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Chapter 7 Review

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The ability to reproduce in kind is a property of all living things.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Which type of reproduction requires fertilization (sperm and egg to fuse)?

a)

Binary Fission

b)

Sexual

c)

Asexual

d)

Budding

3.

If a cell is described as 2N it is a _________ cell.

a)

polyploidy

b)

haploid

c)

aneuploidy

d)

diploid

4.

If a cell is described as n it is a _______ cell.

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

c)

polyploidy

d)

aneuploidy

5.

Sex cells are known as (sperm and eggs)

a)

somatic

b)

gametes

6.

Skin, stomach, and nerve cells are known as

a)

somatic

b)

gametes

7.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of asexual reproduction?

a)

no mate needed

b)

offspring are identical to parents

c)

genetic variation

d)

reproduces quickly

8.

The Red Queen hypothesis describes all the following except...

a)

with no variations in the gene pool adaption will take place

b)

no species can get too far ahead of other species

c)

every small advantage gives a species an "edge"

d)

all species coevolve

e)

species that can't keep up go extinct

9.

Before replication, germ cells have how many chromosomes?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

10.

After replication, germ cells have how many chromatids?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

11.

After meiosis, gamete cells have how many chromatids?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

12.

In sexual reproduction where do the chromosomes come from

a)

all chromosomes come from one parent

b)

chromosomes are randomly dispersed until the correct number is achieved

c)

one chromosome comes from each parent

d)

chromosomes come from sisters

13.

Mitosis produces ______ daughter cells that are identical to the parent cell.

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

14.

Meiosis produces ______ daughter cells that are unique from each other and the parent cell.

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

15.

What cell is used to produce gametes?

a)

skin

b)

brain

c)

germ

d)

gametic

16.

Mitosis has how many rounds of division (enter number)?

(a)  

17.

Meiosis has how many rounds of division (enter number)?

(a)  

18.

Mitosis produces cells that are

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

19.

Meiosis produces cells that are

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

20.

Before mitosis or meiosis, what stage must take place?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Interphase

c)

Meiosis I

d)

Meiosis II

21.

DNA Replication takes place before both meiosis I and meiosis II.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Select the processes that take place during meiosis that contribute to genetic variation

a)

independent assortment

b)

homologous chromosomes separating

c)

sister chromatids separating

d)

crossing over

23.

Crossing over takes place during

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Prophase II

d)

Metaphase II

24.

Independent assortment takes place in

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Anaphase II

25.

Meiosis I is all about separating

a)

sister chromatids

b)

chromosomes

c)

homologous chromosomes

d)

centrioles

26.

Meiosis II is all about separating

a)

sister chromatids

b)

chromosomes

c)

homologous chromosomes

d)

centrioles

27.

Which round of meiosis is similar to mitosis?

a)

Meiosis I

b)

Meiosis II

28.

Meiosis reduces chromosome number by half. This is why it is referred to as a _________________ process.

a)

reduction

b)

difficult

c)

reductional division

d)

dividing

29.

Identify the phase where chromosomes condense, nuclear envelope disappears, spindles form, and crossing over takes place.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I and Cytokinesis

30.

Identify the phase where pairs of homologous chromosomes move to the equator.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I and Cytokinesis

31.

Identify the phase where pairs of homologous chromosomes move away to the opposite parts of the cell.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I and Cytokinesis

32.

Identify the phase where pairs of homologous chromosomes gather at the poles and cytoplasm splits into two cells.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I and Cytokinesis

33.

Identify the phase where spindles form, nucleus disappears, and centrioles move to the poles.

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II and Cytokinesis

34.

Identify the phase where sister chromatids line up at the equator.

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II and Cytokinesis

35.

Identify the phase where sister chromatids move away to the opposite ends of the cell.

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II and Cytokinesis

36.

Identify the phase where nucleus reforms, spindle breaks down, and cytoplasm splits to produce a total of 4 cells.

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II and Cytokinesis

37.

When homologous pairs line up in close interaction it is called

a)

chiasma

b)

synapsis

c)

centromere

d)

kinetochore

38.

When homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material they are referred to as ______________ chromosomes.

a)

changed

b)

sister chromatids

c)

non-recombinant

d)

recombinant

39.

Some homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material and some do not. When they don't exchange genetic material they are referred to as ______________ chromosomes.

a)

changed

b)

sister chromatids

c)

non-recombinant

d)

recombinant

40.

The point of contact where non-sister chromatids exchange genetic material is known as

a)

chiasma

b)

synapsis

c)

centromere

d)

kinetochore

41.

When homologous chromosomes pairs line up in metaphase I they do so at random. This is known as

a)

Crossing Over

b)

Segregation

c)

Independent Assortment

d)

Original Orientation

42.

If an organism gametes contain 4 chromosomes, then how many combinations could be made based on independent assortment?

a)

2

b)

8

c)

16

d)

32

43.

If an organism diploid cells contain 16 chromosomes, then how many combinations could be made based on independent assortment?

a)

16

b)

256

c)

586

d)

65,536

44.

X-inactivation can only take place in

a)

males

b)

females

45.

The X chromosome that undergoes inactivation is known as

a)

Barr body

b)

bad X

c)

inactive X

d)

active X

46.

This refers to the number of chromosomes in a cell

a)

ploidy

b)

euploid

c)

aneuploidy

d)

polyploidy

47.

If an organism has the correct number of chromosomes per cell they are

a)

ploidy

b)

euploid

c)

aneuploidy

d)

polyploidy

48.

If an organism has the incorrect number of chromosomes per cell they are

a)

ploidy

b)

euploid

c)

aneuploidy

d)

polyploidy

49.

If an organism has three or more sets of chromosomes per cell they are

a)

ploidy

b)

euploid

c)

aneuploidy

d)

polyploidy

50.

This image is known as a

a)

chromosome picture

b)

karyotype

c)

polyploidy

d)

aneuploidy

51.

This karyotype is of a

a)

male

b)

female

52.

This karyotype is of a

a)

male

b)

female

53.

If a gamete experiences the loss of a chromosome due to nondisjunction it is known as

a)

eusomy

b)

monosomy

c)

disomy

d)

trisomy

54.

If a gamete experiences the gain of a chromosome due to nondisjunction it is known as

a)

eusomy

b)

monosomy

c)

disomy

d)

trisomy

55.

This karyotype belongs to an individual that has

a)

euploid cells

b)

monosomy

c)

trisomy

d)

polyploidy

56.

This karyotype belongs to an individual with

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Trisomy 21

d)

Klinefelter Syndrome

57.

This karyotype belongs to an individual with

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Trisomy 21

d)

Klinefelter Syndrome

58.

If an individual is aneuploidy and is said to have "XO" for their sex chromosomes they have

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Trisomy 21

d)

Klinefelter Syndrome

59.

If an individual is aneuploidy and is said to have "XXY" for their sex chromosomes they have

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Trisomy 21

d)

Klinefelter Syndrome

60.

When a chromosome segment breaks from the chromosome, reverses its orientation, and then reattaches in it's original position it is known as an

a)

inversion

b)

translocation

c)

duplication

d)

deletion

61.

When a chromosome segment breaks from a chromosome and reattaches to a nonhomologous chromosome it is known as a

a)

inversion

b)

translocation

c)

duplication

d)

deletion

62.

When a chromosome segment is copied it is known as a

a)

inversion

b)

translocation

c)

duplication

d)

deletion

63.

When a chromosome segment is deleted it is known as a

a)

inversion

b)

translocation

c)

duplication

d)

deletion

64.

Polyploidy is common in

a)

animals

b)

plants

c)

bacteria

d)

archea

65.

Which life cycle is defined as the dominant stage being diploid

a)

diploid-dominant

b)

haploid-dominant

c)

alteration of generations

66.

Which life cycle is defined as the dominant stage being haploid

a)

diploid-dominant

b)

haploid-dominant

c)

alteration of generations

67.

Which life cycle has both stages apparent

a)

diploid-dominant

b)

haploid-dominant

c)

alteration of generations