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Dermato-Musculoskeletal Summative 1

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This is not true regarding fingerprints : 

a)

it helps increase friction on the fingers and palmar region to better grasp objects

b)

it is caused by the thickening and thinning of the reticular dermis 

c)

it is caused by protruding papillary dermis

d)

it is formed before birth

2.

Which are the correct steps for wound healing : 

a)

inflamation - bleeding - remodeling - proliferation

b)

bleeding - inflamation - remodeling - proliferation

c)

bleeding - inflamation - proliferation - remodeling

d)

proliferation - bleeding - inflamation - remodeling

3.

The actual nail plate is comparable to which structure on the skin? 

a)

dermis

b)

stratum corneum

c)

stratum basale

d)

apocrine sweat glands

4.

Which cell is found in the stratum basale?

a)

Langerhans cell

b)

dead keratinized cells

c)

Meisner corpuscle

d)

melanocytes

5.

What is the characteristic trait of an apocrine sweat gland

a)

can be found in the palms

b)

release secretions by dying

c)

can only be found in the armpits and boobs

d)

release secretions by forming and releasing secretory vesicles

6.

Which of these are false:

a)

Increased collagen cross-linking causes it to be more brittle and rigid

b)

Hyaluronic acid is a glycosaminoglycan

c)

Collagen is coded by several different genes

d)

Scurvy is caused by abnormal synthesis of elastin

7.

What is Epidermolytic Hyperkeratosis

a)

a disease where scaling, hyperkeratosis, and blistering occurs

b)

skin blistering disease

c)

disruption of hydroxylation for collagen formation

d)

decrease in keratin production

8.

Melanogenesis is triggered by alpha-MSH

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Vitamin D is made in the skin and will be converted into pro-vitamin D3

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Which of these is influenced by aging?

a)

increased proliferation of keratinocytes

b)

increased melanin production because more melanocytes present

c)

lower fibroblast number and growth factor response

d)

increased collagen I production

11.

There are 3 phases of hair growth. Name them in order!

a)

catagen - anagen - telogen

b)

anagen - telogen - catagen

c)

anagen - catagen - telogen

d)

there are only 2 phases

12.

People with albinism have defective tyrosinase, an oxidating agent that controls melanin production. Which layer of the skin does this affect?

a)

stratum basale

b)

stratum lucidum

c)

stratum corneum

d)

dermis

13.

Which structure directly contributes to the goosebumps phenomenon

a)

arrector pili muscle

b)

hair follicle

c)

papillary dermis

d)

skeletal muscle

14.

Which one is not true regarding how the skin helps to maintain homeostasis and normal functioning of our bodies :

a)

thermoregulation by constricting and dilating blood vessels

b)

keratinization which protects against abrasions

c)

sebaceous glands to reduce transepidermal water loss

d)

melanin production to increase heat retention

15.

The skin can interact with various organs in the body. Which of these interactions is false?

a)

stimulation of receptors may cause a change in respiratory rates

b)

vitamin D is produced in the skin to aid bone matrix growth

c)

sweat glands play an important role in triggering sexual activity

d)

antigen-presenting cells in the skin can initiate immune response towards potentially harmful microbe

16.

What is the life period of S. Scabiei?

a)

10-20 days

b)

20-40 days

c)

30-60 days

d)

40-80 days

17.

What is the medical term for head lice?

a)

Tinea capitis

b)

Pediculus capitis

c)

Pediculus corporis

d)

phtirus pubis

18.

What is the medical term for head lice?

a)

Tinea capitis

b)

Pediculus capitis

c)

Pediculus corporis

d)

phtirus pubis

19.

What areas does Phitirus pubis invade besides the pubic area?

a)

buttocks

b)

toes

c)

palms

d)

eyelashes

20.

When does skin inflammation appear after being infected by S. Scabiei

a)

1-2 weeks

b)

3-4 weeks

c)

4-8 weeks

d)

5-7 weeks

21.

What is the metamorphosis of fly?

a)

egg-larva-pupae-adult

b)

egg-pupae-larvae-adult

c)

larvae-egg-pupae-adult

d)

egg-larva-adult-pupae

22.

What does TRPM8 mediate?

a)

inflammatory pain

b)

orofacial pain

c)

visceral pain

23.

CRGP+ neurons transmit signals for pain stimuli while Mrgpra3+ neurons transmit signals for itch stimuli

a)

True

b)

False

24.

“Conversion of mechanical stimuli into nerve impulses” refers to which part of the nociceptive pathway?

a)

Transduction

b)

Transmission

c)

Transmission Modulation

d)

Perception

25.

Erosion is a raised lesion while plaque is a depressed lesion

a)

True

b)

False

26.

What secondary lesion is shown in the picture?

a)

atrophy

b)

scar

c)

keloid

d)

erosion

27.

What is the medical term for red lesions?

a)

hypopigmentation

b)

hyperpigmentation

c)

erythema

28.

what is a discrete lesion?

a)

restricted to one side only

b)

covering most of the body surface

c)

separated by normal skin from other similar lesions

d)

involving both sides of the body to a similar extent, usually due to endogenous causes

29.

Stretch marks are what kind of lesion?

a)

lichenification

b)

telangiectasia

c)

atrophy

d)

plaques

30.

the lesion in the intertriginous area. What is the proper vehiculum?

a)

ointment

b)

cream

c)

oral

d)

IV

31.

Among these are indications of giving oral vehiculum...

a)

spread of lesion

b)

good prognosis after topical antibiotics

c)

lesion is small

d)

the patient is willing to use topical antibiotics

32.

What is the best vehiculum for the condition above? for topical, symptomatic use...

a)

powder

b)

gel

c)

cream

d)

herbal medicine

33.

