Free Printable Immunology

1.

1. Demonstrable events during antigen-antibody reactions take place during

a)

primary stage

b)

secondary stage

c)

tertiary stage

d)

quaternary stage

2.

1. All of the following molecular forces are involved in antigen-antibody reactions except

a)

Van der wall forces

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Covalent bonds

d)

Hydrogen bonds

3.

1. The true statement regarding precipitation reaction is

a)

Insoluble antigen combines with antibody

b)

It is used for routine identification of bacterial isolates

c)

Post zone phenomenon does not apply for precipitation reaction

d)

It can be done in agar medium

4.

An example for an application of precipitation reaction is

a)

Standardization of toxins and anti-toxins

b)

Coombs test

c)

Blood grouping and cross matching

d)

Rose- waaler test

5.

The statement which is false about agglutination test is

a)

Particulate antigens react with antibodies

b)

Coombs test is done for diagnosis of brucellosis

c)

Indirect coombs test is done with new born RBCs

d)

Heterophile antigen test is an example of agglutination reaction

6.

An example for latex agglutination test is

a)

Rose- waaler test

b)

RA factor test

c)

widal test

d)

Wassermann reaction

7.

Coombs test is also known as

a)

Complement fixation test

b)

agglutination test

c)

Neutralization test

d)

antiglobulin test

8.

Widal test is a type of

a)

Precipitation reaction

b)

agglutination reaction

c)

Neutralization test

d)

complement fixation test

9.

An example of fixation test

a)

Rose-waaler test

b)

widal test

c)

RA factor test

d)

Wassermann reaction

10.

The term complement was introduced by

a)

Buchner

b)

Pfeiffer

c)

Ehrlich

d)

Bordet

11.

Serum can be inactivated by exposing to

a)

45°C for 20 minutes

b)

46°C for 30 minutes

c)

50°C for 20 minutes

d)

56°C for 30 minutes

12.

All of the following immunoglobulins fix complement except

a)

IgM

b)

IgG3

c)

IgG2

d)

IgA

13.

Complement binding site on immunoglobulin is

a)

Fc portion

b)

hinge region

c)

Fab region

d)

complementarity-determining regions

14.

Which step of complement activation is common to all three major pathways

a)

C1 activation

b)

cqrs activation

c)

C3 activation

d)

C5 activation

15.

Which among the following is not a function of complement

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

inflammatory response

c)

Antigen presentation

d)

immune clearance

16.

Individuals are more prone to gonococcal infection if there is deficiency of

a)

C1 inhibitor

b)

C1 and C2

c)

C5-C8

d)

C9

17.

Lysozyme is present in

a)

Cerebrospinal fluid

b)

saliva

c)

Sweat

d)

urine

18.

All of the following options are true regarding lysozyme are true except

a)

Thermo labile

b)

low molecular weight

c)

Acidic protein

d)

acts as a muranminidase

19.

Which among the following is not a characteristic feature of adaptive immunity

a)

Antigenic sensitivity

b)

diversity

c)

Immunologic memory

d)

self-tolerance

20.

Immune elimination is a result of

a)

repeated administration of subunit vaccines

b)

repeated administration of BCG vaccine

c)

repeated infection with malaria

d)

repeated administration of antibodies

21.

All of the following statements are true about active immunity except

a)

There is a lag period

b)

It is durable and effective protection

c)

There is no negative phase

d)

It is not applicable in the immunodeficiency

22.

Premunition refers to

a)

co-infection with closely related species

b)

superinfection with another organism

c)

resistance to re-infection

d)

re-infection when original infection is still active

23.

Which is the example for artificial active immunity

a)

Infection by influenza virus

b)

Receiving killed cholera vaccine

c)

Through human colostrum

d)

Administering tetanus immunoglobulin

24.

Adoptive immunity is by

a)

Infection

b)

Administration of antibodies

c)

Administration of lymphocytes

d)

Active immunization

25.

All of the following statements are true regarding antigens except

a)

Antigenicity allows a substance to combine specifically with antibodies

b)

The ability to induce an immune response is immunogenicity

c)

Haptens can induce antibody formations but cannot react specifically with it

d)

Complex haptens can precipitate with specific antibodies

26.

The smallest unit of antigenicity is

a)

Paratope

b)

Epitope

c)

Agretope

d)

Isotope

27.

Which of the following properties is true about T cell-independent antigens

a)

complex of T cell receptor, antigen and MHC molecule formed

b)

antigen processing not required

c)

mostly soluble proteins

d)

isotope switching present

28.

Which among the following is most immunogenic

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

polysaccharides

d)

monosaccharides

29.

Which of the following is not true about super antigens

a)

The activation of T cells is antigen specific

b)

Hey induce massive activation of T cells

c)

There are endogenous and exogenous super antigens

d)

They bind to V domain of TCR and domain of class II MHC

30.

Hapten is

a)

The same as epitope

b)

Small molecular weight molecules

c)

Requires carrier for specific antibody production

d)

Simple hatpens can precipitate

31.

