)

An in vitro test for detecting pyrogenic exotoxins

d)

An in vivo test for detecting pyrogenic exotoxins

53.

How many signals are produced by CH3-CH2 - CH2 -CO-CH2 -CH3 in NMR spectroscopy?

a)

5

b)

4

c)

3

d)

2

54.

Which of the following hormone is used for confirmation of pregnency?

a)

HCG

b)

LH

c)

FSH

d)

Oestrogen

55.

Which of the following drug inhibits the Prolactin level?

a)

Somatostatin

b)

Dopamine

c)

Glucocorticoids

d)

None of the above

56.

Which of the following is obtained by fusion of Morphine with potassium hydroxide?

a)

Veratric acid

b)

Valerianic acid

c)

Proto Catechuic acid

d)

Homoveratrole

57.

According to kinetic theory of gasses at absolute zero temperature 

a)

Water freezes

b)

Liquid helium freezes

c)

Molecules motion stops

d)

Liquid hydrogen freezes

58.

Gas laws are applicable to

a)

Gases as well as vapours

b)

Gases and steam

c)

Gases alone and not to vapours

d)

Gases and vapours under certain conditions

 

59.

General gas equation is

a)

PV=nRT 

b)

PV=mRT

c)

PVn=C

d)

Cp-Cv=R/J

60.

Which factors increase the rate of a reaction

a)

increasing temperature

b)

increasing concentration

c)

increasing surface area

d)

all of the above

61.

The catalyst alters the rate of a chemical reaction by

a)

Providing an alternative pathway with a lower Ea

b)

Changing the products formed in the direction of the reaction

c)

Decreases the surface on which the molecules react

d)

Increasing the frequencies of collisions between molecules

62.

Why do most chemical reaction rates increase rapidly as the temperature rises?

a)

a)     The fraction of the molecules with kinetic energy greater than the activation energy increases rapidly with temperature

b)

a)     the average kinetic energy increases as temperature rises

c)

a)     the activation energy decreases as temperature rises

d)

a)     more collisions take place between particles so that the reaction can occur

63.

According to chemical kinetic theory, a reaction can occur

a)

a)     if the reactants collide with the proper orientation

b)

a)     if the reactants possess sufficient energy of collision

c)

a)     if the reactants are able to form a correct transition state

d)

a)     all of the above

64.

Which of the following does NOT affect the rate of a chemical reaction

a)

enthalpy of the reaction

b)

concentration of reactants

c)

temperature

d)

surface area

65.

If the concentration of B is increased at fixed temperature, in the reaction

A + 2B ⇋ C + 3D the equilibrium constant of reaction will be

a)

a)     Increases

b)

a)     Decreases

c)

a)     Remains Unchanged

d)

a)     First increases then decreases

66.

For a reaction N2+3H2⇌2NH3, the value of Kc depends upon:

a)

Temperature

b)

Pressure

c)

Catalyst

d)

  Concentration

67.

What is the chemical name of Vitamin-C

a)

Calciferol

b)

Tekoferol

c)

Ascorbic acid

d)

Catepherol

68.

Beer’s law is associated with ------of the absorbing medium

a)

Thikness

b)

Concentration

c)

Conductance

d)

Path length

69.

Choose the correct order of molar ionic conductivities of the following ions.

 

a)

Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+

b)

Li+ < K+ < Rb+ < Na+

c)

Li+ < Na+ < Rb+ < K+

d)

Li+ < Rb+ < Na+ < K+

70.

Dual nature [particle and wave] of matter was proposed by

a)

Einstein

b)

Plank

c)

de Broglie

d)

Newton

71.

Which of the following does not contain a C3 axis?

a)

POCl3 

b)

[H3O]+

c)

de Broglie [NH4]+

d)

ClF3

72.

Bhopal gas disaster is happen due to leackage of the which gas

a)

Methyl isocyanide

b)

Thiocyanide

c)

Cyanide

d)

Carbon monoxide

73.

Minamata disease associated with which metal

a)

Cadmium

b)

   Calcium

c)

Mercury

d)

Iron

74.

The conductivity of strong electrolyte is

a)

Increase on dilution slightly

b)

Decrease on dilution

c)

Does not change with dilution

d)

Depend upon density of electrolytes itself

75.

During the electrolysis of an electrolyte, the number of ions produced, is directly proportional to the

a)

Time consumed

b)

Electro chemical equivalent of electrolysis

c)

) Quantity of electricity passed

d)

Mass of electrons

76.

When the sample of copper with zinc impurity is to be purified by electrolysis, the appropriate electrodes are Cathode – Anode

a)

Pure zinc – Pure copper

b)

Impure sample – Pure copper

c)

Impure zinc – Impure sample

d)

Pure copper – Impure sample

77.

. In the electrolytic cell, flow of electrons is from

a)

Cathode to anode in solution

b)

Cathode to anode through external supply

c)

Cathode to anode through internal supply

d)

Anode to cathode through internal supply

78.

Which of the following will not conduct electricity in aqueous solution?

a)

Copper sulphate

b)

Sugar

c)

Common salt

d)

) None of these

79.

The amount of ion discharged during electrolysis is not directly proportional to

a)

Resistance

b)

Time

c)

Current

d)

Chemical equivalent of the ion

80.

Which of the following is a secondary cell?

a)

Leclanche cell

b)

Lead storage battery

c)

Concentration cell

d)

All of these

81.

Cell reaction is spontaneous, when

a)

E0red is negative

b)

ΔG° is negative

c)

E0oxid is Positive

d)

ΔG° is positive

82.

Electrical conductance through metals is called metallic or electronic conductance and is due to the movement of electrons. The electronic conductance depends on

a)

the nature and structure of the metal

b)

the number of valence electrons per atom

c)

change in temperature

d)

all of these

83.

Faraday’s law of electrolysis is related to

a)

Atomic number of cation

b)

Speed of cation

c)

Speed of anion

d)

Equivalent weight of electrolyte

84.

Which of the following can be used as fuel in a fuel cell?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Argon

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Helium

85.

Which of the following are the common ways to produce H2 gas in a fuel cell?

a)

Coal and biomass gasification

b)

Electrolysis and absorption

c)

Steam reforming and electrolysis

d)

Electromagnetism and steam reforming

86.

Which of the following statements regarding fuel cells is false?

a)

Because of continuous supply, fuel cells never become dead

b)

They do not cause pollution

c)

Fuel cells have 100% efficiency practically

d)

The cost of catalysts needed for the electrode reactions is high

87.

Which of the following is not produced in an H2-O2 fuel cell?

a)

Electricity

b)

Pollutants

c)

Heat

d)

Water

88.

Which of the following is used as an electrolyte in an H2-O2 fuel cell?

a)

KOH

b)

NH4OH

c)

Fe(OH)2

d)

Cu(OH)2

89.

The chemical name of Aspirin is

a)

2-Acetoxybenzoic acid

b)

2-Methoxybenzoic acid

c)

2-Acetoxy methyl benzoate

d)

2-Methoxy methyl acetate

90.

Disease caused by deficiency of Iron

a)

Thyroid

b)

  Annemia

c)

  Scurvy

d)

Ricket

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