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WorksheetsCassopoiea: Immunlogy
Total questions: 70
Worksheet time: 35mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Chinese way of immunization with small pox
a)
Ingestion of small pox pustule
b)
Ingestion of milk from cows with cowpox
c)
Drinking green tea
d)
Inhalation of skin crust from smallpox lesions
2.
A cook who killed 51 people by transmitting typhoid fever:
a)
Mary
b)
Molly
c)
Felix
d)
Widal
3.
According to theory, this disease was endemic in Haiti and was subsequently contracted and carried to Europe by the crew of Cristopher Columbus.
a)
Malaria
b)
Syphilis
c)
Smallpox
d)
Measles
4.
Phagocytosis was discovered by:
a)
Elie Metchnikoff
b)
Jules Bordet
c)
Rosalyn Yallow
d)
Barre Sinousi
5.
Who constructed the structures of antibodies?
a)
Porter and Edelman
b)
Elie Metchnikoff
c)
Peter Medawar
d)
Karl Landsteiner
6.
He discovered the genetic principles underlying the generation of antibodies with different specificities:
a)
Ellie Metchnikoff
b)
Susumu Tonegawa
c)
Karl Landsteiner
d)
Rodney Porter
7.
Which of the following Noble Prize Winners focused on the research concerning production of monoclonal antibodies?
a)
Jules Bordet
b)
Susumu Tonegawa
c)
Georges Kohler and Cesar Milstein
d)
Paul Ehrlich
8.
Reasons behind the complement pathway name "classical pathway"
a)
1st to be studied (1900)
b)
A scientist who studied it was from an "old school"
9.
Infection is a type of what acquired immunity?
a)
Active Natural
b)
Active Artificial
c)
Passive Natural
d)
Passive Artificial
10.
Colostrum is a type of what acquired immunity?
a)
Active Natural
b)
Active Artificial
c)
Passive Natural
d)
Passive Artificial
11.
Vaccination is a type of what acquired immunity?
a)
Active Natural
b)
Active Artificial
c)
Passive Natural
d)
Passive Artificial
12.
Serum Ig Infusion is a type of what acquired immunity?
a)
Active Natural
b)
Active Artificial
c)
Passive Natural
d)
Passive Artificial
13.
Large granular lymphocytes are part of:
a)
Natural Immunity
b)
Classical pathway
c)
Acquired immunity
d)
Alternative pathway
14.
In the mixed lymphocyte culture, what cell is treated with mitomycin C?
a)
Patient lymphocyte
b)
Donor lymphocyte
15.
Beta-2- Microglobuilin is associated with what class of MHC?
a)
Class I
b)
Class II
c)
Class III
16.
CD4+ T cells are associated with what class of MHC?
a)
Class I
b)
Class II
c)
Class III
17.
Mu heavy chain chromosome
a)
4
b)
14
c)
24
d)
34
18.
kappa & lambda chains
a)
1 & 20
b)
2 & 22
c)
3 & 24
d)
12 & 21
19.
molecular weight of IgM
a)
900,000 Da
b)
160,000 Da
c)
450,000 Da
d)
700,000 Da
20.
Potent activator of complement
a)
IgG
b)
IgA
c)
IgD
d)
IgM
21.
Serum half-life of IgG
a)
6 days
b)
23 days
c)
2.5 days
d)
5 days
22.
Sedimentation coefficient of IgM
a)
7s
b)
11s
c)
19s
d)
8s
23.
Hives and Itching, Penicillin
a)
Type I
b)
Type II
c)
Type III
d)
Type IV
24.
SLE, RA, Arthus Reaction
a)
Type I
b)
Type II
c)
Type III
d)
Type IV
25.
Mantoux Test, Contact Dermatitis
a)
Type I
b)
Type II
c)
Type III
d)
Type IV
26.
HDN, HTR, AIHA
a)
Type I
b)
Type II
c)
Type III
d)
Type IV
27.
IgE Mediated
a)
Type I
b)
Type II
c)
Type III
d)
Type IV
28.
HLA-B27 is seen on what condition?
a)
SLE
b)
RA
c)
Ankylosing spondylitis
d)
Sjorgren's syndrome
29.
Autoimmune diseases are associated with what MHC class?
a)
Class I
b)
Class II
c)
Class III
30.
Autoimmune Disorder: Anti-glomerular basement membrane
a)
Goodpasture Syndrome
b)
Chronic Active Hepatitis
c)
Primary biliary cirrhosis
d)
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
31.
Autoimmune Disorder: Anti-smooth muscle antibody
a)
Goodpasture Syndrome
b)
Chronic Active Hepatitis
c)
Primary biliary cirrhosis
d)
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
32.
Autoimmune Disorder: Anti-mitochondrial antibody
a)
Goodpasture Syndrome
b)
Chronic Active Hepatitis
c)
Primary biliary cirrhosis
d)
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
33.
Autoimmune Disorder: Anti-microsomal antibody
a)
Goodpasture Syndrome
b)
Chronic Active Hepatitis
c)
Primary biliary cirrhosis
d)
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
34.
