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WorksheetsFire Insp & Code Enf Ch 14
Total questions: 101
Worksheet time: 8hrs 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
: The main fire alarm system component that monitors equipment and circuits, receives input signals from initiating devices, activates notification appliances, and transmits signals offsite. Page 608
a)
Fire alarm control unit
b)
Primary power supply
c)
Secondary power supply
d)
Initiating devices
2.
The design and installation of the fire detection and alarm system are should conform to which two NFPA provisions? Page 608
a)
NFPA 70
b)
NFPA 72
c)
NFPA 13
d)
NFPA 14
3.
The controls for the fire alarm system are located where? Page 608
a)
Fire alarm control unit
b)
Primary power supply
c)
Secondary power supply
d)
Initiating devices
4.
The ___ usually comes from the building's main power connection to the local utility provider. Page 609
a)
Primary electrical power supply
b)
Secondary electrical power supply
c)
Emergency response signal transmission
d)
Supervisory signal
5.
All fire alarm systems must have a? Page 609
a)
Secondary electrical power supply
b)
Primary electrical power supply
c)
Automatic sprinkler system
d)
Smoke damper
6.
True or false: The secondary power supply must be capable of providing normal, (nonalarm) standby conditions capacity and power to fully operate an alarm condition. Page 609
a)
True
b)
False
7.
Secondary power sources can consist of: (select all that apply) Page 610
a)
Batteries with chargers
b)
Engine-driven generators with a storage battery
c)
Multiple engine-driven generators, of which one must be set for automatic starting
d)
Electrical cords
8.
What are the types of initiating devices? (select all that apply) Page 610
a)
Automatic
b)
Manual
c)
Battery-powered
d)
Engine-powered
9.
What is the most common type of alarm-signaling system used for signaling a fire alarm in a structure? Page 610
a)
Audible
b)
Visual
c)
Textual
d)
Tactile
10.
: Approved sounding devices, such as horns, bells, or speakers, that indicate a fire or emergency condition. Page 611
a)
Audible
b)
Visual
c)
Textual
d)
Tactile
11.
: Approved lighting devices, such as strobes or flashing lights, that indicate a fire or emergency condition. Page 611
a)
Visual
b)
Audible
c)
Textual
d)
Tactile
12.
: Visual text or symbols indicating a fire or emergency condition. Page 611
a)
Textual
b)
Visual
c)
Audible
d)
Tactile
13.
: Indication of a fire or emergency condition through sense of touch or vibration. Page 611
a)
Tactile
b)
Textual
c)
Visual
d)
Audible
14.
: Warning of a fire emergency or dangerous condition that demands immediate attention. Page 613
a)
Alarm signal
b)
Supervisory signal
c)
Trouble signal
d)
Audible
15.
: Indicates an off-normal condition of the complete protection system. Page 613
a)
Supervisory signal
b)
Alarm signal
c)
Trouble signal
d)
Audible
16.
: Indicates a problem with a monitored circuit or component of the fire alarm system or the system's power supply. Page 613
a)
Trouble signal
b)
Supervisory signal
c)
Alarm signal
d)
Audible
17.
Which system is designed to provide notification to building occupants only on the immediate premises? Page 614
a)
Protected premises system
b)
Conventional alarm system
c)
Zoned conventional alarm system
d)
Addressable alarm system
18.
Which supervising station is recognized as the most reliable? Page 618
a)
Central
b)
Proprietary
c)
Remote
d)
Public
19.
Which supervising station does not provide inspection, testing, or maintenance services? Page 619
a)
Remote
b)
Central
c)
Proprietary
d)
Public
20.
Which supervising station is used to protect large commercial and industrial buildings, high-rise structures, and groups of commonly-owned facilities? Page 619
a)
Proprietary
b)
Remote
c)
Central
d)
Public
21.
Which of the following statements about public emergency alarm reporting systems is MOST accurate? Page 621
a)
Power interruption may result in the alarm only sounding locally
b)
The system is connected to a telecommunications center through a municipal fire alarm box system
c)
A radio signal over an open radio frequency may be used
d)
The ability to transmit alarms during power interruptions is independent of the design of the municipal system
22.
