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10 Psychology revision

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The persistence of learning over time through the encoding, storage, and retrieval of information

a)

Memory

b)

Intelligence

c)

Cognition

d)

Prancing

2.

The process of getting information into the memory system

a)

Upheaval

b)

Retrieval

c)

Storage

d)

Encoding

3.

The process of retaining encoded information over time

a)

Jaunting

b)

Storage

c)

Encoding

d)

Retrieval

4.

The process of getting information out of the memory storage

a)

Retrieval

b)

Encoding

c)

Storage

d)

Undulating

5.

The immediate, very brief recording of information in the memory system

a)

Suspensory Memory

b)

Long-Term Memory

c)

Amnesia

d)

Sensory Memory

6.

Activated memory that holds a few items briefly (such as the seven digits of a phone number while dialing) before the information is stored or forgotten

a)

Sensory Memory

b)

Long-term Memory

c)

Short-term Memory

d)

Active Forgetting

7.

Memory demonstrated by retrieving information learned earlier, as on a fill-in-the-blank test

a)

Recall

b)

Recognition

c)

Rendition

d)

Registration

8.

A newer understanding of short term memory that stresses conscious, active processing of incoming auditory and visual-spatial information, and if information retrieved from long-term memory

a)

Busy Memory

b)

Happy Memory

c)

Lazy Memory

d)

Working Memory

9.

Typically the number of episodes spent in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep per night is:

a)

One to Two

b)

Two to Four

c)

Four to Five

d)

Seven to Eight

11.

Many shift workers find it difficult to get adequate periods of uninterrupted sleep and often report feeling tired.

A major consequence of their sleep disruption is that shift workers:

13.

In normal waking consciousness a person is most likely to experience:

a)

divided attention

b)

hallucinations

c)

REM

d)

daydreams

14.

In order to treat a patient with a circadian phase sleep disorder, a procedure designed to reset the person’s natural body rhythm may be achieved by:

15.

According to which theory is sleeping thought to be essential for revitalising and repairing the physiological processes that keep the body and mind healthy and functioning properly?

a)

Evolutionary

b)

Restoration

c)

Recovery

d)

Physiological

16.

Which of the following would NOT be a justified explanation from the restorative theory of sleep?

a)

Cell growth

b)

Repair of damaged cells

c)

Replacement of neurotransmitters depleted through brain function

d)

Conservation of energy

17.

Which of the following is NOT evidence for Restorative Theory for sleep?

a)

Rats become very ill if they are sleep deprived

b)

Human growth hormone secreted during sleep facilitating tissue repair

c)

Sleep deprivation leads to decreased immune function and cognitive dysfunction

d)

Physically inactive people sleep just as long as physically active people

18.

Which one of the following supports the evolutionary theory of sleep?

a)

Cats sleep for long periods to prevent muscle damage

b)

Sleep enhances the alertness of dogs when they are awake

c)

Animals afflicted with viruses are likely to sleep more than usual

d)

Large prey animals sleep for longer periods than small prey animals

19.

According to the restoration theory of sleep, which one of the following best explains the difference between an infant's sleep and an older child's sleep?

a)

Older children need more food to east and therefore they have less time for sleep than infants

b)

Infants undergo more rapid brain development and therefore they experience more REM sleep than older children

c)

Older children exert more physical energy during the day and therefore they experience more REM sleep than infants

d)

Infants have access to safe and stable places to sleep and therefore they experience more sleep overall than older children

20.

Jason was taking part in a study of the sleep patterns of adolescents. From the ages of 11 to 24, he was required to keep a sleep diary for one month each year. In the sleep diary he described how tired he felt during the day. In the same month he also wore an electronic device that recorded the amount of time he spent asleep.

The researcher was collecting

a)

subjective data

b)

only quantitative data

c)

only qualitative data

d)

quantitative and qualitative data

21.

If schizophrenia runs in a person's family, what are the individual's odds of getting the disorder?

a)

1 in 1,000

b)

1 in 100

c)

1 in 10

d)

1 in 5

22.

Which is NOT a type of anxiety disorder?

a)

Obsessives-Compulsive

b)

Panic

c)

Post-traumatic

d)

Somatoform

23.

Which best describes disorganized schizophrenia?

a)

Involves only hallucinations and delusions

b)

symptoms are completely gone

c)

incoherent language, inappropriate emotions & poor motor behavior

d)

motionless for long periods of time

24.

With dissociative identity disorder, the main personality is known as the (a)  

25.

A person who has generalized anxiety disorder would have which of the following?

a)

Vague feeling of being in danger

b)

Muscle tension

c)

Poor appetite

d)

Difficulty sleeping

26.

Which disorder is characterized by an inability to establish meaningful relationships, assuming social responsibilities and treating people as objects?

a)

Major Depressive Disorder

b)

SAD

c)

Antisocial Personality Disorder

d)

Avoidant Personality Disorder

27.

Which disorder is characterized by an inability to establish meaningful relationships, assuming social responsibilities and treating people as objects?

a)

Major Depressive Disorder

b)

SAD

c)

Antisocial Personality Disorder

d)

Avoidant Personality Disorder

28.

Which neurotransmitter is most likely associated with schizophrenia?

(a)  

29.

Undifferentiated Schizophrenia has which of the following symptoms?

a)

Deterioration of basic functioning

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Inappropriate emotions

d)

Can require hospitalization

e)

Delusions

30.

What is a psychological disorder?

a)

a harmful dysfunction in which behaviors are maladaptive, unjustifiable, disturbing and atypical

b)

chemical imbalances in the brain that cause people to act in harmful ways

c)

malformations of important brain segments

d)

a dysfunction that is not harmful but may consist of behaviors that are maladaptive, unjustifiable, disturbing and atypical

31.