All of the following statements about carbon hydrates antigens are true EXCEPT

a)

it has lower immunogenicity

b)

memory response is seen

c)

they cause polyclonal B cell stimulation

d)

they do not require stimulation by T cells

32.

Immunoglobulin molecule when treated with mercaptoethanol yields

a)

2 Fab fragments and Fc fragment

b)

2 Fab fragments held together in position and Fc fragment

c)

2 Fab fragments held together in position with Fc digested

d)

2 L chains and 2 H chains

33.

Which is the major immunoglobulin in terms of concentration

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

34.

Which immunoglobulin has the longest half-life

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

35.

Which immunoglobulin has the maximum intravascular distribution

a)

IgE

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgG

36.

Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

37.

Antibody paste is formed by

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

38.

Secretory piece of IgA is synthesized by

a)

Plasma cells

b)

antigen-presenting cells

c)

Epithelial cells

d)

MALT

39.

The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by a fetus is

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgE

d)

IgA

40.

B cell receptors are constituted by

a)

IgG and IgM

b)

IgE and IgM

c)

IgD and IgG

d)

IgM and IgD

41.

Subtle amino acid variations exhibited in the constant region of immunoglobulins by members of the same species is known as

a)

idiotypes

b)

isotypes

c)

genotypes

d)

allotypes

42.

which among the following has pentameric structure

a)

IgM

b)

IgG

c)

IgA

d)

IgD

43.

The true statement about immunoglobulins is

a)

lgM fixes complement

b)

IgG does not cross the placenta

c)

IgE binds the phagocyte

d)

IgA binds to mast cells

44.

All are secondary lymphoid organs EXCEPT

a)

Spleen

b)

Bone marrow

c)

Lymph node

d)

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

45.

An individual starts to produce lgG in adequate levels at

a)

Birth

b)

6 months

c)

1 year

d)

2 years

46.

The thymus-dependent area of the lymph nodes is the

a)

Cortex

b)

Paracortical arca

c)

Medulla

d)

Medullary cords

47.

Blood borne antigens are primarily dealt with by

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Macrophages

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Spleen

48.

Splenectomy in children leads to increased incidence of bacterial sepsis, predominantly by the following bacteria EXCEPT

a)

Pneumococci

b)

H.influenzoe

c)

Staphylococci

d)

Meningococci

49.

The redominant immunoglobulin in the mucosa is

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

50.

All of the following statements are true of lymphocytes EXCEPT

a)

They constitute 20-40 per cent of the body's white blood cells

b)

Recirculating lymphocytes are mainly T cells

c)

Maturation of lymphocytes takes place in the peripheral lymphoid organs

d)

Mature T and B cell, before they encounter antigens, are known as naive organs cells

51.

Which among the following is the marker for B cells?

a)

CD1

b)

CD2

c)

CD3

d)

CD19

52.

Which among the following is a feature of a B cell?

a)

Formation of EAC rosettes

b)

Blast transformation with phytohemagglutinin

c)

Adherence to glass surface

d)

No cytoplasmic surface projections

53.

Which is true about plasma cells?

a)

Centrally placed oval nucleus

b)

Golgi apparatus poorly developed

c)

Terminally differentiated cell

d)

Life span of 1 week

54.

All of the below are antigen-presenting cells EXCEPT

a)

Dendritic cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

B lymphocytes

d)

Mast cells

55.

MHC restriction is related to

a)

Antigen presentation by APCs to T cells

b)

Distribution of MHC in the population

c)

HLA typing done prior to transplantation

d)

Genetic predisposition to disease

56.

All of the following options are functions of cell-mediated immunity EXCEPT

a)

Defence against fungi

b)

Protection against extracellular bacteria

c)

Rejection of grafts

d)

Immunological surveillance

57.

Which among the following is true of primary immune response?

a)

It is carried out by memory B cells.

b)

The predominant antibody is Ig6.

c)

Peak response is in 3-5 days

d)

A high dose of antigens is required

58.

Soluble antigens are removed from tissues by all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Equilibration

c)

Metabolism

d)

Immune elimination

59.

Immunological paralysis is seen when

a)

Antibodies are given multiple times.

b)

Antigens are given multiple times

c)

Massive doses of antibodies are given.

d)

Massive doses of antigens are given

60.

IL1 is predominantly produced by

a)

T lymphocytes

b)

Macrophages

c)

NK cells

d)

Stromal cells

61.

Which of the following statements is true about cytokines?

a)

It is always a polypeptide.

b)

It acts on protein targets

c)

It takes part in intrinsic enzymatic reactions

d)

It acts like endocrine hormones.

62.

Which among the following is an important endogenous pyrogen?

a)

IL1

b)

IL2

c)

IL3

d)

1L4

63.

IL2 is produced by

a)

B cells

b)

T cells

c)

Monocytes

d)

neutrophils

64.

Which among the following has an influence on eosinophil growth and differentiation?

a)

IL2

b)

IL4

c)

IL5

d)

IL6

65.

All of the following statements are true regarding transfer factor EXCEPT

a)

It transfers CMI passively

b)

It produces systemic effect

c)

It is antigenic

d)

It is inactivated at 56°C in 30 minutes.

Immunology

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

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