Which type of emergency communications system is MOST helpful to fire suppression personnel operating in a building? Page 622
a)
Two-way communication systems
b)
Voice notification system
c)
Mass notification system
d)
Direct communication system
23.
The type of emergency communications system used to provide emergency communication to a large number of people on a wide-scale basis is a: Page 622
a)
Mass notification system
b)
Two-way communication systems
c)
Voice notification system
d)
Direct communication system
24.
Automatic alarm-initiating devices are more commonly known as: Page 623
a)
Detectors
b)
Pull-stations
c)
Sprinklers
d)
Initiators
25.
What are automatic alarm-initiating devices more commonly known as? Page 623
a)
Detectors
b)
Pull-stations
c)
Sprinklers
d)
Initiators
26.
Which type of automatic initiating devices are relatively inexpensive and least prone to nuisance alarms? Page 624
a)
Heat detection devices
b)
Fusible links/frangible bulbs
c)
Bimetallic heat detection devices
d)
Continuous-line heat detector
27.
What do heat detectors require in order to be effective? Page 624
a)
Proper placement
b)
Proper maintenance
c)
Independent power supply
d)
Heat
28.
Which type of fire detection systems are among the oldest still in service? Page 624
a)
Heat detection devices
b)
Fusible links/frangible bulbs
c)
Bimetallic heat detection devices
d)
Continuous-line heat detector
29.
There are ___ basic types of air sampling smoke detectors. (pg.632)
a)
Two
b)
Three
c)
Four
d)
Five
30.
Are installed in the return or supply ducts or plenums of HVAC systems to prevent smoke and products of combustion from being spread throughout the building (pg.632)
a)
Duct Smoke Detectors
b)
Ionization Smoke Detector
c)
Video-Based Detectors
d)
Photoelectric Smoke Detection
31.
Duct smoke detectors are a substitute for other types of smoke detectors in open areas. (pg.632)
a)
False
b)
True
32.
___ and flame detection operate on the principle of detecting change in a digital video image from a camera or a series of cameras (pg.633)
a)
Video-Based Detectors
b)
Ionization Smoke Detector
c)
Duct Smoke Detectors
d)
Photoelectric Smoke Detection
33.
These cameras will work only in lighted space. (pg.633)
a)
Video-Based Detectors
b)
Ionization Smoke Detector
c)
Duct Smoke Detectors
d)
Photoelectric Smoke Detection
34.
All heat detection devices operate on one or more of the three primary principles of physics. (pg.625)
a)
True
b)
False
35.
What are the three Fixed-Temperature Heat Detectors? (pg.625-626)
a)
Fusibile Links/ Frangible Bulbs
b)
Bimetallic Heat Detector
c)
Continuous-Line Heat Detector
d)
Pneumatic Rate-of-Rise Line Heat Detector
36.
Are fusible links and frangible bulbs used in fire alarm systems? (pg.625)
a)
YES
b)
NO
37.
A bimetallic heat detector uses ___ types of metal with different heat-expansion ratios that are bonded. (pg.625)
a)
two
b)
three
c)
four
d)
five
38.
The amount a combined strip arches depends on: [select all that apply](pg.625)
a)
characteristics of the material
b)
amount of heat exposed to
c)
degree of arch present when in normal positions
39.
Most bimetallic detectors are the automatic-resetting type. (pg.626)
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
40.
Spot style: (pg.626)
a)
detectors that detect conditions only at the spot where they are located
b)
detectors that can be used to detect conditions
c)
detectors that detect smoke
d)
detectors that beep
41.
Tubing-Type Continuous Line Heat Detector: (pg.626)
a)
a conductive metal inner core cable that is sheathed in stainless steel tubing
b)
uses two wires that are each insulated and bundled within an outer covering
c)
detector that can monitor large areas of a building
d)
heat detector is designed for use in areas that are subject to regular temperature changes, but at rates that are slower than those of fire conditions
42.
Wire-Type Continuous Line Heat Detector: (pg.627)
a)
uses two wires that are each insulated and bundled within an outer covering
b)
a conductive metal inner core cable that is sheathed in stainless steel tubing
c)
heat detector is designed for use in areas that are subject to regular temperature changes, but at rates that are slower than those of fire conditions
d)
consists of one or more thermistors that produce a marked change in electrical resistance when exposed to heat
43.