A maladaptive behavior is one that:

a)

is destructive to yourself or others and inhibits a person to adjust to particular situations

b)

occurs without a rational basis

c)

is troublesome to other people

d)

is so different it violates a norm

32.

The bio-psycho-social model:

a)

believes that people have genetic predispositions to disorders

b)

believes that a person thoughts and patterns play a role in the disorder

c)

believes that social and cultural aspects shape how a person sees their circumstance

d)

believes that nature is more important than nurture

33.

What do we use to diagnosis and classify disorders?

a)

Trained professionals (psychologist and counselors) do it

b)

The DSM-5

c)

Research Papers

d)

Intuition

34.

Why does misrepresenting disorders in the media matter?

a)

It doesn't matter

b)

it creates negative stereotypes

c)

It messes up research

d)

It makes disorders look cool

35.

Which lobe of the brain is the main decision maker of the brain and controls voluntary movement?

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

36.

Which lobe of the brain primarily processes auditory information?

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

37.

Which lobe of the brain processes somatosensory information such as touch, pain, temperature, and limb location?

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

38.

Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for visual information?

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

39.

In which lobe of the brain is Broca's area located?

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

40.

In which lobe of the brain is Wernicke's area located?

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

41.

Which of the following is not a component of the brain stem?

a)

Midbrain

b)

Pons

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Thalamus

42.

Which part of the brain stem contains visual and auditory reflex centers?

a)

Midbrain

b)

Pons

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Thalamus

43.

Which major part of the brain controls balance and equilibrium?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Diencephalon

d)

Brain Stem

44.

Which part of the brain is known as the language comprehension center?

a)

Broca's

b)

Wernicke's

45.

Which part of the brain controls the physical ability to speak?

a)

Broca's

b)

Wernicke's

46.

What is the definition of intelligence?

a)

The "... capacity to be smart"

b)

The "... ability to do well in school"

c)

The “… capacity to act purposely, to think rationally, and to deal effectively with the environment”

d)

The “… capacity to deal effectively with the environment”

47.
According to Gardner, what is logical/mathematical intelligence?
a)
The gift of visually representing concepts through drawing and building.
b)
The gift of physical prowess, fitness, or action.
c)
The gift of thinking in music terms and symbols and of performing.
d)
The gift of reasoning and thinking in symbols and abstractions, as demonstrated in calculating, computing, problem solving, and graphing
48.

According to Gardner, what is interpersonal intelligence?

a)

verbal or linguistic skills such as listening, speaking, and writing

b)

Understanding the self

c)

Understanding other people

d)

Environment awareness of the natural world.

49.

If Katie's intelligence quotient is 100, we know that she has a

a)

perfect score on a set of age-related tests.

b)

test performance superior to 90% of other children the same age who took the test.

c)

mental age typical of children who have the same chronological age.

d)

mental age below those of children with the same chronological age

50.

Which of the following is one of Gardner’s types of Intelligences?

a)

Executive Skills

b)

Ethics

c)

Creativity

d)

Musical

51.

The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test was originally created for?

a)

adults trying to figure out their Intelligence

b)

career aptitude tests

c)

children in France

d)

David Wechsler

52.

Howard Gardner has theorized all of the following types of intelligence EXCEPT?

a)

Intrapersonal

b)

Naturalistic

c)

Visual-Spatial

d)

Practical

53.

Operant learning theory is the work of which psychologist?

a)

Eysenck

b)

Skinner

c)

Bandura

d)

Watson

54.

____________ argues the cause of someone's behaviour lies in reinforcements and punishments

a)

Behaviourism

b)

Humanism

c)

Psychoticism

d)

Cognitivism

55.

Behaviourism can be used to explain criminal behaviour

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Bandura's theory is called ________________

a)

Cognitive theory

b)

Differential association theory

c)

Social Learning Theory

d)

Differential enforcement theory

57.

Bandura's experiments became known as the __________________

a)

Baby Doll experiments

b)

Copy Cat experiments

c)

Bobo Doll experiments

d)

Childhood experiments

58.

Which group were most likely to imitate the model? (Group 1 - saw the model rewarded for aggression), (Group 2 - saw the model punished), (Group 3 - model was neither rewarded nor punished)

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 2

c)

Group 3

59.

What does it mean by positive reinforcement ?

a)

Reward

b)

Punishment

c)

Dessert

d)

Reward and punishment

60.

Teacher Nurin praises her students with encouraging words such as "Good job!" and gives her students stickers as rewards. What kind of reinforcement has been applied in her classroom?

a)

Positive reinforcement

b)

Negative reinforcement

61.

Who is the behaviorist that introduce classical conditioning?

a)

Jean Piaget

b)

F. Skinner

c)

Ivan Pavlov

d)

Erik Erikson

62.

Fill in the blanks with the correct answer. “Throughout the course of three distinct phases, the associated stimulus is known as __ and learned behaviour is known as __.”

a)

conditioned response, conditioned stimulus

b)

conditioned stimulus, conditioned response

c)

stimulus conditioning, response conditioning

d)

response conditioning, stimulus conditioning

63.

A child does not listen to his parents, so they take his favorite toy away.. This is an example of:

a)

Negative Reinforcement

b)

Positive Reinforcement

c)

Negative Punishment

d)

Positive Punishment

64.

What is the definition of Behaviorism learning theory?

a)

Process through which experience causes permanent change in knowledge or behavior

b)

focuses on the inner mental activities – opening the “black box” of the human mind is valuable and necessary for understanding how people learn

c)

Explanations of learning that focuses on external events as the cause changes in behavior, either positive or negative stimuli

65.

Pavlov dog experiment refers to which learning theories?

a)

Cognitivism

b)

Constructivism

c)

Behaviorism

d)

Connectivism