Autoimmune Disorder: Anti-CCP
a)
Rheumatoid Arthritis
b)
Chronic Active Hepatitis
c)
Primary biliary cirrhosis
d)
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
35.
CRP is produced by what cells?
a)
Renal cells
b)
Splenic macrophages
c)
Hepatic cells
d)
Bone marrow cells
36.
The CA in the tumor markers stand for?
a)
Carbohydrate antigen
b)
Ca
37.
CA 15-3
a)
Breast cancer
b)
Prostate cancer
c)
Ovarian cancer
d)
Thyroid cancer
38.
CA 125
a)
Ovarian cancer
b)
Breast cancer
c)
Thyroid cancer
39.
PSA
a)
Prostate cancer
b)
Breast cancer
c)
Ovarian cancer
d)
Thyroid cancer
40.
Calcitonin
a)
Thyroid cancer
b)
Breast cancer
c)
Ovarian cancer
41.
CYFRA 21-1
a)
Lung, Breast, Bladder Cancer
b)
Breast cancer
c)
Ovarian cancer
d)
Thyroid cancer
42.
Hyper-igE, Eczema, and recurrent skin and lung infections are characteristics of:
a)
Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
b)
Job's syndrome
c)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d)
Lazy leukocyte syndrome
43.
Most common immunodeficiency:
a)
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
b)
Bruton's disease
c)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d)
Selective IgA deficiency
44.
Most severe immunodeficiency
a)
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
b)
Bruton's disease
c)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d)
Selective IgA deficiency
45.
Agammaglobulinemia
a)
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
b)
Bruton's disease
c)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d)
Selective IgA deficiency
46.
Triad: ID. Eczema, thrombocytopenia
a)
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
b)
Bruton's disease
c)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d)
Selective IgA deficiency
47.
Characterized by underdeveloped thymus:
a)
DiGeorge Syndrome
b)
WAS
c)
SCID
48.
Name given to systems using bacteria as the inert particle to which antibody is attached:
a)
Flocculation
b)
Particle immunoassay
c)
Coagglutination
d)
Immunofluorescent assay
49.
Antibody is attached to a carrier and agglutination is observed if antigen is present
a)
Direct Agglutination
b)
Coagglutination
c)
Passive
d)
Reverse Passive
50.
25% agglutination is graded as
a)
Positive
b)
1+
c)
Negative
51.
Agglutination reaction: "Several large clumps with clear background"
a)
4+
b)
3+
c)
2+
d)
1+
52.
Serological identity, as shown by appearance of smooth curve line, is seen on what precipitation reaction?
a)
Radial immunodiffusion
b)
Ouchterlony double diffusion
c)
Laurell technique
d)
Immunoelectrophoresis
53.
Fluorescent pattern of anti-Sm
a)
Homogenous
b)
Speckled
c)
Peripheral
d)
Nucleolar
54.
Most specific antibody for SLE
a)
Anti-dsDNA
b)
Anti-parietal cell
c)
Anti-smooth muscle
d)
All of these
55.
Most specific antibody for Pernicious Anemia
a)
Anti-dsDNA
b)
Anti-parietal cell
c)
Anti-smooth muscle
d)
All of these
56.
Most specific antibody for Chronic Active Hepatitis
a)
Anti-dsDNA
b)
Anti-parietal cell
c)
Anti-smooth muscle
d)
All of these
57.
Type of microscope used in FTA-ABS
a)
Darkfield
b)
Brightfield
c)
Electron
58.
Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test: 10% treponemes are immobilized
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
c)
Doubtful
d)
Indeterminate
59.
Standard screening test for HIV/AIDS
a)
ELISA/EIA
b)
Western Blot
c)
rHIVda
60.
Standard confirmatory test for HIV/AID
a)
ELISA/EIA
b)
Western Blot
c)
rHIVda
61.
The new HIV confirmatory test in the Philippines
a)
ELISA/EIA
b)
Western Blot
c)
rHIVda
62.
Proteins separated in the Western blot test are blotted on:
a)
Nitrocellulose paper
b)
Papyrus
63.
Blotting technique for detection of DNA
a)
Southern Blot
b)
Northern Blot
c)
Western Blot
64.
Blotting technique for detection of RNA
a)
Southern Blot
b)
Northern Blot
c)
Western Blot
65.
Blotting technique for detection of proteins
a)
Southern Blot
b)
Northern Blot
c)
Western Blot
66.
Which of the following is transmitted via fecal-oral route?
a)
Hepatitis B
b)
Hepatitis C
c)
Hepatitic D
d)
Hepatitis E
67.
Which of the following body fluids does not contain HBV?
a)
Saliva
b)
Sputum
c)
Semen
d)
Vaginal Secretions
68.
Serologic titer for C. albicans infection
a)
01:08:00
b)
01:32:00
69.
When using RF latex tests, a titer of 20-40 is considered as:
a)
Weakly positive reaction
b)
Negative
c)
Positive
d)
Strongly Positive
70.
Which of the following heterophile antibodies is absorbed antibodies is only by beef?
a)
Forssman
b)
Serum Sickness
c)
Neurosyphilis
d)
Infectious mononucleosis
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