Which heat detector operates on the principle that fires rapidly increase the temperature in a given area? (pg.627)
a)
Rate-of-Rise
b)
Continuous-Line
c)
Bimetallic
d)
Fusible Links/Frangible Bulbs
44.
Heat detector that can monitor large areas of a building: (pg.627)
a)
Pneumatic rate-of-rise line heat detector
b)
Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot heat detector
c)
Rate-compensation heat detector
d)
Electronic spot-type heat detector
45.
Operates on the same principle as the pneumatic rate-of-rise line heat detector; major difference is that the spot heat detector is self-contained in one unit that monitors a specific location (pg.628)
a)
Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot heat detector
b)
Pneumatic rate-of-rise line heat detector
c)
Rate-compensation heat detector
d)
Electronic spot-type heat detector
46.
This heat detector is designed for use in areas that are subject to regular temperature changes, but at rates that are slower than those of fire conditions (pg.628)
a)
Rate-compensation heat detector
b)
Pneumatic rate-of-rise line heat detector
c)
Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot heat detector
d)
Electronic spot-type heat detector
47.
An electronic spot-type heat detector consists of one or more thermistors that produce a marked change in electrical resistance when exposed to heat (pg.628)
a)
Electronic spot-type heat detector
b)
Pneumatic rate-of-rise line heat detector
c)
Rate-compensation heat detector
d)
Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot heat detector
48.
These heat detectors can be calibrated to function as rate-of-rise (approximately 15°F per minute) detectors and function at a fixed temperature (pg.629)
a)
Electronic spot-type heat detector
b)
Pneumatic rate-of-rise line heat detector
c)
Rate-compensation heat detector
d)
Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot heat detector
49.
Serve the purpose of early detection, notification, and reaction (pg.629)
a)
Smoke Detectors
b)
Photoelectric Smoke Detector
c)
Ionization Smoke Detectors
d)
Duct Smoke Detectors
50.
___ detection is the preferred automatic alarm device in such occupancy types as residences and health and institutional care facilities. (pg.630)
a)
Smoke
b)
Heat
c)
Flame
d)
Combination
51.
All smoke detectors are required to respond to the same fire tests. (pg.630)
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
52.
Two basic methods of smoke detection are in use: [select all that apply](pg.630)
a)
photoelectric
b)
ionization
c)
duct smoke detectors
d)
video-based detectors
53.
Detection that works on all types of fires and usually responds more quickly to smoldering fires than ionization smoke detection. (pg.630)
a)
Photoelectric Smoke Detection
b)
Ionization Smoke Detector
c)
Duct Smoke Detectors
d)
Video-Based Detectors
54.
Functions in one of two ways to detect smoke: projected-beam application (obscuration) or refractory application (scattered). (pg.630)
a)
photoelectric cell functions
b)
light source
c)
two electrically charged plates
d)
ionized air molecules
55.
Contains a sensing chamber consisting of two electrically charged plates (one positive and one negative) and a radioactive source for ionizing the air between the plates (pg.631)
a)
Ionization Smoke Detector
b)
Duct Smoke Detectors
c)
Video-Based Detectors
d)
Photoelectric Smoke Detection
56.
Works satisfactorily on all types of fires, although it generally responds more quickly to flaming fires than photoelectric smoke detectors (pg.632)
a)
Ionization Smoke Detector
b)
Duct Smoke Detectors
c)
Video-Based Detectors
d)
Photoelectric Smoke Detection
57.
The ionization smoke detector is an automatic resetting type and is best suited for rooms that contain highly combustible materials, such as: [select all that apply](pg.632)
a)
Cooking fat/grease
b)
Flammable Liquids
c)
Newspapers
d)
Cleaning Solutions
58.
An air sampling smoke detector is a type of ionization detector that is designed to continuously monitor a small amount of air from the protected area for the presence of smoke particles. (pg.632)
a)
True
b)
False
59.
What are the three basic types of flame detectors? [select all that apply](pg.633)
a)
detect light in the ultraviolet wave spectrum (UV detectors)
b)
detect light in the infrared wave spectrum (IR detectors)
c)
detect light in both UV and IR waves
d)
cloud-chamber type
60.