Drug in form of ointment contains water as the solvent

a)

True

b)

False

34.

In tinea corporis we must apply topical drugs on the periphery of lesion thereby blocking fungal growth

a)

True

b)

False

35.

What organ does the normal flora not colonize in healthy patients?

a)

Skin

b)

Liver

c)

Vaginal area

d)

Small Intestine

36.

A patient comes to the clinic with a yellowish crust in the mouth region. you noticed there are thin blisters forming in the peripheral with erythematous lesion and the patient complains of itching. the patient had a history of wounds in the lesion site. What is the most plausible diagnosis?

a)

tetanus

b)

cellulitis

c)

foliculitis

d)

non-bullous impetigo

37.

What is the medium for the sample obtained through aspiration and injection in abscess lesions?

a)

thioglycollate

b)

physiological saline

c)

Ziehl-Neelsen medium

d)

Stuart medium

38.

How to determine if the gram-positive sample obtained is Staphylococcus aureus?

a)

it is positive under the coagulase test, forming a bubble

b)

the bacteria looks red upon gram-staining microscopic examination

c)

it is negative under catalase test, forming a bubble

d)

it is resistant to methicillin

39.

M. leprae can be cultured for diagnosis

a)

True

b)

False

40.

What is?

a)

microsporum canis

b)

epidermophyton floccusum

c)

trichophyton

d)

candida albicans

41.

Among the conditions of infection by subcutaneous mycoses are..

a)

chromoblastomycosis

b)

tinea corporis

c)

pityriasis versicolor

d)

piedra

42.

10 day-old baby came to the clinic with multiple erythematous skin lesion with vesicles on the trunk, face, and cheek that progresses to the neck and scalp. Upon closer examination, you found a similar lesion on the oral cavity and dryness on the cornea. After vesicle fluid examination on the tzanck smear, you found multinucleated giant cells. What is the most plausible diagnosis?

a)

Telangiectasia

b)

Candidiasis

c)

Herpes

d)

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

43.

You can transfer a sample of candida from skin scraping to 10% KOH medium before microscopic examination

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Onychomycosis supporting examination can be done by nail scraping

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Based on Kemenkes, what is the adequate intake calcium for 19-29 y.o woman?

a)

1000

b)

1200

c)

1500

d)

950

46.

Osteoarthritis should be treated by eating more omega 6?

a)

True

b)

False

47.

T score between -1.0 until 2.5 considered osteopenia

a)

True

b)

False

48.

The result of photoprotective effect of the B-carotene will be seen in 3-4 weeks usage??

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Which on is true regarding osetoarthirtis

a)

Increase intake of omega 6 might help to cure OA

b)

Leptin will decrease inflammation and cartilage degradation

c)

DM cause slow glycation and decrease in end products accumulation

d)

Omega 3 produces antli inflammatory substance : pf3 , ltb5. txa3

e)

OA is not the most prevalent joint inflammation

50.

Hypersensitivity type 1 include the formation of IGE

a)

True

b)

False

51.

TH-17 in hypersensitivity type 4 cause inflammatory by activating macrophage

a)

False

b)

True

52.

Pemphigus vulgaris is caused by hypersensitivity type II?

a)

True

b)

False

53.

CHOOSE THE CORRECT ONE

a)

Type 1 hypersensitivity cause autoimmune hemolytic anemia

b)

Type 2 hypersensitivity occurs in myasthenia gravis

c)

Type 2 hypersensitivity cause hypothyroidism

d)

Type 4 hypersensitivity is usually caused by immune complex

54.

Systemic lupus erythematous usually caused by hypersensitivity type II?

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Hyperemia is associated with lewis triple response

a)

True

b)

False

56.

An oblique fracture is parallel to the bony axis

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Acute complications of fracture include?

a)

Neurovascular injury

b)

hemorrhage

c)

fat embolism

d)

compartment syndrome

e)

delayed union

58.

FGF2 stimulates the proliferation of endothelial cells

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Endothelial tissue is part of the stable tissue

a)

True

b)

False

60.

The following are the risk factors for Morbus Hansen EXCEPT

a)

Age

b)

Gender

c)

Genetic Influences

d)

Armadillo exposure

e)

Poor living conditions

61.

Which of the following is true regarding melanin?

a)

Stress resistance has no correlation with melanin

b)

When melanin is activated, it becomes pheomelanin (red pigment)

c)

When melanin is blocked, it becomes eumelanin (black pigment)

d)

the MCR1 gene plays a role in the production of melanin

62.

Which of the following is a differential diagnosis for Morbus Hansen?

a)

Vitiligo

b)

Psoriasis

c)

Pityriasis Versicolor

d)

Tinea versicolor

63.

There are no non-pharmacological treatments for Morbus Hansen

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Morbus Hansen is caused by which bacterium?

a)

M. Tuberculosis

b)

M. Avium

c)

M. Bovis

d)

M. Leprae

65.

Which of the following is commonly referred to as “dandruff”?

a)

Atopic dermatitis

b)

Dyshidrotic dermatitis

c)

Contact dermatitis

d)

Seborrheic dermatitis

66.

The morphologies of atopic dermatitis are Inflammation with Itchy, red, and swollen appearances with dry skin

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Neuropathic itch is when

a)

inflammation or skin damage causes the itch

b)

there’s an abnormal tendency to scratch normal skin

c)

associated with damaged neurons

d)

mediators induce the itch, but in the absence of neural damage

68.

Allergic contact dermatitis is mediated by which type of hypersensitivity?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

69.

The patch test is an allergy diagnostic tool used by doctors to determine the substance that may cause an allergic reaction in a patient.

a)

True

b)

False