A(an) __ detector is effective in monitoring large areas, such as an aircraft hangar or computer room. Page 633
a)
infrared
b)
UV
c)
photoelectric
d)
ionization
61.
___ detectors are easily activated, they are easily activated by such nonfire conditions as welding, sunlight, and other bright light sources. (pg.633)
a)
UV
b)
infrared
c)
video-based
d)
duct smoke
62.
Combination detectors give the detector the benefit of both services and increase their responsiveness to fire conditions. (pg.634)
a)
True
b)
False
63.
An automatic initiating device is designed to activate an audible alarm (horn/strobe) when water begins to flow through the sprinkler system (pg.634)
a)
Sprinkler Waterflow Alarm
b)
Duct Smoke Detectors
c)
Rate-compensation heat detector
d)
Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot heat detector
64.
True or false: The protected premises system can be activated by manual means, such as a pull station, or by automatic devices, such as smoke detectors. Page 615
a)
True
b)
False
65.
What is the simplest type of protected premises alarm system? Page 615
a)
Conventional alarm system
b)
Protected premises system
c)
Zoned conventional alarm system
d)
Addressable alarm system
66.
A(an) ___ serves the premises as a local control unit. Page 616
a)
FACU
b)
Conventional alarm system
c)
Protected premises system
d)
Zoned conventional alarm system
67.
In this type of system, an annunciator panel, FACU, or a printout visibly indicates the building, floor, fire zone, or other area that coincides with the location of an operating alarm-initiating device. Page 616
a)
Zoned conventional alarm system
b)
Conventional alarm system
c)
Protected premises system
d)
Addressable alarm system
68.
If an alarm signaling system uses backup electrical generators, how long should a generator run under load for a monthly test? Page 641
a)
30 minutes
b)
15 minutes
c)
10 minutes
d)
5 minutes
69.
Remote station and proprietary systems should be tested according to requirements established by: Page 641
a)
agency having jurisdiction (AHJ)
b)
The owner/occupant
c)
The manufacturer
d)
A qualified individual
70.
All components of emergency voice/alarm systems should be tested at least: Page 642
a)
annually
b)
monthly
c)
semiannually
d)
weekly
71.
During a monthly test for alarm signaling systems using backup electrical generators, how long should a generator run under load? Page 641
a)
30 minutes
b)
15 minutes
c)
10 minutes
d)
5 minutes
72.
Which component's acceptance testing includes testing pull stations, detectors, bells, and strobe lights? Page 643
a)
Alarm-initiating and occupant notification appliances and circuits
b)
Power supplies
c)
Fire alarm control unit (FACU)
d)
Alarm, supervisory, and trouble signals
73.
Where are occupant evacuation notification graphic displays often located? Page 644
a)
Near the front entrance to the building
b)
Near the back exit of the building
c)
Above the fire alarm control unit (FACU)
d)
Near all initiating devices
74.
Requirements for specific visual notification of fire appliances come from: Page 645
a)
adopted building code
b)
agency having jurisdiction (AHJ)
c)
The manufacturer
d)
A qualified individual
75.
The total sound pressure produced by audible occupant notification of fire appliances must not exceed: Page 644
a)
120 dBA
b)
150 dBA
c)
60 dBA
d)
30 dBA
76.
In order for audible fire notification appliances to alert the building occupants, the appliance must be Page 644
a)
loud enough to be heard
b)
properly placed
c)
positioned where it can be seen
d)
equipped with a backup battery supply
77.
NFPA® 72 requires the sound level of an audible device to be at least 15 dBA above the average or normal sound level or ____ above the maximum sound level that lasts at least one minute in the protected occupancy. Page 644
a)
5 dBA
b)
10 dBA
c)
15 dBA
d)
20 dBA
78.
The requirement for specific visual fire notification appliances comes from: Page 645
a)
adopted building code
b)
agency having jurisdiction (AHJ)
c)
The manufacturer
d)
A qualified individual
79.
The level of loudness is a measurement of sound pressure measured in decibels. T/F Page 644
a)
True
b)
False
80.
Where required, visual notification appliances must be installed in corridors that are less than: Page 646
a)
20 feet (6 m) wide
b)
40 feet (12 m) wide
c)
20 feet (18 m) wide
d)
10 feet (3m) wide
81.
Plans for the complete fire detection and alarm system should be submitted for review and approval by the: Page 646
a)
local authorities
b)
adopted building code
c)
installation personnel
d)
manufacturer
82.
Which activity is MOST likely to be witnessed by an inspector during acceptance testing? Page 642
a)
Inspection of conduits for solid connections and proper support
b)
Installation of fire detection devices
c)
Evacuation of personnel during a fire drill
d)
Testing of power supplies
83.
Where are rotating beacons used for occupant evacuation notification? Page 644
a)
Large industrial and commercial complexes
b)
High rise structures
c)
New construction
d)
Warehouses
84.
Which component's acceptance testing includes operating all interactive controls to verify that they control the system as designed? Page 643
a)
Fire alarm control panel (FACU)
b)
Power supplies
c)
Alarm, supervisory, and trouble signals
d)
Alarm-initiating and occupant notification devices and circuits
85.
Almost all fire detection and alarm system installations require the use of: Page 644
a)
audible signals
b)
visual signals
c)
detection documentation
d)
alarm system documentation
86.
What document is sometimes required in order to prevent an inspector from checking a system that may not be installed correctly. Page 642
a)
A record of completion from the system installer/manufacturer
b)
An administrative warrant
c)
A record of the system installation
d)
A record of inspection from a certified and licensed engineer
87.
Integrated audible and visual signals are used to accommodate: Page 644
a)
the hearing and visually impaired
b)
people with disabilities
c)
everyone
d)
the building occupants
88.
Only after ____ of the parts of the system have successfully passed the tests should a system certification be issued. Page 643
a)
all
b)
some
c)
half
d)
most
89.
When more than two strobes are in the field of vision, the strobes used for notification of fire must be synchronized to flash: Page 646
a)
at the same time
b)
at different times
c)
interchangeably
d)
one after another
90.
Acceptance testing is performed: Page 642
a)
soon after the system has been installed and prior to occupancy
b)
before the system has been installed
c)
after occupancy
d)
one year after the system has been installed and prior to occupancy
91.
The minimum candela rating for the visual notification appliances mounted in corridors is: Page 646
a)
15 cd
b)
20 cd
c)
25 cd
d)
50 cd
92.
When fire alarm systems are installed, the appropriate documentation must be submitted to the: Page 646
a)
AHJ
b)
adopted building code
c)
The manufacturer
d)
A qualified individual
93.
Which of the following should witness acceptance tests? Page 642
a)
Representatives of the building owner/occupant
b)
Emergency response personnel
c)
The building inspector
d)
The public
94.
If the ambient sound in a building is above 105 dBA, the building must: Page 644
a)
have visible notification
b)
have audible notification
c)
have sprinkler systems
d)
have multiple smoke detectors
95.
In addition to horns, bells, and strobes, notification may also include: Page 643-644
a)
voice evacuation systems
b)
smoke detectors
c)
a fire alarm control unit (FACU)
d)
two-way communication
96.
Which type of fire notification signaling appliances are most commonly used in a structure? Page 644
a)
Audible
b)
Visual
c)
Heat detectors
d)
Smoke detectors
97.
What needs to be done any time there is a change to fire detection and alarm-signaling software? Page 647
a)
The system should be completely tested
b)
The system should be replaced
c)
The system should be cleaned
d)
The system should be removed
98.
Strobe requirements of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) apply to new construction and: Page 645
a)
Renovations to portions of buildings open to the general public
b)
High rise structures
c)
Large industrial and commercial complexes
d)
Assemblies
99.
A measurement for audible occupant notification of fire is required to be made at: Page 644
a)
5 feet (1.5 m) above the floor
b)
10 feet (3 m) above the floor
c)
3 feet (1 m) above the floor
d)
6 feet (2 m) above the floor
100.
When is acceptance testing typically performed on fire detection and alarm systems? Page 642
a)
Soon after the system has been installed and prior to occupancy
b)
before the system has been installed
c)
after occupancy
d)
one year after the system has been installed and prior to occupancy
101.
On newer fire detection and alarm systems where the system installer uses computers to program panels, where should design configurations be kept? Page 647
a)
On site
b)
Off site
c)
The supervisor's office
d)
At a remote location
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